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Merrill's Ch1
Preliminary Steps in Radiography Workbook questions
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Who is a Radiographer? | A radiologic technologist who administers ionizing radiation to perform radiographeic procedures. |
| Explain ALARA. | Stands for "as low as reasonable achievable" and is the fundamental radiation protection protocol for radiographers. |
| Define: ARRT | American Registry of Radiologic Technologists |
| Define: ASRT | American Society of Radiologic Technologists |
| What do the ASRT do for the radiologic technology profession? | The ASRT wrote the Radiography Practice Standards, They define the practice of radiography, describe necessary education and certification, and include Clinical Performance Standards, Quality Performance Standards, and Professional Performance Standards. |
| What do the ARRT do for the radiologic technology profession? | The ARRT created and maintains the Standards of Ethics that apply to all radiologic technologists who are certified by the organization. |
| How often should the radiographic table be cleaned? | After each patient |
| How do members of the radiologic technology profession help to control pathogen contamination? | By following Standard Precautions and Transmission-based Precautions |
| What is the easiest and most convenient method to prevent the spread of microorganisms? | washing the hands |
| When using a free IR to perform an examination on an isolation patient, the IR should be placed ________ the sheet. | under |
| What protective apparel should radiographers wear if the possibility of touching blood exists? | disposable gloves |
| What procedure should be followed to dispose of used hypodermic needles properly? | place them in a puncture proof container |
| List procedures that require aseptic technique when performed in the radiology department. | Cystography, intravenous urography, spinal puncture, arthrography, angiography |
| T/F When performing an examination in the operating room (OR), position the C-arm next to the operating table on the same side as the surgeon. | False, position on the side opposite |
| Before beginning a radiographic examination, what should the radiographer do to gain the cooperation of a coherent patient? | Give an explanation of the procedure to be performed |
| What is the minimum number of personnel that should be used to transfer a helpless patient from a gurney to the radiographic table? | four |
| When the radiologist is unable to see the patient, who is responsible for ensuring that an adequate clinical history accompanies the radiographs? | The radiographer |
| What is the role of the radiographer in interpretation of radiographic images? How should requests for interpretations be handled? | Interpretations of images is outside the scope of practice for radiographers. Requests for interpretations must be referred to a qualified physician. |
| List the three ways a patient's colon may be cleansed for an abdominal examination. | Limited diet Laxatives Enemas |
| T/F If washable gowns are used, they should be starched; starch is radiolucent, which means it can be penetrated easily by x-rays. | False, starch is radiopaque which means it shows up on x-rays |
| Why is it necessary to ensure that any folds in cloth gowns are straightened out before making the radiographic exposure? | To prevent confusing shadows (artifacts) |
| What devices must be removed from the patient within the area of interest when the skull is examined? | dentures, removable bridgework, earrings, necklaces, all hair pins, and eyeglasses |
| Identify the three types of muscular tissue and state the type of motion (voluntary or involuntary) associated with each. | Smooth - involuntary Cardiac - involuntary Striated - voluntary |
| The rhythmic motion of smooth muscle structures is called _________. | Peristalsis |
| What exposure factor is used to control involuntary motion? | Exposure time |
| What body system controls the movement of voluntary muscles? | Central nervous system |
| What are the four ways voluntary motion can be controlled by a radiographer? | Apply immobilization Give clear instructions Adjust support devices Provide patient comfort |
| T/F Most exams require the patient to hold their breath at some phase of respiration, such as the end of inhalation or exhalation. | True |
| Define Image Receptor (IR) | the device that receives the energy of the x-ray beam and forms the image of the body part. |
| List the four types of IRs used in diagnostic radiology. | Solid State Digital Detector Photostimulable Storage Phosphor Image Plate Fluoroscopic IR Cassette with film |
