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Pharmacology Final

QuestionAnswer
The abbreviation PO represents which one of the following? Orally
Demerol is an example of a Synthetic Drug
Malignant Hyperthermia is a(n) ________ effect to certain drugs. Idiosyncratic
Why would a local anesthetic, injected into an infected wound, not produce the intended effect? Because the local anesthetic could not reach the site of action
Drugs are chemically altered via a process called metabolism in the Liver
All are terms used to describe the body's response or reaction to medications except Contraindication
When a drug travels from the site of administration into the blood stream, it is called Absorption
The abbreviation bid represents which of the following? Twice a day
Many antibiotics used in surgery come in _______ form and must be reconstituted Powder
Prescriptions must include all of the following information except? Patient's social security number
What does the abbreviation sos mean on a prescription? Once, if necessary
Which form of a drug preparation tends to act more quickly? Gas
Which group of drugs is known as a receptor blocker? Antagonists
Most drugs are excreted and eliminated by the Kidney
Which drug form is used the least in the surgical department? Solid
Which one of the following abbreviations indicates an ointment form of a given drug? Ung
A surgical patient is given a drug during surgery and suspects he or she is having a delayed allergic reaction to the drug, several days later. Which symptom indicates that the patient may be having a delayed drug reaction? Joint swelling
Which one of the following types of drug binds to receptor site proteins and then inhibits a response? Antagonists
An expected but unintended effect of a drug is termed a(n) _____ effect. Side effect
The study of drugs derived from natural sources is called Pharmacognosy
Which one of the following abbreviations indicates that a drug is to be given orally? PO
Which one of the following terms is the study of four basic processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion in response to drugs? Pharmacokinetics
A drug that enhances the effect of another drug is called a(n)? Synergist
What drug is given as an antidote for Warfarin? Vitamin K
A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates its function is said to be a(n) _______ drug Agonist
An order for a drug to be given as needed is called a _______ order PRN
The time between the administration of a drug and the first appearance of its effect is called Onset
Which one of the following is not used for the classification of drugs? Source of Origin
An anticoagulant drugs is classified by its Therapeutic action
The abbreviation NPO represents which one of the following? Nothing by mouth
How is antibiotic irrigation applied during surgery? Topical
Volatile anesthetic agents are eliminated from the body via The lungs
How is an order for a drug to be given three times a day indicated on a prescription? TID
Distribution of drugs within the body is carried out through which one of the following body systems? Circulatory
How is an order for a drug to be taken every 4 hours indicated on a prescription? q4h
Which drug administration route causes many drugs to undergo the "first-pass system" Oral
Which of the following is an advantage of pharmacogenomics? Facilitate the medication approval process
Drugs that are listed with a C-I are considered to have a high-abuse potential with no medical use
Who assigns a brand name to a new medication? Manufacturer
All of the following are on the "Do Not Use" list of abbreviations except Zero before the decimal point
A medications generic name is Never capitalized on the label
Which drug law established classifications, known as schedules, of medications that had potential for abuse Controlled substances act
Drugs from which controlled substance schedule have an accepted use in the surgical setting C-II
Coordination of research about drug abuse in another country is regulated by the WHO
Which medication reference is published annually and updated quarterly by the American Society of Health-System Pharmacists, Bethesda, Md. AHFS
Which federal action sets the standards for quality and requires proper medication labeling for preparations containing morphine Pure Food and Drug Act
All are found on medication labels except a. PDR number b. supply dose c. control number d. label alert a. PDR number
The identifying number on every prescription that is required by federal law is called the National Drug Code
How does a surgical technologist know if he or she can handle and administer medications in his or her state? By researching the state's policy online
Which government agency was established to enforce the Controlled Substance Act The Drug Enforcement Agency
What should be done to an otic suspension medication to dilute the particles before it is administered to the patient? It must be shaken
All of the following are disadvantages to pharmacogentics except Its use to target specific diseases
How should an outdated multiuse vial of a local anesthetic be handled? By returning it to the pharmacy
Which source is the most reliable way to check that medication information is accurate online? Using a government website
On some medication labels, the generic name is Placed inside parenthesis
The full quantity contained in a medication bottle is its Total Volume
The organization that internationally regulates medications is The World Health Organization
