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PHM 114 Week 6 Study

PHM 114 Week 6 Study Guide

QuestionAnswer
The first step in compounding a prescription is: Obtaining the formula or recipe
When the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was introduced in 1938, about 50% of prescriptions in the US were compounded. Today that percentage is closer to: 1%
What equipment is required to remove particulate mater from liquids? Filter paper
What is used to mix liquids? Glass mortal and pestle
What equipment is used for mixing creams and ointments? ointment tile and spatula
To stir liquids by hand, which piece of equipment is used? glass stirring rods
For geometric dilution, always start with: smallest amount
The most appropriate dosage form depends on the drug being compounded and the : patient: age, weight and route appropriate
What are the components of a good quality assurance program except; Compounding reference
Which oral dosage form is extremely versatile and offers a broad range of dosage options for patients? capsules
Tablets can be administered how? except topically. by mouth, vaginally,
The most prescribed dosage form is the: tablet
What dosage forms is not used as much anymore? powders
What dosage forms is placed in the oral cavity to disintegrate over time? Troches
Which dosage form is uniquely for topical application of such medications as local anesthetics, antivirals, and antibiotics? medicated sticks
What are common suppository bases? except palm butter
What dosage forms can have either a systemic effect or local effect, depending on the drug used? suppository
Which of the following contains insoluble solid particles uniformly dispersed throughout the vehicle? suspension
Which dosage form contains two immiscible liquids? Emulation
Which of the following dosage forms must be shaken prior to administration? Suspension
Common ointment bases include all of the following except: cocoa butter
Which term refers to the process of reducing particle sizes to a fine powder? Tritrating
An ointment that does not melt or soften at body temperature is called a: paste
Which is a very viscous dosage form intended to be used as a protective covering over areas where it is applied? paste
which of the following is NOT a commercially prepared cream base? aquifer
Which of the following dosage forms must be sterile? ophthalmic ointment
Which of the following is NOT a common ophthalmic dosage form? Emulations
The eye generally tolerates a pH range of: 3.5 to 8.5 or 4
What was recently revised to include new material about non-sterile compounded formulations? USP 795
The generic name for Neo-Synephrine is: pheylephrine HCI
The generic name for Tyzine is: tetrahydrozoline HCI
The generic name for Privine is: naphazoline HCI
Which of the following nasal decongestants is by prescription only? tetrahydrozoline
Which of the following antihistamines does not cause drowsiness? fexofedadine
Which of the following antihistamines will cause drowsiness? cholorpheniramine
Which of the following drugs is a mast cell stabilizer? Oromolyn Sodium
Mast cell stabilizers prevent mast cells from releasing histamine
________ is the genetic disease in which a defective gene causes the body to produce abnormally thick, sticky mucus. cystic fibrosis
________ is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by inflammation of the airways and tightening of the muscles around the airways. asthma
________ is characterized by the destruction of the alveoli. emphysema
________ is characterized by inflammation of the airways that lasts for long periods of time or keeps returning. chronic bronchitis
About 80 to 90% of all COPD cases are related to: cigarette smoking
________ are asthma drugs that mimic epinephrine stimulation of the beta-2 receptors of the respiratory tract, directly relaxing smooth muscles Broncodiulators
________ work by blocking the effects of acctylcholine by competing for the ACH receptor site. Bronchoconstriction is prevented while airway passages dilate. anticoagulants
Which substance is produced by the breakdown of hemoglobin and is not normally found in the urine? billarubin
What type of exercise can be beneficial for someone with urinary incontinence? Kegel
The average dose for Vesicare is: 5 to 10 mg once daily
________ can result from inflammation and swelling caused by infections in the pelvic area. Urinary retention
UTI symptoms include the following except: Pain in the lower right abdomen
One of the main organs of the digestive tract, the pharynx is more commonly called the: throat