| According the the recommended procedural steps, what should the radiographer do before releasing or returning the patient? | Evaluate the radiograph |
| What are the prime technical factors under control of the radiographer? | milliamperage (mA) kilovolt peak (kVp) exposure time (seconds) |
| What patient conditions require a decrease in radiation exposure? | Old age Atrophy Emaciation Emphysema Pneumothorax Degenerative arthritis |
| What patient conditions require an increase in radiation exposure? | Ascites Edema Pneumonia Enlarged heart Hydrocephalus Pleural effusion |
| In cases where patients or their caregivers express anxiety about having imaging studies without the use of gonadal shielding, technologists are advised to: | attempt to explain the latest AAPM research. |
| What are the three general positions of the IR? Which IR position is used most frequently? | Lengthwise, crosswise, diagonal; lengthwise |
| Regardless of the IR size, it is the radiographer's responsibility to ___________ to the bodypart. | Collimate |
| What adjustment can be made by the radiographer to compensate for an increase in OID? | Increase the SID to reduce the magnification |
| List four reasons why it would become necessary to angle the central ray: | To avoid the superimposition of overlying or underlying structures. To avoid superimposing a curved structure on itself. To project through angled joints. To project through angled structures without foreshortening or elongation. |
| The distance from the anode focal spot inside the x-ray tube to the IR is the ________. | SID |
| What three factors are affected by SID? | Magnification of anatomy Spatial resolution Dose to patient |
| The traditional minimum SID used for most conventional radiographic exams is ___________, but recently, the SID has been increased to ______________. | 40 inches (102 cm); 44-48 inches (112-122 cm) |
| What is the minimum SID for chest radiography? | 72 inches (183 cm) |
| List two purposes of collimation when restricted to irradiate only the anatomy of interest. | minimizes dose to patient reduces scatter radiation |
| T/F Creating an image using a larger than required (necessary) field size is a violation of the ARRT Code of Ethics. | True |
| T/F Shuttering of direct digital images is an acceptable substitution for proper collimation. | False |
| Define and describe the anatomical position. | Patient stands erect with face and eyes directed forward, arms extended by the sides with palms facing forward, heels together and toes pointing anteriorly. |
| Describe how a posteroanterior (PA) projection radiograph of the chest should be oriented on the display monitor. | Radiographs are usually oriented on the display monitor so that the person looking at the image sees the body part as though viewed facing the patient. |
| Describe how lateral projection radiographs should be displayed. | As though the viewer sees the patient from the perspective of the x-ray tube. |
| Describe how hand and foot radiographs should be displayed. | With the digits pointing upward and as viewed from the perspective of the x-ray tube. |
| What are the four items of identification information that should be on every radiograph? | Patient's name Date of examination Institutional Identity Side marker (right or left) |
| Some examinations require an additional information to indicate the ________________ after the introduction of a contrast medium. | cumulative time |
| Define the abbreviation AP | anteroposterior |
| Define the abbreviation AEC | automatic exposure control |
| Define the abbreviation IR | image receptor |
| Define the abbreviation CR (IR type) | Computed Radiography |
| Define the abbreviation CR (x-ray field reference) | |
| Define the abbreviation mAs | milliampere second |
| Define the abbreviation DR | digital radiography |
| Define the abbreviation APR | anatomically programmed radiography |
| Define the abbreviation ASIS | anterior superior iliac spine |
| Define the abbreviation BMI | body mass index |
| How have equipment manufacturers responded to the growing obesity problem in the United States? | Radiographic and fluoroscopic table weight limits have been doubled to 700 lbs. CT and MRI table weights and aperture openings have also increased. |
| What is the major risk factor in transportation and transfer of obese patients? | Risk of injury to radiographers, other healthcare workers, and the patient. |
| Which body parts are most affected, in terms of increased size, by morbid obesity? | Thorax, stomach, and colon |
| What bony landmark(s) are usually palpable on obese patients? 1. Jugular notch 2. Xiphoid process 3. ASIS 4. Iliac crest | 1. jugular notch |
