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Question

Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen?
A. Fab
B. CL
C. CH
D. Hinge region
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Question

Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary response?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
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Immunology 5,6 test

Immunology (5 &6)

QuestionAnswer
Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen? A. Fab B. CL C. CH D. Hinge region Fab
Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary response? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE IgM
Which is characteristic of IgG: A. First class of antibody to appear B. Found mainly in secretions C. The least abundant antibody in serum D. Provides immunity for the newborn Provides immunity for the newborn
The primary response is characterized by: A. The recognition of antigen by naive B cells B. the recognition of antigens by memory B cells C. the production of large amounts of IgG D. a very short lag period E. long duration of high titer The recognition of antigens by naive B cells
Identify the correct pairing of an immunoglobulin and its property A. IgA: crosses the placenta B. IgG: most abundant in serum C. IgM: immunoglobulin produced by a T cell D. IgE: major immunoglobulin of secondary response IgG: most abundant in serum
Which of the following is a characteristic of IgA? A. It is found in secretions B. It fixes complement C. It is a pentamer in serum D. It is the primary response antibody It is found in secretions
The idiotype of an antibody is located on which region? A. CH B. CL C. VH + VL D. Fc VH + VL
Which immunoglobulin activates the classical complement pathway? A. IgD B. IgM IgM
Kappa or lambda light chains: A. are encoded on the same chromosome B. associate with only one type of heavy chain at a time C. can be expressed by the same B cell D. are expressed by a pre-B cell Associate with only one type of heavy chain at a time
Variations in immunoglobulin structure that occur because of the use of different constant region domains are known as: A. allotypes B. idiotypes C. isotypes D. autotypes Allotypes
The ability of an antibody to opsonize is located in which region? A. F(ab)2 B. Fc C. VL + VC D. Hypervariable Fc
Which is a characteristic of IgM A. It can cross the placenta B. it is able to fix complement C. It increases greatly in the secondary response D. it can bind only two antigens It is able to fix complement
Identify the true statement about the anamnestic response versus the primary response: The primary response has a long lag phase, the anamnestic response has a short lag phase.
Which of the following pairs represents light chains of antibody molecules? A. Kappa and epsilon B. Gamma and lambda C. Lambda and kappa D. alpha and beta Lambda and kappa
The receptor for antigen on a mature B cell is: A. MHC class I B. IgG C. IgM D. MHC class II IgM
The region of an antibody molecule that exhibits the greatest variability from antibody to antibody is known as the: A. hypervariable region B. constant region C. Fc region Hypervariable region
Select the statement about secondary response to an antigen that is true: A. equal amounts of IgM and IgG are made B. IgG is increased 100-fold to 1,000 fold C. IgM is increased 100-fold D. The lag time is the same as the primary response IgG is increased 100-fold to 1,000-fold
Immunoglobulins are grouped into classes on the basis of similarities in: A. light chains B. heavy chains C. antigen binding sites D. disulfide bonds Heavy chains
Which class makes up 70% to 80% of total serum immunoglobulins? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE IgG
Which immunoglobulin causes allergic reactions as a result of release of histamine from mast cells? A. IgA B. IgE C. IgD D. IgM IgE
In serum electrophoresis conducted at pH 8.6, which protein group migrates the fastest? A. albumin B. alpha-1 globulin C. alpha-2 globulin D. gamma globulin Albumin
In serum protein electrophoresis, which band contains the immunoglobulins? A. alpha-1 B. alpha-2 C. Beta D. gamma Gamma
IgG3 has the largest hinge region, making it: A. the only subclass capable of crossing the placenta B. the subclass with the highest number of antigen binding sites C. the most efficient subclass for activating complement D. incapable of opsonization The most efficient subclass for activating complement
Characteristics of cytokines include which of the following? A. They are directly cytotoxic to bacteria B. they are produced primarily by the liver C. they are chemical messengers that regulate the immune system D. They are plysaccharides They are chemical messengers that regulate the immune system
