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RTE 1533 Wk 4 review
RTE 1533 Week 4 test review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the facial bones? | Zygoma, Midway b/w the EAM and the outer canthus |
| What is the angle between the OML and the place of the IR for a parietoacanthial (waters) projection | 37 degrees |
| Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the IR for the parietoacanthial projection | Mentomeatal |
| Where does the CR exit for a modified parietoacanthial (modified waters) projection of the facial bones | Acanthion |
| Which of the following technical factors do not apply to lateral nasal bone projections | The Tech should not use AEC, The Tech should use a small focal spot, The Tech should use low to med. kV. |
| Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the IR with a true lateral nasal bone projection | Interpupillary |
| The CR must be placed parallel to the ___ positioning line for the superoinferior (tangential) projection of nasal bones | glabelloalveolar |
| Which of the following points is not true about the oblique inferosuperior (tangential) projection of the zygomatic arches | A grid must be used |
| Which projection best demonstrates the floor of the orbits | Modified parietoacanthial (modified waters) |
| Which positioning line must be used with a 30 degree caudad angle for an AP axial projection of zygomatic arches | OML |
| What is the angle between the midsagittal plane and the IR for a parieto-orbital oblique projection of the optic foramen | 53 degrees |
| Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the IR for the parieto-orbital oblique projection of the optic foramina | AML |
| What is the maximum CR angulation used for the axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible | 25 degrees |
| Why is the chin extended for an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible | To prevent superimposition upon the cervical spine |
| The modified law method for TMJ requires a ____ degree rotation of the skull and a ___ angle of the CR | 15:15 |
| What is the position of the skull for an axiolateral projection (Schuller method) of the TMJs | True lateral position |
| What CR angle is required for the Schuller method projection of the TMJs | 25 to 30 degree caudad |
| Sit: A radiograph of a lateral projection of the facial bones reveals that the mandibular rami are not superimposed. What positioning error is present | Rotation |
| Sit: A radiograph of a parietoacanthial (waters) projection reveals that the petrous ridges are superimposed over the lower 30% of the maxillary sinuses. What specific positioning error (if any) led to this | Insufficient extension |
| Sit: A radiograph of a parieto-orbital oblique projection for the optic foramen reveals that the optic foramen is projected into the inferior, outer orbital rim. Which modifiction is needed to make it diagnostic? | Decrease the extension of the head and neck |
| Sit: A radiograph of an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible with the head in a lateral position reveals that the mandibular body is greatly foreshortened. Which modifications is needed to make it diagnostic | Increase the rotation of skull toward the IR |
| Sit: A patient enters the ER with facial bone injuries. The physician is concerned about a possible blow-out fracture of the left orbit. Which three projections would bet diagnose the injury | Modified parietoacanthial, 30 degree PA facial bone, and lateral facial bone projections |
| Sit: A patient enters the ER with a possible nasal bone fracture. The physician is concerned about a possible bony nasal septum deviation and fractured nasal bones. Which routine would best diagnose these injuries | Parietoacanthial,Lateral nasal bone, and superoinferior (axial) projections |
| A patient enters the ER with a possible fracture of the right zygomatic arch. Which of the following routines would best diagnose a possible fracture of this structure | Submentovertex, bilateral oblique infersuperior (tangential), and AP axial projections |
| Sit: A radiograph of a PA projection of the sinuses reveals that the petrous ridges are projected over the ethmoid sinuses. Which of the following mods will eliminate this superimposition while not compromising diagnostic quality | Increase extension of the head and neck slightly |
| Which of the following terms best describes a partial dislocation of a joint | Subluxation |
| Which term describes a misalignment of a distal fracture fragment that is angled toward the midline? | Varus deformity |
| Which type of fracture is defined as being crushed at the site of impact, producing two or more fragments? | Comminuted |
| Which of the following fractures is described as an incomplete fracture with the cortex broken on one side of the bone? | Greenstick |
| Which of the following is not a fracture but a subluxation? | Nursemaids' elbow |
| Which of the following fractures involves the distal fifth metacarpal? | Boxer's |
| Which of the following fractures usually involves the spine? | Compression |
| This fracture is also called a “march fracture.” | Stress fracture |
| A fragment of bone that is separated or pulled away by the attached tendon or ligament is termed: | avulsion fracture |
| self-propelled, battery-driven mobile x-ray unit generally go up a maximum incline of ______. | 7 degrees |
| Which of the three cardinal rules of radiation protection is the most effective means of feducing exposure during mobile and surgical procedures? | Distance |
| Which of the C-arm orientations in general results in the greatest exposure to the operator’s head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged? (Patient is supine.) | AP projection (x-ray tube above anatomy) |
