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week 8 - 13

Physiology

QuestionAnswer
Which region of the brain plays a part in the mechanism responsible for emotions by associating sensory impulses with feelings of pleasantness and unpleasantness? Thalamus
Tongue movement is controlled by which cranial nerve? Hypoglossal
The reticular activating system maintains consciousness
A reflex consists of either a muscle contraction or a glandular secretion
The _____ is an extension of the great toe, with or without fanning of the other toes, in response to stimulation of the outer margin of the sole of the foot. Babinski sign
Each skin surface area supplied by sensory fibers of a given spinal nerve is a dermatome
The most numerous cerebral tracts are the association tracts
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell? olfactory
The action of acetylcholine is quickly terminated by its being hydrolyzed by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase
The cortex is capable of storing and retrieving information from both short-term and long-term memory
The limbic system integrates emotion
The somatic motor system includes all the _____ motor pathways _____ the CNS. voluntary; outside
The effect of sympathetic stimulation on the urinary bladder is relaxation
Mixed cranial nerves contain axons of sensory and motor neurons
Many cerebral functions have typical locations. This fact is known as cerebral localization
If the center of a reflex arc is the brain, the response it mediates is called a cranial reflex
The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex is the central sulcus
Axon terminals of autonomic neurons release either of two neurotransmitters norepinephrine and acetylcholine
The _____ consists of several structures that lie beneath the thalamus and form the floor of the third ventricle and the lower part of its lateral walls. hypothalamus
Another name for the parasympathetic nervous system is the nervous system. craniosacral
Acetylcholine binds to _____ receptors. Cholinergic
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors
The two main types of adrenergic receptors are alpha and beta.
The second largest part of the brain, located just below the posterior portion of the cerebrum, is the cerebellum
Which of the following is NOT an example of sympathetic stimulation? constriction of the bronchioles
The set of coordinated commands that control the programmed muscle activity mediated by extrapyramidal pathways is called the motor program
A _____ is a skeletal muscle or group of muscles that receives motor axons from a given spinal nerve. myotome
“Fight or flight” physiological changes include all of the following EXCEPT constriction of respiratory airways.
The _____ nerve transmits impulses that result in sensations of equilibrium. vestibular
Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the _____ nerve. trigeminal
A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: the sympathetic nervous system.
Afferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ nervous system. A. sensory B. autonomic C. central D. Both A and B correct answer
Norepinephrine is liberated at: most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: controls cardiac function
The cerebellum acts with the _____ to produce skilled movement. cerebrum
Which is(are) the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway? Acetylcholine
How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division
Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? Lateral corticospinal
Audition is a function of the _____ lobe. temporal
Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. vagus
The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: medulla
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles, into the central canal and _____and is absorbed back into the blood. subarachnoid space
Which of the following is a description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system? If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it.
All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: increased heart rate
Which is the only plexus that contains fibers from the thoracic region of the spinal cord? Brachial
If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. sensory perception
Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. nicotinic
Propranolol is an example of a: A. beta blocker. B. drug used to treat irregular heartbeats. C, drug used to treat hypertension. D. All of the above are correct. -- CORRECT
Which is not true of the dorsal nerve root? A. It is also called the posterior root. B. It includes the spinal ganglion. C. It includes sensory fibers. D. All of the above are true. -- CORRECT
Damage to the _____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function. phrenic
Which of the following is not true? One bundle of nerve fibers (nerve roots) projects from each side of the spinal cord.
Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except: number of neurons between central nervous system (CNS) and effector.
The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because: impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord
A mixed nerve is one that: carries both sensory and motor fibers.
Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. True
Which of the following is not true of the knee jerk reflex? It is a flexor reflex.
The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the: hypothalamus
All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the: vagus
Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? Regulation of motor activity
Which of the following statements is not true? The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system.
The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased. False
Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve? Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex)
The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. True
Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because: preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers
Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. Thalamus
Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are found in the _____ plexus. coccygeal
Which of the following is a correct statement? There are 5 lumbar nerve pairs.
Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? Constriction of the bronchioles
Constriction of the bronchioles cerebellum
The spinal tract that is located in the side of the cord, originates in the brain, and terminates in the spinal cord is the _____ tract. lateral corticospinal
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: choroid plexuses
Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years. 1.5-2
If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. willed movement
A small molecule binds to a G protein, preventing its activation. What direct effect will this have on signaling that involves cAMP? Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated
hypothalamus and the pituitary gland. Which hormone is released by the pituitary to stimulate the thyroid gland? thyrotropin
Which hormone produced by the adrenal glands is responsible for mobilization of energy stores? Cortisol
What should you avoid doing in the middle of your sleep cycle that would lower melatonin? turning on the lights
What goes wrong in the function of insulin in type 2 diabetes? the cells don't respond to insulin like they should
Which ear structures are responsible for the amplification and transfer of sound from the external ear to the inner ear? The ossicles
where do frequencies—from high to low pitches—cause activity in the hair cells within the cochlear duct? between the base and the apex of the cochlea
Specialized cells in the retina called ganglion cells convert the light rays into ________________. electrical signals
If movement of a visual stimulus is leftward in one eye and rightward in the opposite eye, the brain interprets this as movement toward (or away) from the face along the midline. Which eye is visualizing leftward stimulus? right eye
When the right cornea senses a tactile stimulus, what happens to the left eye? blinks
When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? M
All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except: oxytocin. calcitonin. cortisol.-- CORRECT glucagon.
Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? It stimulates the secretion of insulin
If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. acute
Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the crista ampullaris
Which of the following is true about pain receptors? Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain.
All of the following are true statements except: aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis.
The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: transcription of RNA.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? Chemical messenger travels a short distance.
Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? It follows the all-or-none law.
Accommodation for near vision necessitates an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes. all of the above. -- CORRECT
One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: oxytocin
The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: the sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body.
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: permissiveness
The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: Ruffini corpuscles
In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: slow to appear but long-lasting.
Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: visual acuity
Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Internal organs
The clear and potassium-rich fluid that fills the labyrinth is endolymph
Which of the following is a function of glucagon? Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations
Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. tectorial
The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: progesterone.
The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: touch temperature. pain. all of the above. -- CORRECT
The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: malleus, incus, and stapes.
Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland? Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight.
The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: corticotrophs.
Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? Thalamus Thalamus
The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: protein kinases activate other enzymes.
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary.
The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: smell.
Fluid shift is when... then body's fluids move between the fluid compartments
The second step of hemostasis occurs when additional coagulation factors beyond factor VII respond in a cascade to form fibrin strands. Fibrin stands strengthen what? platelet plug
Pulmonary circulation is the portion of the circulatory system which carries ____________ blood away from the right ventricle, to the lungs, and returns ____________blood to the left atrium and ventricle of the heart deoxygenated; oxygenated
In an electrocardiogram the T wave represents repolarization of the ventricles
What causes the ventricles to contract? The inpulse to the Perkinje Fiber
Veins from our digestive organs send blood to the Hepatic Portal Vein in order for nutrients and toxins can be extracted from digested contents
The foramen ovale allows blood to move from the right atrium to the left atrium bypassing pulmonary circulation
The greatest pressure drop is in the ____________ which has muscle fibers that expand and contract change diameters. arterioles
The amount of water that moves into the blood from the interstitial fluid depends on the concentration of plasma protein.
The process of red cells are production in the marrow of certain bones is referred to as Erythropoiesis
The heart begins beating in the fetus at about what stage of development? After about 4 weeks
Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of vasodilation.
Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called diapedesis.
Factors that affect the strength of myocardial contraction are called inotropic factors.
Which two factors promote the return of venous blood to the heart? blood-pumping action of respirations and skeletal muscle contractions
Blood pressure is measured with the aid of an apparatus known as a(n) sphygmomanometer.
A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called leukopenia.
The vagus is said to act as a “brake” on the heart. This situation is called vagal inhibition.
Which are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart? aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors
All of the following are true statements except: both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary arteries.
Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: body fat.
The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: hemodynamics.
The term blood type refers to the type of blood cell antigen.
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is erythropoietin.
Blood viscosity stems mainly from the red blood cells but also partly from the _____ in blood. protein molecules present
The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called perfusion pressure.
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: hematopoietic stem cells.
The mechanisms of which three hormones work together to regulate blood volume? aldosterone, ANH, and ADH
The physiological mechanism that dissolves clots is known as fibrinolysis.
A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: polycythemia.
The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure is called pulse pressure.
_____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. Heparin
Cardiac output is determined by stroke volume and heart rate.
_____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. Hematocrit
Which of the following is(are) involved in determining a person’s total blood volume? Age Body type Sex All of the above -- CORRECT
In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of prothrombin activator.
All of the following are components critical to coagulation except prothrombin. thrombin. fibrinogen. fibrin. none of the above; all of these components are critical to coagulation -- CORRECT
What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium? Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium.
