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Pharmacology Final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The abbreviation PO represents which one of the following? | Orally |
| Demerol is an example of a | Synthetic Drug |
| Malignant Hyperthermia is a(n) ________ effect to certain drugs. | Idiosyncratic |
| Why would a local anesthetic, injected into an infected wound, not produce the intended effect? | Because the local anesthetic could not reach the site of action |
| Drugs are chemically altered via a process called metabolism in the | Liver |
| All are terms used to describe the body's response or reaction to medications except | Contraindication |
| When a drug travels from the site of administration into the blood stream, it is called | Absorption |
| The abbreviation bid represents which of the following? | Twice a day |
| Many antibiotics used in surgery come in _______ form and must be reconstituted | Powder |
| Prescriptions must include all of the following information except? | Patient's social security number |
| What does the abbreviation sos mean on a prescription? | Once, if necessary |
| Which form of a drug preparation tends to act more quickly? | Gas |
| Which group of drugs is known as a receptor blocker? | Antagonists |
| Most drugs are excreted and eliminated by the | Kidney |
| Which drug form is used the least in the surgical department? | Solid |
| Which one of the following abbreviations indicates an ointment form of a given drug? | Ung |
| A surgical patient is given a drug during surgery and suspects he or she is having a delayed allergic reaction to the drug, several days later. Which symptom indicates that the patient may be having a delayed drug reaction? | Joint swelling |
| Which one of the following types of drug binds to receptor site proteins and then inhibits a response? | Antagonists |
| An expected but unintended effect of a drug is termed a(n) _____ effect. | Side effect |
| The study of drugs derived from natural sources is called | Pharmacognosy |
| Which one of the following abbreviations indicates that a drug is to be given orally? | PO |
| Which one of the following terms is the study of four basic processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion in response to drugs? | Pharmacokinetics |
| A drug that enhances the effect of another drug is called a(n)? | Synergist |
| What drug is given as an antidote for Warfarin? | Vitamin K |
| A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates its function is said to be a(n) _______ drug | Agonist |
| An order for a drug to be given as needed is called a _______ order | PRN |
| The time between the administration of a drug and the first appearance of its effect is called | Onset |
| Which one of the following is not used for the classification of drugs? | Source of Origin |
| An anticoagulant drugs is classified by its | Therapeutic action |
| The abbreviation NPO represents which one of the following? | Nothing by mouth |
| How is antibiotic irrigation applied during surgery? | Topical |
| Volatile anesthetic agents are eliminated from the body via | The lungs |
| How is an order for a drug to be given three times a day indicated on a prescription? | TID |
| Distribution of drugs within the body is carried out through which one of the following body systems? | Circulatory |
| How is an order for a drug to be taken every 4 hours indicated on a prescription? | q4h |
| Which drug administration route causes many drugs to undergo the "first-pass system" | Oral |
| Which of the following is an advantage of pharmacogenomics? | Facilitate the medication approval process |
| Drugs that are listed with a C-I are considered to | have a high-abuse potential with no medical use |
| Who assigns a brand name to a new medication? | Manufacturer |
| All of the following are on the "Do Not Use" list of abbreviations except | Zero before the decimal point |
| A medications generic name is | Never capitalized on the label |
| Which drug law established classifications, known as schedules, of medications that had potential for abuse | Controlled substances act |
| Drugs from which controlled substance schedule have an accepted use in the surgical setting | C-II |
| Coordination of research about drug abuse in another country is regulated by the | WHO |
| Which medication reference is published annually and updated quarterly by the American Society of Health-System Pharmacists, Bethesda, Md. | AHFS |
| Which federal action sets the standards for quality and requires proper medication labeling for preparations containing morphine | Pure Food and Drug Act |
| All are found on medication labels except a. PDR number b. supply dose c. control number d. label alert | a. PDR number |
| The identifying number on every prescription that is required by federal law is called the | National Drug Code |
| How does a surgical technologist know if he or she can handle and administer medications in his or her state? | By researching the state's policy online |
| Which government agency was established to enforce the Controlled Substance Act | The Drug Enforcement Agency |