Nonprescription medications are also known as which one of the following? Over-the-counter medications
Why should the scrubbed surgical technologist repeat the medication label information aloud? To confirm the correct drug
When changing shifts the incoming surgical technologist notices on the sterile field one of the medications is not accurately labeled, what should he or she do? Discard the medication and ask the circulator for a new dose
Before medications are delivered into the sterile field, they must be identified by Scrub person and circulator
A 30-gauge hypodermic needle is larger in diameter than an 18-gauge needle. False
A surgeon requests the use of an embolectomy catheter that has a 3mL balloon. Which of these syringes is the BEST choice for inflating this balloon? 1 ml TB syringe
When handling medications in the surgical department, which one of the following statements does not apply? Multidose vials may be recapped aseptically and dated to enable the remaining portions used at a later time
The most common type of syringe used in surgery is the Luer-loc
Which of the following hypodermic needles has the smaller lumen? 27 gauge
Improper or inadequate labeling of medications may be considered which one of the following? Negligence
Which of the following steps does not apply once a medication error has occurred? An incident report is not required
The scrub person may receive medications into the sterile field in all of the following ways except Circulator places the bottle on the corner of the back table
The five rights of medication administration include all of the following except Right physician
All of the following are basic parts of a syringe, except Hub
All of the following must be read aloud when identifying a drug except Manufacturer
Which member of the surgical team must document the medications that are used at the surgical field? Circulator
A recapped bottle of sterile saline is considered Unsterile
When recapping a needle you should Use the one-handed cap method
Which statement does not apply to the required steps for proper medication identification? Show the label to the surgeon
Who is responsible for passing a medication to the surgeon for administration during the surgical procedure? Scrubbed surgical technologist
Medication labels must contain all of the following information except Contraindications
Which of these is not one of the “five rights” but is crucial in medication administration? Right documentation
What is the first action that should be taken by the scrubbed surgical technologist when withdrawing medication from an inverted vial held by the circulator? Draw air into the syringe
All of the following are acceptable to store medication in on the sterile table, except Opened ampules
A Sulfonamide is an antimicrobial chemical and is further classified as A synthetic antibacterial
To cause an infection, a pathogen must have which of the following? A source
An antimicrobial agent used to inhibit bacterial growth is called Bacteriostatic
Preoperative and intraoperative antibiotics may be administered by any one of the following methods except Orally
Disease-causing microorganisms are called Pathogens
Bacteria classified as eukaryotes can be defined as Being found in multicellular organisms
Antibiotics are natural chemicals, which are produced by Microorganisms
Endogenous infection occurs from The patient's own bacteria
Which one of the following combination agents contains an antibiotic, an anti-inflammatory, and must be shaken before using? Cortisporin Suspension Otic
Erythromycin belongs to which group of antibiotics? Macrolides
The Surgical Patient Checklist is a tool to help with compliance for antibiotic administration and was developed by WHO
Surgical instruments that are improperly cleaned prior to sterilization are an example of Exogenous source
A sulfonamide cream that is used as a topical dressing for burn patients is called Silvadene Cream
Which one of the following major groups of antibiotics is classified into five generations on the basis of the spectrum of its activity? Cephalosporins
When a microorganism’s DNA sequence is altered to prevent destruction by an agent, the microorganism is said to have developed a(n) Antibiotic Resistance
A way of distinguishing between two types of bacteria is called Gram Staining
Which is the correct group of antibiotics that belong to the beta-lactam class Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems
Among the most common causative agents of SSI are bacteria known as Staphylococcus Aureus
Which one of the following antibiotics is available only in topical form because it is too toxic for systemic use? Neomycin
Which category of antibiotics is known to be ototoxic and nephrotoxic? Aminoglycosides
A series of tests used to identify disease-causing microorganisms and to determine their susceptibility to various antibiotics is called Culture and Sensitivity
Antibiotics assist the surgical patient’s own defenses to prevent or diminish Surgical site infections
Which agent is bactericidal? Penicillins
Who discovered penicillin? Alexander Fleming
All of the following are working theories for the development of resistant pathogens except Prescribing limited spectrum antibiotics
Prophylactic antibiotics are prescribed to Prevent infections
Which one of the following is not a mechanism by which antimicrobial agents may work against pathogenic microorganisms? Interferes with re absorption of sodium
Which ointment is a naturally occurring antibiotic produced by fermentation and used as an intranasal packing? Bactroban