| What is the approximate distance of the pubic symphysis from the jugular notch on a patient whos measures 5 fee, 3 inches (160 cm) tall? | 22 inches |
| ____________ elevates the diaphragm and abdominal viscera, shortens the lung fields, depresses the sternum, and lowers the ribs and increases their angle near the spine. | Expiration |
| ____________ depresses the diaphragm and abdominal viscera, lengthens and expands the lung fields, elevates the sternum and pushes it anteriorly, and elevates the ribs. | Inspiration |
| Which factor will minimize distortion? 1. CR-part alignment 2. Collimation 3. Milliampere-time (mAs) 4. SID | 1. CR-part alignment |
| When imaging an obese patient, which landmarks are difficult to palpate? 1. Jugular notch 2. ASIS 3. Iliac crest 4. Greater trochanter | 2, 3 and 4 |
| T/F Based on the exterior dimensions of obese patients, larger IRs are needed to image these patients. | False |
| A PA projection radiograph of the hand should be displayed: | from the perspective of the x-ray tube and with the fingers pointing upward. |
| Who is responsible for obtaining a necessary clinical history when the radiologist is unable to see the patient? | radiographer |
| To dispose of a hypodermic needle properly is should be: | placed in a puncture-proof container |
| Which of the following technical factors is most important to adjust and increase when imaging an obese patient? 1. mAs 2. kVp 3. Focal Spot 4. AEC | 2. kVp |
| Within the OR, who should remove sterile items that are in the way of the radiographer? | Circulating nurse |
| To prepare the patient for radiographic examination of the abdomen, what are the three methods used for cleansing the patient's bowel? | Limited diet, laxatives, and enemas |
| Which type of muscle tissue produces peristalsis? | Smooth |
| Which type of muscle tissue comprises skeletal muscle? | Striated |
| Which pathologic condition requires a decrease in exposure factors from the routine procedure? 1. Edema 2. Pneumonia 3. Emphysema 4. Pleural effusion | 3. emphysema |
| Which change in exposure factors should be used to control voluntary motion that is a result of the patient's age or mental illness? | Decrease the exposure time |
| Which procedure best reduces the possibility of patient-controlled motion? | Give understandable instructions to the patient |
| Which side marker placement rule applies when performing an AP oblique radiograph of the cervical spine? | Always mark the side closest to the IR |
| Which piece of information is NOT required as part of the identification of radiographs? 1. Name of the Patient 2. Date of the examination 3. Name of the radiographer 4. Name of the medical facility | 3. name of the radiographer |
| What is the primary purpose of collimating to the area of interest? | Reduces patient exposure |
| How is radiographic image quality affected when the radiation field is restricted to the area under examination only? | Increased radiographic contrast resolution |
| Which would cause an artifact on a chest x-ray? 1. a bra 2. eyeglasses 3. hearing aids 4. denim jeans | 1. a bra |
| Which change most improves spatial resolution when the sternum is imaged? 1. Increasing the OID 2. Decreasing the SID 3. Decreasing the Source-to-object distance 4. Increasing the SID | 4. Increasing the SID |
| The most common IR position is: | Lengthwise |
| Which computed radiography accessory houses the image storage phosphors that acquire the latent image? | Imaging plate |
| What is the IR in direct digital radiography? | Solid-state detector |
| When using a fixed, large IR, how is collimation (field size) controlled? | manually by the radiographer |
| Reasons to avoid using electronic side marker placement (annotation) in digital imaging include: 1. Increased potential for errors in marking the correct side. 2. increased legal implications. 3. eliminating anatomy being obscured by the marker | 1 and 2 |
| The knowledge, skills, ability, and behaviors that are essential for providing optimal care to DEFINED GROUPS of patients is termed: | age-specific competence |
| The approximate distance from the jugular notch to the pubic symphysis on a patient is who is more than 6 feet (183 cm) tall is: | 24 inches (61 cm) |
| Who maintains the Radiography Practice Standards? | ASRT |
| Who maintains the Standard of Ethics? | ARRT |
| What organization describes necessary education and certification? | ARRT |
| The Radiographer Scope of Practice can be found on what organization's website? | ASRT |
| What organization provides directives for infection control? | CDC |
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