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RADT 465 Pt Care
ARRT registry review covering pt care content area
Question | Answer |
---|---|
1. "let the master answer" (pg 9) | Respondeat Superior |
2. Res Ispa Loquitur (pg 9) | "the thing speaks for itself" |
3. Requisition should include: (pg 7) | pt name, exact region or part being radiographed, expected or existing pt diagnosis, ordering physician, and date |
4. Personal injury law (pg 8) | Tort |
5. neglect of reasonable care or caution; not practicing by ARRT Standards of Ethics (pg 8) | Negligence |
6. Which torts are classified as intentional? (pg 8) | Assault, battery, invasion of privacy, and false imprisonment |
7. threat of touching or harming a pt (pg 8) | Assault |
8. the unlawful touching of a pt without consent (pg 8) | Battery |
9. failure to abide by the rules of HIPPA; pt confidentiality not maintained (pg 8) | Invasion of Privacy |
10. holding pt against their will (pg 8) | False Imprisonment |
11. Eye contact, facial expressions, body language, and physical appearance are examples of which type of communication? (pg 19) | Nonverbal |
12. Where should a pt IV bag be placed? (pg 31) | 18-24 inches above the level of the vein |
13. normal adult oral body temp (pg 37) | 98.6 degrees F |
14. normal adult axillary body temp (pg 37) | 97.6 to 98.1 degrees F |
15. normal adult rectal temp (pg 37) | 99.1 to 99.6 degrees F |
16. normal children ages 4 and under body temp (pg 37) | 97.9 to 100.4 degrees F (rectal) |
17. normal children ages 5-13 body temp (pg 37) | 97.8 to 98.6 degrees F |
18. normal pulse rate (pg 37) | 60 to 100 beats per minute |
19. What are the common locations for a pulse to be detected ? (pg 37) | radial, carotid, temporal, femoral, popliteal |
20. What is the normal adult respiratory rate? (pg 37) | 12-18 breaths per minute |
21. normal adult systolic (contraction) blood pressure (pg 38) | 120 mm Hg or less |
22. normal adult diastolic (relaxation) blood pressure (pg 38) | 80 mm HGg or less |
23. CPR: one cycle is how many compressions and rescue breaths? (pg 45) | 30 compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths |
24. CPR: how many compressions per minute? (pg 45) | 100 compressions |
25. What is medical asepsis? (pg 53) | the clean technique to reduce as many organisms as possible |
26. What is surgical asepsis? (pg 53) | complete removal of microorganisms and their spores |
27. What are the six factors in the cycle of infection in order? (pg 55 & 56) | infectious organism, reservoir of infection, portal of exit, susceptible host, means of transmission, and the portal of entry |
28. Airborne precautions are used when? (pg 59) | pt is suspected or known to have TB, Varicella (chickenpox), or Rubeola (measles) |
29. Droplet precautions are used when? (pg 60) | pt is suspected or known to have Rubella, Mumps, or Influenza |
30. Contact precautions are used when? (pg 60) | pt is suspected or known to have any disease that spreads by direct or close contact |
31. any contaminated object; indirect contact (pg 56) | fomite |
32. insect or animal carrier of infectious organisms Ipg 56) | vector |
33. What does contrast media enhance? (pg 71) | subject contrast |
34. Positive (radiopaque) contrast agents (pg 71) | Barium and iodine |
35. Negative (radiolucent) contrast agents(pg 71) | Air and other gases |
36. True or False: exams where contrast is excreted quickly should be scheduled first (pg 72) | True (IVU, contrast enema, UGI, SBS) |
37. leakage of contrast from a ruptured vein (pg 73) | Extravasation |
38. diffusion of the injected contrast into surrounding tissues (pg 73) | Infiltration |
39. Parenteral administration methods include: (pg 68) | topical, subcutaneous, intradermal, intramuscular, intravenous, intrathecal |
40. Most common injection site for contrast media (pg 69) | antecubital vein |