All of the following are blue-colored dyes except Lugol Solution
Staining agents are used surgically to Identify abnormal cells
Which agent is used to mark skin incisions? Dyes
Many radiopaque contrast media contain barium or Iodine
How is Lymphazurin blue 1% used to find a sentinel node? The surgeon follows its path to the node
The pharmacologic agent used to delineate lymph nodes is which one of the following? Lymphazurin
Which dye is administered intravenously so that it can be excreted by the kidneys to show immediate damage to bladder or ureters? Indigo Carmine
During an operative cholangiogram, saline is injected to Dilute the contrast medium
To perform a Schiller’s test of the cervix, which agent is applied topically? Lugol's solution
During an operative cholangiogram, the surgeon incorrectly asks for a dye to determine the presence of biliary stones. What should the surgical technologist do? Ask the surgeon to clarify what is being requested
Which procedure uses methylene blue in order to verify patent tubes? Chromotubation
A chemical agent is brought into the OR suite by the circulating nurse, during a laser procedure of the cervix. It smells like vinegar—what do you suspect the chemical agent is? Acetic acid
Acetic acid is used to Identify cervical dysplasia
Dyes can be administered by all of the following methods except Ingested into the digestive system
Pharmacologic agents used in diagnostic radiographic testing are considered which one of the following? Contrast media
If a surgical patient has a positive shellfish allergy and is undergoing a procedure that requires the use of a contrast media, what should the surgical technologist do? Have nonionic contrast agents available
Which contrast media is approved for intrathecal use? Omnipaque-240
All of the following are true of contrast media except Most are radiotransparent
What is the normal range for serum potassium? 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L
How are electrolytes acquired? Through food and water
What cardiac condition requires treatment with diuretics? Congestive heart failure
Which diuretic is contraindicated in patients with hypertension? Osmotic
Which one of the following is classified as a high-ceiling diuretic medication and is used to decrease intracranial pressure? Lasix
Which electrolyte may be seriously depleted in patients taking certain diuretics? Potassium
The trade, or brand name, for furosemide is Lasix
Which one of the following medications is a loop diuretic? Lasix
Which one of the following conditions is not a result of hypokalemia? Increased intercranial pressure
Potassium-sparing diuretics are commonly used to treat which one of the following conditions? Edema
Which term indicates an abnormally high concentration of potassium in the blood? Hyperkalemia
When too much potassium is excreted, the resulting condition is called Hypokalemia
What substance undergoes tubular reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule? Filtrate
The definition of a diuretic medication is an agent that prevents the reabsorption of sodium and water by which one of the following organs? Kidneys
The only diuretic administered from the sterile back table is Mannitol
Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) is which type of diuretic medication? Thiazide diuretic
Diuretics cause the elimination of excess fluid by preventing the reabsorption of which one of the following elements? Sodium
Anesthesia care providers may administer diuretics for short-term therapy for all of the following reasons, except Reduce liver failure
How many nephrons are present within the kidneys? Millions
Which one of the following types of diuretic medications is prescribed in the treatment of glaucoma? Carbonic anyhydrase inhibitors
The trade, or brand name, for mannitol is Osmitrol
The diuretic medication that draws fluid out of tissues and into the circulatory system is called Osmotic
What is the primary concern for nonemergency surgical patients with low potassium? Cardiac arrest
Diuretics help to lower blood pressure by Lowering blood volume
Why is it necessary to place a urinary catheter in a surgical patient undergoing a procedure during which diuretics will be administered? Because of large amounts of urine excreted
Minerals made up of electrically charged particles held together by ionic bonds in the body are called Electrolytes
A process of forcing fluids and solutes through a membrane by pressure is called Filtration
Which one of the following endocrine disorders may be treated surgically? Hypersecretion
Which is a major function of the parathyroid gland? Enhances the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys
Which one of the following hormones is given for palliative treatment of metastatic breast cancer? Estrogen
Which one of the following medications may be injected directly into the uterine muscle after a cesarean section? Pitocin
Which one of the following hormones is necessary for the stimulation of uterine contractions during labor and delivery? Oxytocin
A condition in which endometrial tissue is found outside the uterus is called Endometriosis
Which one of the following is the generic name for Solu-Medrol? Methylprednisolone
After natural delivery of an infant, what else would oxytocin help to accomplish? Stop postpartum bleeding
Which one of the following glands has both endocrine and exocrine functions? Pancreas
Steroidal hormones are derived from Cholesterol
Which concentration of epinephrine is for topical use only? 1:1000
