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Pharmacology (9-16)
Covering Chapters 30-58
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The 2 lobes of the pituitary gland | Anterior & Posterior pituitary gland |
| Characteristics of water-soluble hormones | Protein-based (catecholamines- norepinephrine & epinephrine) |
| Characteristics of lipid-soluble hormones | Steroid & Thyroid hormones |
| Name 2 hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland | ADH (Vasopressin) & Oxytocin |
| Which drug or hormone is used in the treatment of diabetes insipidus? | Vasopressin |
| What 3 hormones are secreted by the thyroid gland> | Thyroxine (T4), Triiodothyronine (T3), Calcitonin |
| Secondary hypothyroidism is the result of an insufficient secretion of which hormone? | TSH |
| List 3 symptoms of hypothyroidism | Cold intolerance, dry/brittle hair, weight gain, fatigue |
| Which drug can cause hypo- and hyperthyroidism? | Amiodarone |
| When taking thyroid medication and warfarin, which medication will have an increased effect? | Warfarin |
| In what manner should levothyroxine be taken? | Every am, empty stomach, 30 - 60 min before eating. |
| Methimazole and Propylthiouracil are medications used to treat what condition> | Hyperthyroidism |
| List 4 adverse effects of anti-thyroid drugs | Smokey urine, pruritus, enlarged thyroid gland, lymphadenopathy, hepatitis, loss of taste, liver and bone marrow toxicity |
| PTU can be used throughout the pregnancy to treat hyperthyroidism? | False- can only be used the first trimester, then methimazole must be used |
| People with Type I DM always are aware of the condition before 1 year of age? | False- severe sicknesses or emotional traumas can be underlying precursors of the disease. |
| A patient who has a blood glucose > 600mg/dL, an elevated sodium level, with a normal serum HCO3 may have... | Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome |
| Lispro (Humalog)and Aspart (NovoLog) insulins can be mixed with what insulins? | Regular and NPH only |
| Humalog and Novalog mixtures can be mixed and administered with what other insulins? | None |
| NPH insulin is referred to as intermediate-acting insulin and can have effects on the patient for _________ hours | up to 18 hours (Peaks 4- 8 hours) |
| Regular insulin (Hum R) can act as quickly as ________ minutes when administered subcutaneously | 30 - 60 minutes |
| The first choice for treating type II DM in oral form? | Metformin (a biguanide) |
| The most common stated side effect of Metformin | Gi symptoms (diarrhea) |
| Glucotrol, Diabeta, and Amaryl belong to what group of oral hypoglycemics? | Sulfonylureas |
| Most common SE of sulfonylureas | Hypoglycemia |
| Actos should not be used with patients who have what conditions? | Liver or kidney disease, [they can exacerbate heart failure and have a black box warning due to this] |
| Cases of reported pancreatitis have been reported when taking which oral hypoglycemic? | Januvia |
| Trulicity, Victoza, and Ozempic belong to a class of injectable medications that stimulate the production of which hormones? | Incretins (GLP-1, GIP) |
| The adrenal gland has 2 main parts, what are they? | Adrenal medulla & cortex |
| Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by which part of the adrenal gland? | Adrenal medulla |
| The adrenal cortex secretes which hormones? | Corticoseroids (glucocorticiods & mineralocorticoids) |
| Oversecretion of adrenocortical hormones causes what condition? | Cushing's syndrome |
| Undersecretion of adrenocortical hormones causes what condition? | Addison's disease |
| What glucocorticoid is administered to women in premature labor to help accelerate fetal lung maturation. | Betamethasone |
| Hyperglycemia and psychosis are adverse effects seen when taking which class of adrenal medications | Corticosteroids |
| Why should patients with a diagnosis of heart failure be cautiously chosen to receive glucocorticoids? | Glucocorticoids cause fluid retention |
| For a patient taking 5mg of prednisone or greater per day, if stopped abruptly could experience _________________. | HPA (adrenal suppression) |