| Where should the operator (or surgeon) stand when using a C-arm fluoroscopy unit in a horizontal CR position? | Intensifier end of the C-arm |
| A 30 degree tilt of the C-arm x-ray tube from the vertical position will increase radiation exposure to the face and neck region of the operation standing next to the C-arm by approximately a factor of ____. | 4 |
| (T/F) An ankle series would best demonstrate a Pott's fracture. | True |
| Which of the following projections will best demonstrate an air-fluid level within the skull with the patient recumbent? | Horizontal beam lateral |
| The AP reverse Caldwell projection for a trauma skull exam requires the CR to be: | 15 degree cephalad to the orbitomeatal line. |
| How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse Waters) projection for the facial bones? | Parallel to the mentomeatal line |
| Which of the following routines would best demonstrate a depressed or “ping-pong” fracture? | AP and lateral skull projections |
| Situation: A patient enters the ER with a possible greenstick fracture. Which age group does this type of fracture usually affect? | Pediatric |
| Which of the following fractures is often called a “reverse Colles” with anterior displacement of the distal radius? | Smith’s |
| Typically, how much contrast media is injected by the surgeon during an operative cholangiogram? | 6 to 8 ml |
| Which of the following is not an essential attribute for the surgical radiographer? | Mastery of essential nursing skills |
| Which type of procedure would be performed in surgery to realign a fracture? | Open reduction |
| An individual who prepares the sterile field and scrubs and gowns the members of the surgical team is a: | scrub |
| “ Boost” exposure used during C-arm procedures are intended to: | increase brightness of image |
| The primary pathologic indication for an operative cholangiogram is: | biliary calculi |
| Which one of the following devices is best during a C-arm hip pinning procedure to protect the sterile environment? | Shower curtain |
| What type of orthopedic fixators is commonly used to reduce midhumeral fractures? | Intramedullary rod |
| What should a technologist do if the sterile environment is violated during a surgical procedure? | Notify a member of the surgical team immediately. |
| A fracture in which the bone is broken into three pieces, with the middle fragment fractured at both ends, is termed: | segmental fracture. |
| (T/F)The entire sterile gown, worn by the surgeon, is considered sterile. | False |
| A health professional who prepares the OR by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments is a: | certified surgical technologist (CST). |
| Which one of the following devices is classified as an external fixators? | Ilizarov device |
| A fracture that occurs though the pedicles of the axis (C2), with or without displacement of C2 or C3, is termed: | hangman’s fracture |
| Asepsis is defined as a(n): | absence of infectious organisms |
| When performing conventional imaging during an operative cholangiogram, the IR is placed in a special metal tray called a: | pizza pan |
| The abbreviation ORIF refers to: | open reduction internal fixation |
| Which of the following procedures is a nonsurgical procedure? | Closed reduction |
| Subluxation is best described as a: | partial dislocation. |
| Which of the following terms is currently most acceptable in describing child abuse? | Nonaccidental trauma (NAT) |
| Which of the following factors should be the first consideration in controlling motion for the pediatric patient? | Short exposure time |
| Which of the following immobilization devices is recommended for an erect abdomen projection on an 18‐month‐old patient? | Pigg‐O‐Stat |
| What size stockinette is recommended for a small infant? | 3 inches |
| (T/F) Fine sand should be used in sandbags for pediatric immobilization because it makes it more pliable. | False |
| (T/F) Diapers may be left on for abdomen or pelvic exams if the technologist is sure there are no pins or other metallic items included. | False |
| Which term describes the space between the primary and secondary growth centers? | Epiphyseal plate |
| Which of the following pathologies is best demonstrated with a radiographic chest procedure? | Cystic fibrosis |
| The CR should be directed to the level of____ for a lateral 2‐year‐old chest patient. | the mammillary line |
| Which modality is commonly used for evaluating congenital hip dislocation in newborns? | Ultrasound |
| Which modality is commonly used for evaluating and staging of tumors in young children without providing a high patient dose? | MRI |
| (T/F)Gonadal shielding should not be used for any studies of the pelvis for bilateral hip evaluation | False |
| (T/F)Children should not drink any fluid (including water and fruit juice) for 4 hours before an IVU. | False |
| Which positioning line is perpendicular to IR for an AP projection of the pediatric skill? | OML |
| Which of the following radiographic structures are evaluated to best determine tilt on a lateral pediatric skull projection? | Orbital roofs |
| What is the NPO fasting period for a 2‐year‐old before an upper gastrointestinal series? | 4 hours |
| Where is the CR centered for a KUB performed on an infant? | 1 inch (2.5 cm) above the umbilicus |
| How much barium is given to a newborn during an upper gastrointestinal series? | 2 to 4 ounces |
| (T/F) Latex enema tip should be used for pediatric barium enemas. | False |
| Which of the following kV ranges is recommended for a pediatric VCUG for patients in infancy through age 18 years? | 65 to 85 |
Created by:
Joker71
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