Natural thyroid hormones that are extracted from pig thyroid glands are made available under what trade name? Thyroid USP
Which one of the following classifications of hormones is sympathomimetic? Catecholamines
Steroidal hormones that promote male characteristics are Androgens
The pituitary gland has a role in all of the following body functions except Production of Insulin
Which one of the following is considered the simplest form of hormones? Amines
The most common cause of Addison’s disease today is Autoimmune disease
Which one of the following is not a steroidal hormone? Epinephrine
Which one of the following glands is called the master gland? Pituitary
Which one of the following is an ovarian hormone? Estrogen
The first indication of osteoporosis is seen as or in a Fracture
Nonsteroidal hormones are synthesized from Amino acids
The body’s failure to respond to the action of insulin on target cells results in which one of the following conditions? Type 2 diabetes
Which one of the following glands secretes oxytocin? Neurohypophysis
Which one of the following hormones helps control calcium and phosphate levels in the blood? Calcitonin
Epinephrine is combined with local anesthetics to Prolong the effects of local anesthesia
Which hormone is responsible for the development of male sex organs and secondary sex characteristics? Testosterone
The “fight-or-flight” response to stress is initiated by Cathecholamines
Which one of the following is the generic name for Decadron? Dexamethasone
Which one of the following hormones is used with local anesthetic medications? Epinephrine
Which one of the following hormones is not a catecholamine? Glucocorticoids
Which one of the following is prescribed preoperatively for patients scheduled for endometrial ablation? Danocrine
Which one of the following is not a function of hormones? Production of histamine (h2) receptor antagonists to bind to target cells
Which one of the following is not a thyroid hormone? Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Which mineralocorticoid maintains hemostatic levels of sodium in the blood? Aldosterone
Hormones made of short chains of amino acids are called __________ hormones. Peptide
Which one of the following pancreatic hormones stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose to increase the blood sugar level? Glucagon
Human insulin produced through recombinant DNA technology is Humulin
Drugs that relieve symptoms of a condition but do not cure it are Pallative
Hormones produced by the cortex of adrenal glands are collectively called Steroids
Which one of the following hormones is given for palliative treatment of androgen-dependent prostate cancer? Estrogen
The exocrine pancreas is the primary source for all of the following digestive enzymes except Glucagon
Which one of the following pancreatic hormones stimulates the liver to form glycogen from glucose to lower the blood sugar level? Insulin
Delatestryl may be prescribed for a diagnosis of which one of the following conditions? Hypogonadism
All are parts of the pancreas except Peritoneum
An adult patient who complains of being sleepy and less alert and having slow heart rate and reduced endurance may be suffering from which one of the following conditions? Hypothyroidism
Premarin cream might be used in the surgical setting for what procedure? Vaginal hysterectomy
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is produced by which gland? Pituitary
What will happen if epinephrine 1:1000 is injected? Tachycardia and hypertension
Oxytocin is available under which trade name? Pitocin
Agents that inhibit the process of blood clot formation are called Anticoagulants
Agents that dissolve already formed clots are called Thrombolytics
The formation or presence of a blood clot within the vascular system is termed Thrombosis
During the first stage of blood clot formation, __________ is formed. Thromboplastin
During the second stage of blood clot formation, __________ is formed. Thrombin
During the third stage of blood clot formation, __________ is formed. Fibrin
Calcium and vitamin K play vital roles in the process of clot formation. True
A medical plan of treatment for thrombosis usually indicates that a clot has formed in a(n) Vein
Drugs that promote clot formation are termed Coagulants
Which of the following is not a form of absorbable gelatin? Thrombogen
Which one of the following is a form of oxidized regenerated cellulose? Surgicel Firbrillar
Which of the following is not a form of absorbable collagen sponge? Avitene
Which one of the following is a microfibrillar collagen? Avitene
Which is not a topical hemostatic? Calcium Salts
Which one of the following hemostatic agents promotes platelet aggregation leading to clot formation? Avitene
Which one of the following hemostatic agents should be used immediately after it is reconstituted? Thrombostat
Which one of the following hemostatic agents creates a mechanical barrier to control bleeding? Bone wax
Which one of the following causes a chemical burn to stop capillary bleeding? Silver nitrate
Which systemic coagulant is contraindicated in patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia? Calcium salts
Intravenous administration of _________ is associated with anaphylactic reactions and should not be attempted unless no other venue is available. Vitamin K
Anticoagulants are used for any of the following reasons except to dissolve blood clots causing a myocardial infarction
Which one of the following parenteral anticoagulants is used most often? Heparin sodium
Heparin is measured in Units
Which one of the following is not a function of heparin? Breakdown of fibrin