| What should be done to an otic suspension medication to dilute the particles before it is administered to the patient? | It must be shaken |
| All of the following are disadvantages to pharmacogentics except | Its use to target specific diseases |
| How should an outdated multiuse vial of a local anesthetic be handled? | By returning it to the pharmacy |
| Which source is the most reliable way to check that medication information is accurate online? | Using a government website |
| On some medication labels, the generic name is | Placed inside parenthesis |
| The full quantity contained in a medication bottle is its | Total Volume |
| The organization that internationally regulates medications is | The World Health Organization |
| Nonprescription medications are also known as which one of the following? | Over-the-counter medications |
| Why should the scrubbed surgical technologist repeat the medication label information aloud? | To confirm the correct drug |
| When changing shifts the incoming surgical technologist notices on the sterile field one of the medications is not accurately labeled, what should he or she do? | Discard the medication and ask the circulator for a new dose |
| Before medications are delivered into the sterile field, they must be identified by | Scrub person and circulator |
| A 30-gauge hypodermic needle is larger in diameter than an 18-gauge needle. | False |
| A surgeon requests the use of an embolectomy catheter that has a 3mL balloon. Which of these syringes is the BEST choice for inflating this balloon? | 1 ml TB syringe |
| When handling medications in the surgical department, which one of the following statements does not apply? | Multidose vials may be recapped aseptically and dated to enable the remaining portions used at a later time |
| The most common type of syringe used in surgery is the | Luer-loc |
| Which of the following hypodermic needles has the smaller lumen? | 27 gauge |
| Improper or inadequate labeling of medications may be considered which one of the following? | Negligence |
| Which of the following steps does not apply once a medication error has occurred? | An incident report is not required |
| The scrub person may receive medications into the sterile field in all of the following ways except | Circulator places the bottle on the corner of the back table |
| The five rights of medication administration include all of the following except | Right physician |
| All of the following are basic parts of a syringe, except | Hub |
| All of the following must be read aloud when identifying a drug except | Manufacturer |
| Which member of the surgical team must document the medications that are used at the surgical field? | Circulator |
| A recapped bottle of sterile saline is considered | Unsterile |
| When recapping a needle you should | Use the one-handed cap method |
| Which statement does not apply to the required steps for proper medication identification? | Show the label to the surgeon |
| Who is responsible for passing a medication to the surgeon for administration during the surgical procedure? | Scrubbed surgical technologist |
| Medication labels must contain all of the following information except | Contraindications |
| Which of these is not one of the “five rights” but is crucial in medication administration? | Right documentation |
| What is the first action that should be taken by the scrubbed surgical technologist when withdrawing medication from an inverted vial held by the circulator? | Draw air into the syringe |
| All of the following are acceptable to store medication in on the sterile table, except | Opened ampules |
| A Sulfonamide is an antimicrobial chemical and is further classified as | A synthetic antibacterial |
| To cause an infection, a pathogen must have which of the following? | A source |
| An antimicrobial agent used to inhibit bacterial growth is called | Bacteriostatic |
| Preoperative and intraoperative antibiotics may be administered by any one of the following methods except | Orally |
| Disease-causing microorganisms are called | Pathogens |
| Bacteria classified as eukaryotes can be defined as | Being found in multicellular organisms |
| Antibiotics are natural chemicals, which are produced by | Microorganisms |
| Endogenous infection occurs from | The patient's own bacteria |
| Which one of the following combination agents contains an antibiotic, an anti-inflammatory, and must be shaken before using? | Cortisporin Suspension Otic |
| Erythromycin belongs to which group of antibiotics? | Macrolides |
| The Surgical Patient Checklist is a tool to help with compliance for antibiotic administration and was developed by | WHO |
| Surgical instruments that are improperly cleaned prior to sterilization are an example of | Exogenous source |
| A sulfonamide cream that is used as a topical dressing for burn patients is called | Silvadene Cream |
| Which one of the following major groups of antibiotics is classified into five generations on the basis of the spectrum of its activity? | Cephalosporins |