| A chemical side effect of taking a glucocorticoid is that potassium levels usually increase/decrease. | Decrease |
| Addison's crisis develops as a result of a decrease in the patient's ____________________, __________________, and _______________. | extracellular fluid volume, sodium level, potassium level |
| The most active of the 3 major estrogens | Estradiol |
| List 3 indicators for estrogen therapy | hypogonadism, uterine bleeding, osteoporosis, breast cancer, prostate cancer, menopause symptoms |
| The most serious adverse effect of estrogen therapy? | Thromboembolism |
| Nursing instructions for a patient starting HRT in May could include... | Avoid the sun as photosensitivity is a common side effect. |
| A woman with fibroids would most likely be treated with a progestin or estrogen? | Progestin |
| What effect might someone taking St John's Wort have on progestin? | It will reduce the effect of the progestin. |
| Contraindications for oral contraceptives could include: list 3 | pregnancy, women who have breast or endometrial cancer, or a high risk for thrombi formation |
| If a woman has an allergy to salmon, which drug for osteoporosis should she not take? | Calcitonin |
| Fertility drugs increase the secretion of FSH and LH through what mechanism? | By stimulating GnRH in the hypothalamus causing the pituitary to release more FSH and LH |
| The patient's HCP can prescribe fertility medication. | False - a fertility specialist must prescribe these |
| Methylergonovine is used in the immediate postpartum period for what purpose? | reduce the likelihood of postpartum hemorrhage |
| List 2 medications that can be used to treat BPH | Finasteride and dutasteride |
| Staff education regrading finasteride include .... | Women should wear gloves |
| Alpha-1 Adrenergic blockers have what advantage over 5-Alpha reductase inhibitors when treating BPH? | They act almost immediately in shrinking the prostate 5_ARI can take up to 6 months. |
| Sildenafil (Viagra) can be used to treat ED and what other clinical issue | Pulmonary HTN though a different trade name is used |
| A major contraindication for the use of ED drugs is | simultaneous use of nitrate medications such as nitroglycerin |
| Another term for "Adrenergics" | Sympathomimetics |
| Another term for " Anticholinergics" | Parasympatholytics |
| A substance capable of producing a specific immune response. | Antigen |
| Any of the hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are referred to as ... | Corticosteroids |
| Antihistamines would be contraindicated for a patient with HTN-True or False | True |
| For what reason is Diphenhydramine not recommended for elderly patients? | Hangover effect-increased risk for falls with elevated anticholinergic effects |
| Rebound congestion is more likely to occur with what form of decongestant? | Nasal sprays |
| What are the two classes of antitussive medication? | Opioid & Non-opioid |
| Dextromethorphan has become popular as it is an opioid antitussive True or False | False - it is a non-opioid but has a high record of abuse |
| In treating asthma, sympathetic agonists work to __________ mucous secretions and _____________ bronchial muscle spasms. | reduce, relax |
| Theophylline works by inhibiting the breakdown of mast cells that stimulate the release of histamine, serotonin, and slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SRS-A) True or False | True |
| Beta agonists imitate the effects of epinephrine on beta cells True or False | False- beta agonists imitate the effects of norepinephrine on beta cells. |
| List 2 short-acting beta agonists (SABA) used in treating asthma. | Albuterol, Levalbuterol, Terbutaline |
| List 2 long-acting beta agonists (LABA) used in treating asthma. | Arformoterol, Formoterol, Salmeterol, Vilanterol with fluticasone (Breo Ellipta) |
| A patient asks which inhaler to use with an impending asthma attack ... Ventolin or Serevent? What is correct? | Ventolin as it is a SABA |
| A patient with COPD and acute narrow angle glaucoma or prostate enlargement should be careful when using which class of drug for COPD management? | Anticholinergics |
| List 2 Xanthine derivatives used to treat COPD? | Theophylline and caffeine |