What is the duration of heparin (in hours)? 2 to 4 hours
Heparin is available in vials of solutions in each of the following concentrations (in units/mL) to be used at the sterile field except 150
Which solution may be used as an irrigation solution at the sterile field during an atrioventricular (AV) fistula insertion? 5000 units heparin in 1000ml saline
Which one of the following drugs is used to reverse the effect of heparin? Protamine sulfate
Which form of anticoagulant is used for long-term management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? Oral
What is the generic name for Coumadin? Warfarin sodium
What is the onset of Coumadin? 2 or more days
What is the duration of Coumadin? 8 to 12 days
Which one of the following is not an oral anticoagulant? Streptokinase
Which one of the following is not a thrombolytic drug? Warfarin
What types of hemostatics are used on areas of capillary bleeding? Topical
Which vitamin serves a vital role in coagulation? K
Which one of the following procedures is performed to remove a blood clot? Arterial embolectomy
Hemostatic agents are effective against major arterial or venous bleeding. False
All of the following are topical hemostatics except Vitamin K
Avitene must be applied with a __________ instrument. Dry
Which one of the following agents is a thrombolytic? Streptokinase
Which one of the following agents is a chemical hemostatic? Silver nitrate
Which naturally occurring mechanism is the most dominant in blood? Anticoagulants
A blood clot within an intact blood vessel is called a(n) Thrombus
Damage to small blood vessels causes a series of reactions that produce a protein called Fibrin
A “net” that traps blood cells to form a clot is called Fibrin
If a venous clot breaks off and travels to the heart, it is called a(n) Embolus
Which hemostatic agent was developed to treat severe traumatic bleeding on the battlefield? Quikclot
Which is an example of a flowable form of absorbable gelatin? Floseal
Which hemostatic agent can be used in the presence of a gram-positive microorganism? Surgicel
Major electrolytes found in body fluids are sodium, chloride, calcium, and Potassium
Food and fluid restrictions preoperatively can result in the surgical patient needing IV fluids
The electrolyte that controls the distribution of water in the body and maintains fluid and electrolyte balance is sodium
The intravenous (IV) solution used during blood transfusion is Normal saline
Which IV solution increases insulin requirements for the patient with diabetes? Dextrose
Another name for Hartmann solution is Lactated ringers
Proteins responsible for transporting oxygen to cells are which one of the following? Hemoglobin
The volume of erythrocytes in a given volume of blood is called which one of the following? Hematocrit
Another name for donor blood is which one of the following? Homologous
Most transfusions involve packed red blood cells (RBCs) given with Volume expander
What blood product is given when clotting factors are required? Plasma
Dextran is an example of a Volume expander
Testing the temperature of irrigation solution is important, because if too hot, it can Cause tissue damage
The irrigation solution that is conductive and is used with caution in the presence of the ESU is which one of the following? Saline
One of the most common IV solutions used in the surgical setting is which one of the following? 0.9% sodium chloride
Which of the following is not a reason that IV fluids may be ordered? Maintain acid base balance
60% of the total body weight in a healthy adult is made up of Fluid
Which of the following is an electrolyte present in normal body fluid? Magnesium
Which form of potassium is not preferable for the patient undergoing surgery? IV
Which form of potassium is not preferable for the patient undergoing surgery? Dextrose in saline
If a surgical patient has liver disease, which IV fluid should not be given? Lactated ringer
Why is the secondary tubing hung higher than the primary tubing when establishing an IV on a surgical patient? Because the secondary medication should infuse first
Which of the following is a low hemoglobin level for an adult female? 10g/100ml of blood
A surgical patient with blood type AB has a blood type that contains Both A and B antigens
A component of blood that is used when several units of blood have been used and should be thawed in water prior to use is called Plasma
The term anesthesia means without ______ Sensation
What are the five phases of general anesthesia in the correct sequence? Preinduction, induction, maintenance, emergence, recovery
Which phase of general anesthesia includes preoxygenation of the patient? preinduction
Which phase of general anesthesia includes administration of anesthetic agents? induction
Which phase of general anesthesia includes the administration of muscle relaxants? induction
Preoperative patient assesment and evaluation are performed during which phase of general anesthesia? preinduction
Patient intubation is performed during which phase of general anesthesia? induction
The surgical procedure is performed during which phase of general anesthesia? maintenance
Anesthetic agents are reversed or discontinued or both during which phase of general anesthesia? Emergence
Which is the postoperative phase of general anesthesia? recovery
the preoperative phase of general anesthesia is which one of the following? preinduction
which statement does not apply to endotracheal intubation the ET tube is connected to a pulse oximeter