Cytokines exhibit pleitropy, which refers to: A. multiple cytokines affecting the same cell B. one cytokine inhibiting the activity of another cytokine C. one cytokine affecting multiple cells D. cytokines acting together to affect a cell One cytokine affecting multiple cells
IL-2 is synthesized by: A. T cells B. B cells C. monocytes D. mast cells T cells
IL-3, and GM-CSF are all involved in: A. hematopoiesis B. suppressing inflammation C. macrophage killing D. T-cell cytotoxicity hematopoiesis
A person steps on a rusty nail, which punctures her skin and activates resident macrophages to secrete IL-1 beta. The fever that develops is an example of what type of cytokine signaling? A. autocrine B. paracrine C. endocrine D. kallikrein Endocrine
IFN-gamma is produced by: A. B cells B. Th1 cells C. Th2 cells D. macrophages Th1 cells
Which of the following cytokines is produced by Th1 cells and is responsible for activation of macrophages and antigen presentation? A. IL-2 B. IL-4 C. TGF-beta D. IFN-gamma IFN-gamma
The priamry function of colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) is to promote: A. apoptosis B. lysis C. diapedesis D. Hematopoiesis Hematopoiesis
What is the main function of chemokines? A. inhibit the immune response B. enhance synthesis of acute-phase reactants C. establish a concentration gradient to guide cell movement Establish a concentration gradient to guide cell movement
Which cytokine is involved in natural (innate) immunity? A. IL-2 B. IL-4 C. IL-5 D. IL-6 IL-6
Erythropoietin regulates: A. T-cell function B. Bone marrow cell differentiation C. proinflammatory cytokine synthesis D. the acute-phase response Bone marrow cell differentiation
Which type of cytokine acts as the best defense against gram-negative bacteria? A. TGF-beta B. TNF C. IL-2 D. IL-5 TNF
Fab stands for: Fragment antigen binding
In the primary response, the immunoglobulin present in highest concentration is: IgM
The immunoglobulin capable of crossing the placenta is: IgG
Because it can cross the placenta, _________ provides immunity for the newborn. IgG
The ________ response is characterized by a long lag phase. Primary
Found in secretions such as sAlivA and teArs: IgA
Associated with allergies: IgE
Most abundant is serum: IgG
Activates the classical complement pathway and fixes complement: IgM
Activates the classical complement pathway and fixes complement: IgM
Genetic variations in the constant regions: Allotypes
Genetic variations in the variable regions: Idiotype
Heavy chain that is unique to each immunoglobulin class: Isotype and allotype
Light chains: - kappa and lambda - k and (upside down) y - associate with one type of H chain at a time
Which region is responsible for opsonization and complement fixation? Fc
Immunoglobulin classes are determined by: Heavy chains
Which group migrates the slowest? Gamma
Antibodies are located in which region? Gamma
IgG has 4 subclasses. Which has the largest hinge region? IgG3
Cytokines characteristics: - are chemical messengers - exhibit pleiotropy - include TNF, IFN, TGF, and CSF
True or false: The terms immunoglobulin and antibody can be used interchangeably? True
Which cytokines are involved in hematopoiesis? - CSF - IL-3 and EPO - IL-5
Endocrine: systemic
Autocrine: affecting the same cell that secreted it
Paracrine: affecting a target cell in close proximity
Guides cell movement - promotes migration of WBCs: Chemokines
TNF: - Tumore Necrosis Factor - Induces lysis of tumor cells - Is secreted in response to gram negative bacterial infections
What is the difference between pleiotropy and redundancy? Pleiotropy - one cytokine has many actions redundancy - different cytokines have the same function
Long lag phase, slow rise in antibody, short-lived response, no memory, recognition of antigen by naive B cells: Primary response
Which of the following is characteristic of variable domains of immunoglobulins? They occur on both the H and L chains
All of the following are true of IgM except that it: a. can cross the placenta b. fixes complement c. has a J chain d. is a priamry response Can cross the placenta
How does the structure of IgE differ from that of IgG IgE has one more constant region than IgG
How many antigen binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have? 10
Bence Jones proteins are identical to which of the following? a. H chains B. L chains c. IgM molecules d. IgG molecules L chains
A Fab fragment consists of: one L chain and one-half of an H chain
Which antibody best protects mucosal surfaces? IgA
Which of the following pairs represents two different immunoglobulin allotypes? A. IgM and IgG B. IgM1 and IgM2 C. Anti-human IgM and anti-human IgG D. IgG1m3 and IgG1m17 IgGlm3 and IgGlm17