The windpipe, or ________ is closed off by the cpiglottis to allow food to be swallowed. Tricia
Pepsin is the enzyme that chemically breaks down: proteins
Bile stored in the gallbladder goes to the small intestine to break up large molecules of fats into small ones, a process called: emulsification
Secreted bicarbonate raises the pH of the small intestine to about ________, the chemical environment in which pancreatic enzymes work best. 5.5
The motility of the colon is considered to be: unsynchronized
What condition is commonly called heartburn? GERD
A dose of ________ of metoclopramide po qid 30 minutes as and phs is indicated for serious GERD 10 to 15 mg
Antihistamines treat nausea and vomiting by: competitive inhibition or blocking HL receptor sites
Peptic ulcers can be caused by extended NSAID use because NSAIDs block ________ reducing prostaglandin production all COX enzymes
Helicobacter pylori is a ________ that causes approximately 90% of duodenal ulcers and 80% of gastric ulcers. Bactium
In double-drug therapy for H.pylori infections, ________ and amoxicillin are given concurrently. lansoprazole
The Tolerable UL is the highest value of a nutrient that is not likely to pose adverse effects in________ of the population. 98%
Which of the following is considered "good" cholesterol? HDL
Which of the following is NOT one of the vaccines considered most important for the elderly? DPT
Which vaccination is recommended for people born after 1957 or in high-risk groups with no documentation of previous immunization? MMR
Medication effects that occur because of a pre-existing disease or condition are called: disease drug interactions
Drugs such as anti-anxiety agents or hypnotics may cause excessive adverse effects in the elderly because these patients are: More sensitive to drugs that suppress the central nervous system
Which of the following is NOT a cause of anticholinergic effects? SSRIs
Which of the following is NOT one of the problems associated with over-medication in the geriatric population? increased salivation
Falls, which account for ________ of all Emergency Department visits, are a major negative effect of over-medication. 10%
The pharmacy technician should alert the pharmacist if they notice a(n) ________ medication class. duplication
The pharmacy technician should be sure to include any ________ in the patient's current profile. OTCs
What is defined as a patient's refusal or inability to follow a prescribed drug regimen? Non-compliance
The more ________ the drug regimen, the more likely it is that an elderly patient (or any patient) will be noncompliant. complicated
Which of the following is NOT a reason for noncompliance in elderly patients? When patients understand directions
Which of the following is NOT a way for pharmacy technicians to help ensure medication compliance in elderly patients? maintain business like determiner, don't be to friendly
To help geriatric patients comply with their medication regimes, be sure to avoid ________ when discussing the patient's medication therapy. Medical Jargon
What can would help elderly patients with compliance? liquid dosage form
An adult lung contains how many alveoli? 600 million
The ________ of the nose filter the air. cilia
Colds are ________ infections. viral
All of the following can be cold symptoms EXCEPT: High-grade fever
All of the following are common flu symptoms EXCEPT Normal energy level
Coughs likely begin with an irritation of ________ in the respiratory tract. nerves
The most frequent causes of chronic cough in children are: Asthma, sinusitis, and GERD
A postinfectious cough may persist for ________ week(s). 3 or more
A persistent acute cough that lasts for 3 weeks or less is usually caused by the common cold but could indicate: Pneumonia.
A chronic cough is one that lasts for ________ week(s) 3 or more
Antibiotic treatment is needed for someone with: Whooping cough.
Mucus is expelled in a: Productive cough
A dry hacking cough is considered: Non-productive
A(n) ________ is used to thin out mucus decongestant
Which of the following is used to quiet or stop coughs? Antitussive
Patients taking ________ drugs should not take products containing pseudoephedrine. MAOI
Which of the following drugs is an essential chemical used in the manufacture of methamphetamine? Pseudoephedrine
Topical decongestants act as: Vasoconstrictors.
Dextromethorphan is found in all of the following EXCEPT: Organidin NR®.
All of the following are trade names for guaifenesin EXCEPT: Hycomine (C-III)®.