| An adverse effect of LTRAs in treating asthma that caused a blackbox warning in 2020 | Mood & behavior changes |
| By what 2 mechanisms are corticosteroids thought to act? | inflammation reduction & increasing the activity of beta-agonists |
| Phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors (PDE4) require the patient to be instructed on what severe, potential, adverse adverse reaction? | Psychiatric reactions |
| Type of antibiotic that inhibits growth rather than killing the bacteria | Bacteriostatic antibiotics |
| Definitive therapy incorporates using the largest spectrum antibiotic to kill the bacteria... True or False | False - definitive therapy concentrates on using the narrowest-spectrum, least toxic drug that will resolve the issue. |
| Sulfonamides belong to which class of antibiotics? | Bacteriostatic |
| Can a sulfonamide given to a child under age 2? | No |
| Delayed cutaneous reactions are common adverse reactions from which class of antibiotic? | Sulfonamide drugs. |
| Beat-lactamase inhibitors work to prevent the breakdown of what molecule? | PCN |
| An 83 year old male is taking warfarin post PE. He acquired an infection in the hospital that required a PCN drug. Are these 2 meds compatible? | The PCN will enhance the effects of the warfarin |
| If a patient is allergic to PCN, what other class of antibiotics might they be allergic to? | Cephalosporins |
| What effect does cephalosporins have on oral birth control drugs? | They lower the effects of the birth control mediction. |
| Name 2 first-generation cephalosporins | Cefazolin (Ancef) & Cephalexin (Keflex) |
| List 2 unique traits of Ceftriaxone | It is administered only once daily & it passes the blood brain barrier |
| Class of anti-infectives having the broadest antibacterial action | Carbapenems (Primaxin, Merrem) |
| Class of antibiotic initially considered bacteriostatic, but in high enough concentrations can be considered bacteriocidal | Macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin) |
| Azithromycin is taken how many times daily? | Once |
| Tetracyclines should not be taken by __________ and ___________ women or children under the age of ______ YOA. | pregnant, breast-feeding; 8 years of age |
| Aminoglycosides must be monitored through blood work due to their toxicity associated with which 2 body systems? | Renal, hearing |
| Which drug level is of most importance in aminoglycoside therapy? | Trough (the lowest levels) |
| A nurse should monitor for renal or ototoxicity if the trough level of tobramycin is ..... | Greater than 2mg/mL |
| The administration of aminoglycosides can reduce the production of what vitamin in the gut? | Vit K |
| Can quinolones be used to treat E Coli? True or False | False - E Coli is resistant |
| List 1 potential cardiac result of quinolone therapy | Prolonged QT interval |
| Cipro and Levaquin belong to what class of antibiotic | Quinolones |
| The type of immunity that is primarily mediated by T lymphocytes | Cell-mediated immunity |
| The type of immunity that is primarily mediated by B-lymphocytes | Humoral immunity |
| Women who are pregnant or may become pregnant should avoid what form of Famcyclovir? | Aerosolized form |
| Acyclovir is used primarily to treat which condition(s)? | HSV-1 & HSV-2 & Varicella Zoster |
| Oseltamivir can be used to treat what condition(s) | Flu A & Flu B |
| What 2 drugs can be used in combination to treat Hep C? | Ribavirin & Sofosbuvir |
| The HAART regimen refers to a combination of at least 3 medications to help in treating which condition? | HIV |
| What type of precautions should the nurse maintain when applying antiviral ointments and aerosolized powders? | Standard precautions. |
| If a nurse is accidentally stuck with a needle from an HIV patient, what prophylactic meds should be used for the nurse? | Emtricitabine & Tenofovir |
| What are contraindications for taking antitubercular meds are ... | Liver & renal compromise |
| Isoniazid is used to treat TB. The medication lowers which vitamin level, requiring that the vitamin be given in conjunction with the medication | Pyridoxine (Vit B6) deficiency |
| A medication known to treat TB but also may cause varying degrees of vision loss | Ethambutol |
| Drug approved for multi-resistant forms of TB | Bedaquiline & Pretomanid |
| What 2 conditions warrant careful consideration if Amphotericin-B should be used to treat a fungal infection? | Bone marrow suppression & renal impairment |
| Fluconazole is preferred to Amphotericin B because... | Fewer side effects |
| What is one STI that requires treatment with an antiprotozoal drug? | Trichomoniasis is treated with metronidazole |
| Most anthelmintic drugs kill a variety of worm-related infections? | False-medications are specific for the type of helminthic infection |
| NSAIDS can cause damaging effects to which organs/body systems? | Kidneys and GI |
| ASA products are contraindicated in what age-group individuals when having flu-like symptoms? | Children |
| An injectable form of Indocin can be used to correct which heart defect occurring in premature infants? | Patent ductus arteriosus |
| Due to this anti-inflammatory drugs' effect on the kidneys and GI tract, it should be used for no more than 5 days. | Ketorolac (Toradol) |
| The only COX-2 inhibitor remaining on the market for the treatment of variations of arthritis. | Celecoxib (Celebrex) |
| Which anti-gout medication can cause short-term leukopenia? | Colchicine |
| Antineoplastic drugs classified as antimetabolites, mitotic inhibitors, alkaloid topoisomerase I & II inhibitors, and antineoplastic enzymes | Cell cycle-specific |
| Extravasation is a concern with chemotherapeutic drugs because they can potentiate ... | Death to tissues in the surrounding area |
| Neupogen is given to stimulate granulocyte production. Therefore, it should be with the chemotherapeutic medication. | False- it must be given prior to the development of an infection and not administered within 24 hours of certain chemotherapeutic drugs (myelosuppressive drugs) |
| What are 3 properties of interferons? | antiviral, antitumor, immunomodulating |
| List 2 conditions other than RA for which Humira can be prescribed? | Crohn's disease, Ulcerative colitis, plaque psoriasis, and psoriatic arthritis |
| When being treated with interleukin therapy, what is an adverse event that is defined by the capillaries' inability to retain: albumin & protein. | Capillary leak syndrome and an result in fluid retention of up to 20-30 lbs. |
| One advantage of NSAIDS over disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDS) ... | NSAIDS act quicker-DMARDS may take several weeks |
| It would be important to screen patients for what allergy if being prescribed Enbrel? | Latex |
| When using methotrexate for the treatment of RA patient teaching should stress the frequency of the medication is .... | Once weekly |
| Immunosuppressant drugs are primarily used to treat ... | Patients who have received an organ transplant |
| Simulect (basiliximab), when combined with other immunosuppressants can cause what condition? | New-onset diabetes |
| if being treated with a cyclosporin for anti-tissue rejection, what class of anti-lipemic use is a contraindication for this? medication? | Statins |
| ______________ immunization occurs by receiving a vaccine or toxoid | Active |
| _______________ immunity that occurs as defined by a large portion of the community population having immunity to the disease | Herd |
| Partial immunity is provided by the administration of ____________ vaccines. | Killed |
| Toxoids and vaccines work in much the same way to provide immunity. | True |
| What is the recommended vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis? | DTaP for primary and children up to 6 YOA Tdap is recommended for adolescents and adults |
| People who are hypersensitive to yeast should not receive which vaccine? | Hep B vaccination series |
| A woman who is considering getting pregnant should wait at least 3 months after receiving this vaccine. | MMR (because it is a live virus) |
| Gardisil-9 can be administered to males and females up to what age? | 45 |
| Famotidine and cimetidine belong to what category of acid-controlling drugs? | H2 receptor antagonists |
| H2 receptor antagonists work by causing the parietal cells of the stomach to become more responsive to histamine. | False- the parietal cells become less responsive and produce less hydrogen ions leading to an increase in gastric pH. |
| H2 antagonist receptors effectiveness can be decreased by what activity? | Smoking |
| Nexium, Protonix, and Prilosec belong to what category of acid-controlling drugs? | PPIs (proton pump inhibitors) |
| List 2 adverse effects that have been associated with PPIs | C-diff and osteoporosis |
| An optimum treatment for long-term PUD would be the miscellaneous classified acid-controlling drug ... | Carafate |
| Hepatitis is a contraindication for the use of which bulk-forming laxative? | Methylcellulose (Citracel) |
| Name 2 OTC antihistamines that can be used to treat nausea and vomiting | Dramamine & Benadryl |
| The prokinetic drug can cause the unwanted side effects of _______________ ____________________ | tardive dyskinesia |
| Which vitamin deficiency in an infant may result in irritability and hemolytic anemia? | Vitamin E |
| Scurvy-like symptoms can occur in individuals who abruptly stop taking this viatmin | Vit C |
| What 2 supplements may be prescribed to assist in wound healing of a pressure ulcer? | Zinc & Vit C |
| The presence of extremely chapped lips on a newly admitted patient could indicate which vitamin deficiency? | Vit B2 |
| Pernicious anemia is the result of what vitamin deficiency? | B12 |
| Iron preparations must be taken on an empty stomach for absorption to occur - True or False | False- absorption is increased if taken on empty stomach but if GI distress occurs, it may be taken with food |
| Administering total parenteral nutrition peripherally can cause what issue? | Phlebitis |
| When considering allergies before the implementation of TPN, what might the nurse need to ask the patient? | Egg allergy - may possess cross sensitivity to the fat components in the TPN |
| Which antimicrobial can be used to treat patients who have are MRSA colonized (via nasal) | Mupirocin |
| Tretinoin can be used to help repair sun damage - True of False | True- tretinoin encompasses a variety of Vit A-based products that are applied to the skin for acne and to help repair sun damage |
| List 2 common side effects of dermatologic antifungals (Lotrimin, Miconazole) | Rash, stinging, contact dermatitis |
| Which antipsoriatic medication works by binding to Vit D3 receptor sites | Calcipotriene (Dovonex) |
| The medications Spinosad and Ivermectin have what advantage over other treatments for lice? | They do not require nit combing after treatment |
| Premalignant skin lesions can be treated with this dermatologic drug using 1% or 2% strength | Fluorouracil |
| Before using a providone-iodine swab on a patient, the nurse should inquire about what type of allergy? | Shellfish or Iodine |
| A sign of an allergic reaction to bacitracin would include ... | itching and burning at the site of application |
| Ophthalmic drugs that constrict the pupil are called .... | Miotics |
| Ophthalmic drugs that dilate the pupil are called ... | Mydriatics |
| Miotic medications such as carbachol and pilocarpine are used to treat what condition? | Open-angle glaucoma |
| A patient using Timolol should be educated they may experience what effect on tear production? | Decreased tears |
| The commonly used Beta-1 selective beta blocker, Betoptic, has a duration of action that is more than __________ hours | 12 |
| Name the two most commonly used osmotic diuretics for reducing intraocular pressure | Mannitol and Glycerin |
| List 2 popular prostaglandin agonists used to treat glaucoma | Xalatan & Lumigan |
| The therapeutic effects of the prostaglandin agonists last how long? | 20-24 hours |
| A unique side effect specific to the prostaglandin agonists to treat glaucoma ... | Will turn light-eyed persons eye color brown |
| The appearance of white, crystalline precipitates that occur in a corneal lesion could be related to treatment with this ophthalmic drug | Ciprofloxacin |
| Which NSAID ophthalmic drug can cause issues with breakdown of the corneal epithelial layer | Ketorolac |
| Treating ear disorders uses drugs called the 4 As ... List the categories | antibacterials, antifungals, antiinflammatory, analgesics |
Created by:
Rumple
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