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RADT 465 Pt Care

ARRT registry review covering pt care content area

QuestionAnswer
1. "let the master answer" (pg 9) Respondeat Superior
2. Res Ispa Loquitur (pg 9) "the thing speaks for itself"
3. Requisition should include: (pg 7) pt name, exact region or part being radiographed, expected or existing pt diagnosis, ordering physician, and date
4. Personal injury law (pg 8) Tort
5. neglect of reasonable care or caution; not practicing by ARRT Standards of Ethics (pg 8) Negligence
6. Which torts are classified as intentional? (pg 8) Assault, battery, invasion of privacy, and false imprisonment
7. threat of touching or harming a pt (pg 8) Assault
8. the unlawful touching of a pt without consent (pg 8) Battery
9. failure to abide by the rules of HIPPA; pt confidentiality not maintained (pg 8) Invasion of Privacy
10. holding pt against their will (pg 8) False Imprisonment
11. Eye contact, facial expressions, body language, and physical appearance are examples of which type of communication? (pg 19) Nonverbal
12. Where should a pt IV bag be placed? (pg 31) 18-24 inches above the level of the vein
13. normal adult oral body temp (pg 37) 98.6 degrees F
14. normal adult axillary body temp (pg 37) 97.6 to 98.1 degrees F
15. normal adult rectal temp (pg 37) 99.1 to 99.6 degrees F
16. normal children ages 4 and under body temp (pg 37) 97.9 to 100.4 degrees F (rectal)
17. normal children ages 5-13 body temp (pg 37) 97.8 to 98.6 degrees F
18. normal pulse rate (pg 37) 60 to 100 beats per minute
19. What are the common locations for a pulse to be detected ? (pg 37) radial, carotid, temporal, femoral, popliteal
20. What is the normal adult respiratory rate? (pg 37) 12-18 breaths per minute
21. normal adult systolic (contraction) blood pressure (pg 38) 120 mm Hg or less
22. normal adult diastolic (relaxation) blood pressure (pg 38) 80 mm HGg or less
23. CPR: one cycle is how many compressions and rescue breaths? (pg 45) 30 compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths
24. CPR: how many compressions per minute? (pg 45) 100 compressions
25. What is medical asepsis? (pg 53) the clean technique to reduce as many organisms as possible
26. What is surgical asepsis? (pg 53) complete removal of microorganisms and their spores
27. What are the six factors in the cycle of infection in order? (pg 55 & 56) infectious organism, reservoir of infection, portal of exit, susceptible host, means of transmission, and the portal of entry
28. Airborne precautions are used when? (pg 59) pt is suspected or known to have TB, Varicella (chickenpox), or Rubeola (measles)
29. Droplet precautions are used when? (pg 60) pt is suspected or known to have Rubella, Mumps, or Influenza
30. Contact precautions are used when? (pg 60) pt is suspected or known to have any disease that spreads by direct or close contact
31. any contaminated object; indirect contact (pg 56) fomite
32. insect or animal carrier of infectious organisms Ipg 56) vector
33. What does contrast media enhance? (pg 71) subject contrast
34. Positive (radiopaque) contrast agents (pg 71) Barium and iodine
35. Negative (radiolucent) contrast agents(pg 71) Air and other gases
36. True or False: exams where contrast is excreted quickly should be scheduled first (pg 72) True (IVU, contrast enema, UGI, SBS)
37. leakage of contrast from a ruptured vein (pg 73) Extravasation
38. diffusion of the injected contrast into surrounding tissues (pg 73) Infiltration
39. Parenteral administration methods include: (pg 68) topical, subcutaneous, intradermal, intramuscular, intravenous, intrathecal
40. Most common injection site for contrast media (pg 69) antecubital vein
Created by: nlchesser
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