Starling’s law of the heart states that, within limits, the longer, or more stretched, the heart fibers are at the beginning of the contraction, the stronger the contraction.
Lymph is filtered by the lymph nodes
The lymphatic organs produce lymphocytes
The purpose of the lymphatic system is to fight against infection
Fluid that is clear, watery and contains protein molecules, salts, and other substances is called intercellular fluid
The lymphatic system is made up of lymphatic vessels where lymph flows in only one direction towards the heart
Antigen presenting macrophage interact with a T-helper cell that recognizes the same antigen
The T cell is considered the communicator
Millions of B cells release millions of antibodies
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of prostaglandins.
Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are lymph nodes.
Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? immunoglobulin M
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are innate and adaptive immunity
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor.
Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? spleen
The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are fluid balance and immunity.
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called pinocytosis.
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. thymocytes
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the lymphocyte.
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? sebum mucus enzymes hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa all of the above -- CORRECT
Lymphatics in the villi of the small intestines are called lacteals.
_____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. Species resistance
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies. clonal selection theory
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site.
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form effector T cells and memory cells.
The primary organ of the lymphatic system is the thymus.
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. cell-mediated
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as natural killer cells.
Antibodies are proteins of the family called immunoglobulins.
The functions of the lymph nodes are defense and hematopoiesis.
Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called tonsils.
Each cortical nodule is composed of packed lymphocytes that surround a less dense area called a germinal center.
Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? lymphotoxin
Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? interferon
Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in cytolysis
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called diapedesis.
What is the function of the spleen? tissue repair hematopoiesis red blood cell and platelet destruction blood reservoir all of the above -- CORRECT
The internal environment of the human body is protected by the _____, which is(are) referred to as the first line of defense. skin
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called lymphokinetic activities
Which muscles are used for forced expiration? Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals
Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? Control of cell metabolism rate
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: expiration occurs.
Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood? Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–)
One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? 20%
Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and
Which of the following would have the greatest accelerating effect on the dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin? Decreased PO2 and increased PCO2
Which of the following helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute? All of the above help determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute.
The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: tidal volume.
The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the: inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.
Excessive fluid in the pleural cavity would be most likely to cause: decreased vital capacity.
Which type of breathing is characterized by repeated sequences of deep gasps and apnea, and is usually seen in people with increased intracranial pressure? Dyspnea
The symbol HbNCOOH– is used for: carbaminohemoglobin.
Which of the following constitutes total lung volume? Residual volume and vital capacity
A type of breathing characterized by gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume is: Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
A drop in the body’s production of carbonic anhydrase would hinder the formation of: carbonic acid.
Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. 760
If a person were skiing high up in the mountains, she might feel that she is having trouble breathing (getting enough oxygen in her blood). This is because the: lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO2 and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is less.
Normal, quiet breathing is known as: eupnea.
The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: as bicarbonate ions.
The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: less than in the alveolar air
Carbon dioxide is carried in three forms in the blood. Ranking them from greatest to least amount carried, the sequence would be: bicarbonate ion, carbaminohemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma.
The approximate partial Pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. 160
If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml. 150
About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to: hemoglobin.
During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: a decrease in alveolar pressure.
Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature. inversely; constant
Vital capacity is defined as the: maximum volume of air that can be moved into and out of the lungs during forced respiration.
The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. Both A and C are correct.
By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? 97%
The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin does all of the above.
An end product of fat digestion is glycerol.
When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. hydrolyzing
Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? Oropharynx
Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: neutralize hydrochloric acid.
The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: vasoactive intestinal peptide.
Hydrolysis refers to: using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones
Which of the following is a disaccharide? Sucrose
The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: protein.
Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? Moistening the food
The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is: secretin.
The purpose of peristalsis is to: propel food forward along the GI tract.
Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? Both A and B
Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: cotransport.
Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants? Diarrhea
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a: monosaccharide.
Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? Portal vein
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: amylase.
Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: carbohydrates.
Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? Cephalic phase
The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen. passively out of
The enterogastric reflex causes: inhibition of gastric peristalsis
The process of swallowing is known as: deglutition.
The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called: gastric inhibitory peptide.
Which of the following is not true of enzymes? They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction
The process of fat emulsification consists of: breaking fats into small droplets.
The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: small intestine.
The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: cholecystokinin.
Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? Oral stage
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: glycerol and fatty acids.
Created by: mandiephillips
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