| When a microorganism’s DNA sequence is altered to prevent destruction by an agent, the microorganism is said to have developed a(n) | Antibiotic Resistance |
| A way of distinguishing between two types of bacteria is called | Gram Staining |
| Which is the correct group of antibiotics that belong to the beta-lactam class | Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems |
| Among the most common causative agents of SSI are bacteria known as | Staphylococcus Aureus |
| Which one of the following antibiotics is available only in topical form because it is too toxic for systemic use? | Neomycin |
| Which category of antibiotics is known to be ototoxic and nephrotoxic? | Aminoglycosides |
| A series of tests used to identify disease-causing microorganisms and to determine their susceptibility to various antibiotics is called | Culture and Sensitivity |
| Antibiotics assist the surgical patient’s own defenses to prevent or diminish | Surgical site infections |
| Which agent is bactericidal? | Penicillins |
| Who discovered penicillin? | Alexander Fleming |
| All of the following are working theories for the development of resistant pathogens except | Prescribing limited spectrum antibiotics |
| Prophylactic antibiotics are prescribed to | Prevent infections |
| Which one of the following is not a mechanism by which antimicrobial agents may work against pathogenic microorganisms? | Interferes with re absorption of sodium |
| Which ointment is a naturally occurring antibiotic produced by fermentation and used as an intranasal packing? | Bactroban |
| All of the following are blue-colored dyes except | Lugol Solution |
| Staining agents are used surgically to | Identify abnormal cells |
| Which agent is used to mark skin incisions? | Dyes |
| Many radiopaque contrast media contain barium or | Iodine |
| How is Lymphazurin blue 1% used to find a sentinel node? | The surgeon follows its path to the node |
| The pharmacologic agent used to delineate lymph nodes is which one of the following? | Lymphazurin |
| Which dye is administered intravenously so that it can be excreted by the kidneys to show immediate damage to bladder or ureters? | Indigo Carmine |
| During an operative cholangiogram, saline is injected to | Dilute the contrast medium |
| To perform a Schiller’s test of the cervix, which agent is applied topically? | Lugol's solution |
| During an operative cholangiogram, the surgeon incorrectly asks for a dye to determine the presence of biliary stones. What should the surgical technologist do? | Ask the surgeon to clarify what is being requested |
| Which procedure uses methylene blue in order to verify patent tubes? | Chromotubation |
| A chemical agent is brought into the OR suite by the circulating nurse, during a laser procedure of the cervix. It smells like vinegar—what do you suspect the chemical agent is? | Acetic acid |
| Acetic acid is used to | Identify cervical dysplasia |
| Dyes can be administered by all of the following methods except | Ingested into the digestive system |
| Pharmacologic agents used in diagnostic radiographic testing are considered which one of the following? | Contrast media |
| If a surgical patient has a positive shellfish allergy and is undergoing a procedure that requires the use of a contrast media, what should the surgical technologist do? | Have nonionic contrast agents available |
| Which contrast media is approved for intrathecal use? | Omnipaque-240 |
| All of the following are true of contrast media except | Most are radiotransparent |
| What is the normal range for serum potassium? | 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L |
| How are electrolytes acquired? | Through food and water |
| What cardiac condition requires treatment with diuretics? | Congestive heart failure |
| Which diuretic is contraindicated in patients with hypertension? | Osmotic |
| Which one of the following is classified as a high-ceiling diuretic medication and is used to decrease intracranial pressure? | Lasix |
| Which electrolyte may be seriously depleted in patients taking certain diuretics? | Potassium |
| The trade, or brand name, for furosemide is | Lasix |
| Which one of the following medications is a loop diuretic? | Lasix |
| Which one of the following conditions is not a result of hypokalemia? | Increased intercranial pressure |
| Potassium-sparing diuretics are commonly used to treat which one of the following conditions? | Edema |
| Which term indicates an abnormally high concentration of potassium in the blood? | Hyperkalemia |
| When too much potassium is excreted, the resulting condition is called | Hypokalemia |
| What substance undergoes tubular reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule? | Filtrate |
| The definition of a diuretic medication is an agent that prevents the reabsorption of sodium and water by which one of the following organs? | Kidneys |
| The only diuretic administered from the sterile back table is | Mannitol |
| Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) is which type of diuretic medication? | Thiazide diuretic |
| Diuretics cause the elimination of excess fluid by preventing the reabsorption of which one of the following elements? | Sodium |
| Anesthesia care providers may administer diuretics for short-term therapy for all of the following reasons, except | Reduce liver failure |
| How many nephrons are present within the kidneys? | Millions |
| Which one of the following types of diuretic medications is prescribed in the treatment of glaucoma? | Carbonic anyhydrase inhibitors |
| The trade, or brand name, for mannitol is | Osmitrol |
| The diuretic medication that draws fluid out of tissues and into the circulatory system is called | Osmotic |
| What is the primary concern for nonemergency surgical patients with low potassium? | Cardiac arrest |
| Diuretics help to lower blood pressure by | Lowering blood volume |
| Why is it necessary to place a urinary catheter in a surgical patient undergoing a procedure during which diuretics will be administered? | Because of large amounts of urine excreted |
| Minerals made up of electrically charged particles held together by ionic bonds in the body are called | Electrolytes |
| A process of forcing fluids and solutes through a membrane by pressure is called | Filtration |
| Which one of the following endocrine disorders may be treated surgically? | Hypersecretion |
| Which is a major function of the parathyroid gland? | Enhances the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys |
| Which one of the following hormones is given for palliative treatment of metastatic breast cancer? | Estrogen |
| Which one of the following medications may be injected directly into the uterine muscle after a cesarean section? | Pitocin |
| Which one of the following hormones is necessary for the stimulation of uterine contractions during labor and delivery? | Oxytocin |
| A condition in which endometrial tissue is found outside the uterus is called | Endometriosis |
| Which one of the following is the generic name for Solu-Medrol? | Methylprednisolone |
| After natural delivery of an infant, what else would oxytocin help to accomplish? | Stop postpartum bleeding |
| Which one of the following glands has both endocrine and exocrine functions? | Pancreas |
| Steroidal hormones are derived from | Cholesterol |
| Which concentration of epinephrine is for topical use only? | 1:1000 |
| Natural thyroid hormones that are extracted from pig thyroid glands are made available under what trade name? | Thyroid USP |
| Which one of the following classifications of hormones is sympathomimetic? | Catecholamines |
| Steroidal hormones that promote male characteristics are | Androgens |
| The pituitary gland has a role in all of the following body functions except | Production of Insulin |
| Which one of the following is considered the simplest form of hormones? | Amines |
| The most common cause of Addison’s disease today is | Autoimmune disease |
| Which one of the following is not a steroidal hormone? | Epinephrine |
| Which one of the following glands is called the master gland? | Pituitary |
| Which one of the following is an ovarian hormone? | Estrogen |
| The first indication of osteoporosis is seen as or in a | Fracture |
| Nonsteroidal hormones are synthesized from | Amino acids |
| The body’s failure to respond to the action of insulin on target cells results in which one of the following conditions? | Type 2 diabetes |
| Which one of the following glands secretes oxytocin? | Neurohypophysis |
| Which one of the following hormones helps control calcium and phosphate levels in the blood? | Calcitonin |
| Epinephrine is combined with local anesthetics to | Prolong the effects of local anesthesia |
| Which hormone is responsible for the development of male sex organs and secondary sex characteristics? | Testosterone |
| The “fight-or-flight” response to stress is initiated by | Cathecholamines |
| Which one of the following is the generic name for Decadron? | Dexamethasone |
| Which one of the following hormones is used with local anesthetic medications? | Epinephrine |
| Which one of the following hormones is not a catecholamine? | Glucocorticoids |
| Which one of the following is prescribed preoperatively for patients scheduled for endometrial ablation? | Danocrine |
| Which one of the following is not a function of hormones? | Production of histamine (h2) receptor antagonists to bind to target cells |
| Which one of the following is not a thyroid hormone? | Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) |
| Which mineralocorticoid maintains hemostatic levels of sodium in the blood? | Aldosterone |
| Hormones made of short chains of amino acids are called __________ hormones. | Peptide |
| Which one of the following pancreatic hormones stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose to increase the blood sugar level? | Glucagon |
| Human insulin produced through recombinant DNA technology is | Humulin |
| Drugs that relieve symptoms of a condition but do not cure it are | Pallative |
| Hormones produced by the cortex of adrenal glands are collectively called | Steroids |
| Which one of the following hormones is given for palliative treatment of androgen-dependent prostate cancer? | Estrogen |
| The exocrine pancreas is the primary source for all of the following digestive enzymes except | Glucagon |
| Which one of the following pancreatic hormones stimulates the liver to form glycogen from glucose to lower the blood sugar level? | Insulin |
| Delatestryl may be prescribed for a diagnosis of which one of the following conditions? | Hypogonadism |
| All are parts of the pancreas except | Peritoneum |
| An adult patient who complains of being sleepy and less alert and having slow heart rate and reduced endurance may be suffering from which one of the following conditions? | Hypothyroidism |
| Premarin cream might be used in the surgical setting for what procedure? | Vaginal hysterectomy |
| Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is produced by which gland? | Pituitary |
| What will happen if epinephrine 1:1000 is injected? | Tachycardia and hypertension |
| Oxytocin is available under which trade name? | Pitocin |
| Agents that inhibit the process of blood clot formation are called | Anticoagulants |
| Agents that dissolve already formed clots are called | Thrombolytics |
| The formation or presence of a blood clot within the vascular system is termed | Thrombosis |
| During the first stage of blood clot formation, __________ is formed. | Thromboplastin |
| During the second stage of blood clot formation, __________ is formed. | Thrombin |
| During the third stage of blood clot formation, __________ is formed. | Fibrin |
| Calcium and vitamin K play vital roles in the process of clot formation. | True |
| A medical plan of treatment for thrombosis usually indicates that a clot has formed in a(n) | Vein |
| Drugs that promote clot formation are termed | Coagulants |
| Which of the following is not a form of absorbable gelatin? | Thrombogen |
| Which one of the following is a form of oxidized regenerated cellulose? | Surgicel Firbrillar |
| Which of the following is not a form of absorbable collagen sponge? | Avitene |
| Which one of the following is a microfibrillar collagen? | Avitene |
| Which is not a topical hemostatic? | Calcium Salts |
| Which one of the following hemostatic agents promotes platelet aggregation leading to clot formation? | Avitene |
| Which one of the following hemostatic agents should be used immediately after it is reconstituted? | Thrombostat |
| Which one of the following hemostatic agents creates a mechanical barrier to control bleeding? | Bone wax |
| Which one of the following causes a chemical burn to stop capillary bleeding? | Silver nitrate |
| Which systemic coagulant is contraindicated in patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia? | Calcium salts |
| Intravenous administration of _________ is associated with anaphylactic reactions and should not be attempted unless no other venue is available. | Vitamin K |
| Anticoagulants are used for any of the following reasons except | to dissolve blood clots causing a myocardial infarction |
| Which one of the following parenteral anticoagulants is used most often? | Heparin sodium |
| Heparin is measured in | Units |
| Which one of the following is not a function of heparin? | Breakdown of fibrin |
| What is the duration of heparin (in hours)? | 2 to 4 hours |
| Heparin is available in vials of solutions in each of the following concentrations (in units/mL) to be used at the sterile field except | 150 |
| Which solution may be used as an irrigation solution at the sterile field during an atrioventricular (AV) fistula insertion? | 5000 units heparin in 1000ml saline |
| Which one of the following drugs is used to reverse the effect of heparin? | Protamine sulfate |
| Which form of anticoagulant is used for long-term management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? | Oral |
| What is the generic name for Coumadin? | Warfarin sodium |
| What is the onset of Coumadin? | 2 or more days |
| What is the duration of Coumadin? | 8 to 12 days |
| Which one of the following is not an oral anticoagulant? | Streptokinase |
| Which one of the following is not a thrombolytic drug? | Warfarin |
| What types of hemostatics are used on areas of capillary bleeding? | Topical |
| Which vitamin serves a vital role in coagulation? | K |
| Which one of the following procedures is performed to remove a blood clot? | Arterial embolectomy |
| Hemostatic agents are effective against major arterial or venous bleeding. | False |
| All of the following are topical hemostatics except | Vitamin K |
| Avitene must be applied with a __________ instrument. | Dry |
| Which one of the following agents is a thrombolytic? | Streptokinase |
| Which one of the following agents is a chemical hemostatic? | Silver nitrate |
| Which naturally occurring mechanism is the most dominant in blood? | Anticoagulants |
| A blood clot within an intact blood vessel is called a(n) | Thrombus |
| Damage to small blood vessels causes a series of reactions that produce a protein called | Fibrin |
| A “net” that traps blood cells to form a clot is called | Fibrin |
| If a venous clot breaks off and travels to the heart, it is called a(n) | