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RADT 465 Procedures
ARRT registry review covering radiographic procedures content area
Question | Answer |
---|---|
Refers to the body's physical position (recumbent, erect, prone) | Radiographic position Page 92 |
Describes the path of the CR (enters posteriorly, exits anteriorly) | Radiographic projection Page 92 |
Location of stomach in hypersthenic patient. | stomach is transverse in the abdomen Page 93 |
Location of stomach in Asthenic patient. | Stomach very low and long like a fish hook Page 93 |
Location of stomach in hyposthenic patient. | Stomach is long like a fish hook (slightly higher than asthenic) Page 93 |
Location of stomach in Sthenic patient. | stomach is transverse in the abdomen but more medial than hypersthenic Page 95 |
At what level in the cervical spine is the thyroid cartilage? | C5 Page 96 |
At what level in the thoracic spine is the suprasternal (jugular) notch? | T2-T3 Page 96 |
At what level in the thoracic spine is the sternal angle? | T4-T5 Page 96 |
At what level in the spine are the kidneys located? | T12-L3 Page 96 |
At what level in the spine is the umbilicus located? | L3-L4 Page 96 |
At what level in the spine is the iliac crest located? | L4 Page 96 |
At what level in the spine is the ASIS located? | S1-S2 Page 96 |
Turning of the body or arm so that the palm faces forward, with the thumb away from the midline of the body. | Supination Page 97 |
Bending motion of an articulation decreasing the angle between associated bones. (bending head forward) | Flexion Page 97 |
Movement of a part away from the body's MSP | Abduction Page 97 |
A turning outward or lateral motion of an articulation sometimes with external tension or stress applied. (turns the sole outward, away from the midline) | Eversion Page 97 |
A turning inward or medial motion of an articulation sometimes with external tension or stress applied. (turns the sole inward, toward the midline) | Inversion Page 97 |
Five functions of the skeletal system. | Support, reservoir for minerals, muscle attachment/movement, protection, and hematopoiesis. Page 106 |
Immovable joints are known as? | Synarthrotic joints AKA fibrous articulations Page 106 |
Name an example of a Synarthrotic joint. | Sutures of the cranium Page 106 |
Partially movable joints are known as? | Amphiarthrotic joints AKA cartilaginous joints Page 106 |
Name an example of an Amphiarthrotic joint. | Intervertebral joints or symphysis pubis Page 106 |
Freely movable joints are known as? | Diarthrotic joints AKA synovial joints Page 106 |
Name 7 types of synovial joints. | Gliding (plane), Pivot (trochoid), Hinge (ginglymus), Ball-and-socket (spheroid), Condyloid (ellipsoid), Saddle (sellar), Bicondylar (biaxial) Page 107 |
Name the proximal row of the carpal bones (lateral to medial) | Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform Page 111 |
Name the distal row of the carpal bones (lateral to medial) | Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate Page 111 |
Which carpal bone is the largest? | Capitate Page 111 |
The head of the ulna is at the distal/proximal end? | Distal Page 112 |
The head of the radius is at the distal/proximal end? | Proximal Page 112 |
Which bone is the most commonly fractured bone of the arm? | Radius Page 113 |
Name the 7 Tarsal bones. | Calcaneus, Talus, Navicular, Cuboid, First/Medial Cuneiform, Second/Intermediate Cuneiform, Third/Lateral Cuneiform. Page 119 |
What is the largest Tarsal bone? | Calcaneus Page 119 |
For an external rotation AP shoulder, what anatomy is shown best in this view? | Shows the greater tubercle in profile Page 125 |
For an internal rotation AP shoulder, what anatomy is shown best in this view? | Shows the lesser tubercle in profile Page 125 |
Would you increase or decrease technique for the following pathologies: Arthritis, Ewing Sarcoma, Rickets, Thalassemia. | Decrease Page 152 |
Would you increase or decrease technique for the following pathologies: Chronic Gout, Multiple Myeloma, Paget disease. | Increase Page 152 |
What kind of fracture is an undisplaced fracture? | Simple fracture Page 152 |
Type of fracture where the ends of the bone are out of alignment? | Displaced fracture Page 152 |
A fracture where the end of the bone has penetrated through the skin? | Compound (open) fracture Page 152 |
Which fracture is a greenstick fracture with one cortex buckled/compacted and the other is intact? | Torus/buckle fracture Page 152 |
A fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with anterior dislocation of the radial head. | Monteggia fracture Page 152 |
Transverse fracture of distal third of the radius with posterior angulation and associated avulsion fracture of the ulnar styloid process. | Colles fracture Page 152 |
Fracture of the distal tibia and fibula with dislocation of the ankle joint. | Pott fracture Page 152 |
How many bones are in the vertebral column? | 33 bones. Page 154 |
What is the name of C1 and C2 vertebrae? | C1 is the Atlas C2 is the Axis Page 156 |
What is the spot where the coronal suture meets the sagittal suture? | Bregma Page 170 |
How many cranium bones are there? | 8 (2 parietal, 2 temporal, frontal, occipital, ethmoid, and sphenoid) Page 170 |
How many facial bones are there? | 14 (2 nasal, 2 lacrimal, 2 palatine, 2 inferior nasal conchae, 2 maxillae, 2 zygomatic, vomer, and mandible) |
What bone is the Sella turcica in? | Sphenoid bone. It houses the pituitary gland Page 175 |
What is the only movable facial bone and is the largest facial bone? | Mandible Page 177 |
Which bone is the EAM in? | Temporal bones Page 176 |
Where is the central ray directed for a PA skull? | Perpendicular to the Nasion Page 178 |
Where is the central ray directed for a lateral skull? | 2 inches superior to the EAM Page 178 |
Which line is perpendicular to the IR with the modified waters view? | LML (OML is 55 degrees from the IR) Page 182 |
What is the angle for the AP axial Towne method? | OML perpendicular to IR with 30 degrees caudad. CR enters 1 inch superior to glabella. Page 183 |
Where should the petrous ridges be seen on a PA axial Caldwell view? | Lower 1/3 of orbits Page 185 |
To demonstrate air/fluid levels, the CR must always be directed parallel/perpendicular to the floor. | Parallel Page 188 |
What are the 3 divisions of the Pharynx? | Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, Laryngopharynx Page 190 |
The right lung has how many lobes? | 3 Lobes Page 191 |
What are the GI tract tissue layers (inner to outer)? | Mucosa, submucosa, muscular, serosa Page 201 |
When should a Hysterosalpingogram be scheduled? | Approximately 10 days after the start of menstruation. Page 223 |
What technique removes unnecessary structures such as bone from superimposition on contrast-filled blood vessels? | Subtraction Page 231 |
Which arteries supply blood to the brain? | Internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries Page 230 |
What is the order of layers covering the brain? (innermost to outermost layer) | Pia mater, arachnoid mater, Dura mater |