The structure of a typical immunoglobulin consists of which of the following? A. 2L and 2H chains B. 4L and 2H chains C. 4L and 4H chains D. 2L and 4H chains 2 L and 2H chains
Which of the following are L chains of antibody molecules? A. Kappa B. Gamma C. Mu D. Alpha Kappa
If the results of serum protein electrophoresis show a significant decrease in the gamma band, which of the following is a likely possibility? Immunodeficiency disorder
The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in: The arrangement of disulfide bonds
Which best describes the role of the secretory component of IgA? A transport mechanism across endothelial cells
Which represents the main function of IgD? Enhancing proliferation of B cells
Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM IgM
Which of the following can be attributed to the clonal selection hypothesis of antibody formation? B cells are preprogrammed for specific antibody synthesis
All of the following are true of IgE except that it: A. fails to fix complement B. is heat stable C. attaches to tissue mast cells D. is found in the serum of allergic persons heat stable
Which best describes coding for immunoglobulin molecules? Four different regions are involved in coding of H chains
What is the purpose of HAT medium in the preparation of monoclonal antibody? Restricting the growth of myeloma cells
Papain digestion of an IgG molecule results in which of the following? A. 2 Fab' and 1 Fc' fragment B. F(ab')2 and 1 Fc' fragment C. 2 FAb and 2 Fc fragments 2 FAb and 1 Fc fragment 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment
Which antibody provides protection to the growing fetus because it is able to cross the placenta? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD IgG
Which best characterizes the secondary response? A. Equal amounts of IgM and IgG are produced B. There is an increase in IgM only C. There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM D. The lag phase is the same as in the primary response There is a a large increase in IgG but not IgM
The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes is called: Pleitropy
Which of the following effects can be attributed to IL-1? A. mediation of the innate immune response B. differentitation of stem cells C. halted growth of virally infected cells D. stimulation of mast cells Mediation of the innate immune resposne
Which of the following precursors are target cells for IL-3? A. myeloid precursors B. lymphoid precursors C. erythroid precursors D. all of the above All of the above
A lack of Il-4 may result in: Decreased eosinophil count
Which of the following cytokines is also known as the T-cell growth factor? A. IFN-y B. IL-12 C. IL-2 D. IL-10 IL-2
What represents an autocrine effect of IL-2 increased IL-2 receptor expression by the Th cell producing it
IFN-a and IFN-B differ in which way from IFN-gamma? IFN-a and IFN-B inhibit cell proliferation whereas IFN-gamma stimulates antigen presentation by class II MHC molecules
A patient in septic shock caused by a gram-negative bacterial infection exhibits the following symptoms: high fever, very low blood pressure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which cytokine is the most likely contributor to these symptoms? TNF
IL-10 acts as an antagonist to what cytokine? IFN-gamma
Which would be the best assay to measure a specific cytokine? A. blast formation B. T-cell proliferation C. measurement of leukocyte chemotaxis D. ELISA testing ELISA testing
Selective destruction of Th cells by the human immunodeficiency virus contributes to immune suppression by which means? Decrease in IL-2
Why might a colony stimulating factor (CSF) be given to a cancer patient? Increase production of certain types of leukocytes
Which of the following would result from a lack of TNF? A. Decreased ability to fight gram-negative bacterial infections B. increased expression of class II MHC C. decreased survival of cancer cells D. increased risk of septic shock Decreased ability to fight gram-negative bacterial infections
Which cytokone acts to promote differentiation of T cells to the Th1 subclass? A. IL-4 B. IFN-a C. IL-12 D. IL-10 IL-12
What is the major function of T regulatory cells? A. Suppression of the imune response by TNF B. Suppression of the immune response by inducing IL-10 C. proliferation of the immune response by producing IL-2 D. same as C but IL-4 Suppression of the immune response by inducing IL-10
Th17 cells affect the innate immune response by inducing production of which cytokines? A. IFN-y and IL-2 B. IL-4 and IL-10 C. IL-2 and IL-4 D. TNF-a and IL-6 TNF-a and IL-6
Created by: Vlandon98
 

 



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