which one of the following statements is not true about cricoid pressure it reduces the risk of laryngeal spams
which one of the following statements is not true of largyngeal masked airway adminstering muscle relaxants is required
where does the recovery phase take place PACU
the patient is most prone to agitation and excitement in which phase of anesthesia induction
general anesthesia may be accomplished by adminstering inhalation or intravenous drugs or bith true
the anesthesia technique that uses both inhalation and intravenous agents is called balanced anesthesia
ultra short acting intravenous anesthesia agents administered during the induction phase are barbiturates
which one of the following is not true of Pentothal it is an effective analgesic
which of the following is not true of benzodiazepines the are exclusively used in surgery
which one of the following is not true of ketamine it is best used for procedures of long duration
which one of the following drugs is a barbiturate brevital
which one of the following drugs is not a benzodiazepine pentothal
which one of the following drugs is best used for superficial procedures of short duration such as skin grafts ketalar
which one of the following drugs is used for patients with hypovolemic trauma or short procedures on patients with compromised cardiac function or both amidate
analgesics are used in surgery to reduce the necessary amount of anesthesia drugs true
which one of the following class of drugs is used for analgesic effect opiods
analgesics are administered during which phase of general anesthesia maintenance
which one of the following statements is not true of propofol patients may experience hallucinations through the emergence phase of anesthesia
which one of the following drugs is not an opiod propofol
fentanyl is available under what trade name sublimaze
which one of the following statements is not true of fentanyl it can only be used in combination with other anesthetic agents
which one of the following opiods has an onset time greater than 30 seconds sufenta
of the following early inhalation agents which one is still in use nitrous oxide
inhalation agents enter the bloodstream from the inhaled air through the alveoli in the lungs true
which one of the following does not apply to inhalation agents they are difficult to control
sevoflurane is marketed under what trade name ultane
isoflurane is marketed under what trade name forane
desflurane is marketed under what trade name suprane
each one of the following inhalation agents, either alone or in combination with succinylcholine is considered a triggering agent for malignant hyperthermia except nitrous oxide
which one of the following inhalation agents is a gas not a vapor nitrous oxide
which group of drugs is given to facilitate intubation as well as provide better surgical exposure during abdominal procedures muscle relaxants
what was the first muscle relaxant used in surgery curare
what is the neurotransmitter that is released at neuromuscular synapses to stimulate the release of calcium ions Acetylcholine
depolarization means which of the following muscle contraction
small involuntary muscle twitches just under the skin are known as fasciculations
which one of the following muscle relaxants produces fasciculations followed by flaccidity succinylcholine
which is not an adverse effect associated with succinylcholine decreased intracranial pressure
which one of the following is not an adverse effect associated with nondepolarizing muscle relaxants elevated serum potassium in burn patients
which one of the following muscle relaxants has no reversal agent and must be allowed to wear off anectine
the effect of nondepolarizing muscle relaxants can be reversed by using which one of the following prostigmin
what is the trade name for succinylcholine anectine
what is the trade name for pancuronium bromide pavulon
what is the trade name for naloxone narcan
opiods are reversed using which of the follwing narcan
which medication is given to treat febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction to incompatible blood antipyretics
why might lidocaine be administered in the management of cardiac arrest to treat ventricular arrhythmias
which one of the following does not apply to malignant hyperthermia MH is triggered by succinylcholine and nitrous oxide
which one of the following is not one of the treatment steps for MH slow ventilation
measurement of inspired and expired carbon dioxide concentrations is which one of the following terms capnography
rapid iv administration of a concentrated dose of medication is known as bolus
cardiac arrhythmias are often observed in surgical patients with imbalances of what electrolyte potassium
which medication is administered intravenously for anaphylaxis when it occurs under general anesthesia dopamine
which one of the following agents may be used as a bronchodilator epinephrine
which one of the following is a late sign of MH pyrexia
which one of the following medications must be reconstituted before administering dantrolene sodium
which medication would be used to manage laryngospasm with oxygen desaturation after extubation anectine
in a hemolytic transfusion reaction which agent would be used to treat hypotension mannitol
which drug is useful in treating bronchospasm albuterol
the first line medications used to treat cardiac arrest are amiodarone and epinephrine
the first line treatment for ventricular fibrillation are lidocaine and amiodarone
Created by: Kamrine
 

 



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