What is the mechanism of action of guaifenesin? Thins mucus and lubricates the irritated respiratory tract
What is the mechanism of action of codeine in treating coughs? Elevates the threshold for cough in the medulla oblongata
What is the mechanism of action of dextromethorphan in treating coughs? Works on CNS to suppress cough centers in the medulla oblongata
The generic name for Afrin® is: Oxymetazoline HCl.
The generic name for Neo-Synephrine® is: Phenylephrine HCl.
The generic name for Tyzine® is Tetrahydrozoline HCl
The generic name for Privine® is: Naphazoline HCl
Which of the following nasal decongestants is by prescription only? Tetrahydrozoline HCl
Which of the following antihistamines does not cause drowsiness? Fexofenadine
Which of the following are NOT common dosage forms for nasal preparations? Tablets
Which of the following would be used as a vehicle when compounding nasal preparations? 0.9% sodium chloride
_______ compounding is now one of the fastest growing areas of pharmaceutical compounding. Veterinary
Medication doses for animals are usually calculated on the basis of: Milligrams per kilogram of body weight.
A chewable treat dosage form has a base of ground food product and ________ mixed with the active ingredient. gelatin
Why are coloring and flavoring added to compounded medications? Psychological effect
Which group of people may require greater amounts of flavor in compounded medication? Elderly
Which group of people has the least experience of taste and therefore generally doesn’t require a strong flavor in compounded medication? Infants
Which of the following would likely NOT be a preferred flavor for children? Anise
For which group of people does the “bite” of a bitter flavor help cut the bitterness of a medication? Adult patients
Which taste receptors are located approximately in the center of the tongue? Sour only
How does the brain perceive taste? As a composite sensation
Which flavor enhancer can be added along with almost any flavoring agent to stimulate and intensify the desired flavor without altering the flavor or adding its own taste? Vanilla
Which of the following is one of the terms that means the process of reducing the particle size of a substance by grinding? Comminuting
Which term refers to the inactive ingredients that are compounded with active ingredients to create the dosage form? Excipient
Which of the following is NOT part of the dictionary definition of compounding? To customize
Which resource provides an in-depth look at compounding and step-by-step procedures? The Pharmacy Technician Series: Compounding
Pharmacy technicians must take great care with compounding ________ because even a small mistake could have devastating results for the patient. calculations
What was recently revised to include new material about nonsterile compounded formulations? USP 795
The Pharmacy Compounding Accreditation Board (PCAB) was founded when eight of the nation’s leading pharmacy organizations joined together to create a(n) ________ quality accreditation designation for the compounding industry. voluntary
The goals of PCAB accreditation include all of the following EXCEPT: Maintain quality of compounding operations.
Which of the following is used for continuous stirring? Magnetic stir plate
In geometric dilution, each addition should ________ the amount until all ingredients are mixed in. double
In step 4 of the compounding process, the pharmacy technician weighs each ingredient. What happens next? The pharmacy technician has the pharmacist verify the measurements.
What is defined as a program of activities used to ensure that the procedures used in the preparation of compounded products meet specific standards? Quality assurance
Which of the following is one of the reasons that SOPs are necessary? Because there may be more than one way to do a particular task
Which of the following is NOT part of the standard format for SOPs? A detailed step-by-step explanation that can be easily followed differently by individuals to obtain unique results
For ________ accreditation, pharmacy compounding SOPs must include those regarding cleaning, maintenance, calibration, and verification of each piece of equipment. PCAB
What is a disadvantage of commercially made compressed tablets? Only available in fixed dosage strengths and combinations
Which of the following is a powder medication that is taken internally? BC Powder
Which medication form does NOT make use of molds? Capsules
What equipment is used when the pharmacy technician needs to melt the base for a compounded medication? Hotplate
Tongs are used to: Pick up items that should not be handled.
Which of the following is NOT used for pharmacy-compounded creams and ointments? Capsule machine
What is the purpose of a homogenizer? Reducing particle size and evenly suspending liquids
The generic name for Detrol® is: Tolterodine tartrate.
Blockage or obstruction of the urethra can cause: Urinary retention.
________ is an inflammation of the bladder caused in most cases by E. coli and staphylococcus. Cystitis
________ is an inflammation of the kidney and upper urinary tract that is usually caused by a bacterial infection of the bladder. Pyelonephritis
________ can be used to manage UTI symptoms of burning and itching urethras. Phenazopyridine
________ is pus or bacteria in the urine. Pyuria
________ is urine in the blood. Uremia
Which of the following is a reference to the condition called kidney stones? Urolithiais
All of the following substances help break down and dissolve solid wastes in the urine except: Chloride.
Which of the following populations is most prone to kidney stones? Caucasian males
All of the following conditions can contribute to the formation of kidney stones except: Hyperkalemia.
Kidney failure can lead to all of the following EXCEPT: UTIs.
Long-term complications for diabetics that can lead to renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT: Hypoglycemia.
Which of the following populations has a high risk for developing end-stage renal disease? Native Americans
Diabetics have a blood sugar goal of less than ________ mg/dl. 126
The renal system includes two: Ureters.
Each kidney is about the size of a(n): Fist.
The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney because of the location of the: Liver.
The specific gravity of urine ranges between: 1.006 and 1.03
What is the average pH of urine? 6
Which substance is produced by the breakdown of hemoglobin and is not normally found in the urine? Bilirubin
What type of exercise can be beneficial for someone with urinary incontinence? Kegel
The average dose for Vesicare® is: 5-10 mg once daily.
________ can result from inflammation and swelling caused by infections in the pelvic area. Urinary retention
UTI symptoms include the following EXCEPT: Pain in the lower-right abdomen.
________ is indicated for burning and itching associated with UTI. Phenazopyridine
When wastes are not completely dissolved in the urine, a microscopic, hard crystal called a(n) ________ remains in the kidney. calculus
What childhood illness is a viral respiratory disease in which the trachea and larynx become inflamed? Croup
What percentage of newborns develops jaundice within the first 2 to 4 days after birth? 50%
What medication is sometimes prescribed to prevent both inflammation and clot formation in Kawasaki disease? Aspirin
What illness may occur in pediatric patients when an underlying streptococcal infection is not treated properly, or when strep infections occur frequently? Rheumatic fever
Approximately ________ of U.S. children age 6 to 18 are obese 30%
Measures such as ________ and well-baby checkups help prevent many childhood illnesses. immunizations
How many Americans are currently age 65 and older? 40 million
By the year 2030, how many Americans are expected to be age 65 and older? 70 million
Some experts report that ________ of all OTC products and _______ of prescription medications are consumed by the elderly. 30%, 50%
Most human physiologic systems accrue impairment at a rate of ________ per decade after the age of 30. 5% to 10%
As people age, their organs: Decrease in size
Which of the following is NOT a factor in slower drug absorption in the geriatric patient? Increased intestinal surface area
How does percentage of body water affect drug distribution in geriatric patients? Drug levels are lowered because less water is available to distribute them throughout the body.
What effect does increased percentage of body fat have on lipid-soluble drugs in geriatric patients? Drugs are diverted from the kidney and liver, slowing elimination of the drug from the body and causing the drug to have a longer half-life and possibly greater toxicity.
What term refers to persons over the age of 65? Geriatric
The frequent occurrence of ________ in the elderly can affect metabolism and excretion. kidney and liver disease
In an elderly person, the dosage amount taken by a younger adult can produce: A greater pharmacological effect.
Which of the following pharmacokinetic components is NOT among those meaningfully affected by age? Excretion
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that geriatric patients might have inadequate nutrition? Increased appetite
Proper nutrition is important to liver function and the ability to ________ drugs. metabolize
What decreases in the body if protein intake is insufficient, allowing more unbound drug to remain in the patient's system? Plasma protein
The deposit of uric acid in the joint synovial fluid of the big toes, knees, elbows and soft tissue causes: Gout.
________ is an inflammation of the bladder caused in most cases by E. coli and staphylococcus. Cystitis
________ is an inflammation of the kidney and upper urinary tract that is usually caused by a bacterial infection of the bladder. Pyelonephritis
________ can be used to manage UTI symptoms of burning and itching urethras. Phenazopyridine
________ is pus or bacteria in the urine. Pyuria
________ is urine in the blood. Uremia
This drug is used only during the first 48 hours of an acute gout attack: Colchicine
Gout is caused by an excess of ________ in the body. uric acid
________ is used as prophylactic therapy for gout, as it increases the excretion of uric acid. Probenecid
Indocin® (indomethacin) is prescribed for: Acute or chronic gout.
Which type of gout treatment decreases the production of uric acid in the blood? Hypouricemic agents
When using the alligation grid, what goes in the center box? The desired strength
Where on the alligation grid do we find the number of parts per ingredient? Right-hand side
What kinds of numbers can be used within an alligation grid? Positive numbers only
To use an alligation grid to prepare 120g of hydrocortisone using a 1% ointment and 2.5% ointment, what information is still required? Desired strength
You need to prepare a 7.5% Dextrose solution using SWFI and D10W. What information do you still need to fill in the alligation grid? Desired quantity
When alligating, the strength of the final product: Falls between the strengths of each original product.
The two products used in alligating are called the: Constituents.
A simple way to remember how to make an alligation grid is to remember that it looks like the game: Tic-tac-toe.
The digestive system extends from the mouth to the: Anus.
Rings of smooth muscle help to produce a wave of synchronized contractions called: Peristalsis.
Which of the following is NOT included among the six main parts or organs of the digestive system? Teeth
All of the following are among the six accessory organs of the digestive system EXCEPT the: Pharynx.
Which of the following is not one of the parts of the stomach? Chyme
Which of the following is not part of the small intestine? Cecum
In which part of the small intestine is approximately 80% of the food chemically digested? Duodenum
The ________ cells make and secrete hydrochloric acid in the stomach. parietal
Which digestive organ makes and secretes bile? Liver
All of the following are considered part of the large intestine EXCEPT the: Ileum.
Emesis is commonly known as: Vomiting
A sore on the inside wall of the stomach or intestine is called: An ulcer.
NSAIDs work by blocking the effect of the enzyme: Cyclooxygenase.
All of the following are factors that can cause ulcers EXCEPT: Antibiotics.
Proton pump inhibitors block the ________ that turns on the H+ -ATPase system, causing a reduction in hydrochloric acid production. enzyme
Which type of laxative causes colon fluid retention, increasing peristalsis? Hyperosmotics
Which type of laxative works by stopping the colon from absorbing fecal water, softening the stool? Emollients
The nutrient value that prevents deficiencies in 98% of the population is the: Recommended dietary allowance.
The nutrient value that is estimated to meet the needs of 50% of the population is the: Estimated average requirement.
All of the following are considered macronutrients EXCEPT: Water.
What is the unit of measure used when referring to the energy needed to digest and utilize food? Kilocalorie
The ADMR for carbohydrates is ________ of daily caloric intake 45% to 65%
The ADMR for fats is ________ of daily caloric intake. 20% to 35%
The ADMR for protein is ________ of daily caloric intake. 10% to 35%
Carbohydrates' main function in the body is to: Provide energy.
Lipids' main function in the body is to: Insulate and protect organs.
What percentage of the body is composed of water? 60%
How many different minerals are essential for nutrition? 21
Which of the following minerals is needed to build bones and teeth? Phosphorus
Which of the following minerals helps maintain proper muscle memory function? Potassium
Vitamin B12 is also known as: Cyanocobalamin.
Antihistamines treat nausea and vomiting by: Competitive inhibition or by blocking H1 receptor sites.
Peptic ulcers can be caused by extended NSAID use because NSAIDs block ________, reducing prostaglandin production. all COX enzymes
Helicobacter pylori is a ________ that causes approximately 90% of duodenal ulcers and 80% of gastric ulcers. bacteriumbacterium
Created by: Tinamharris31
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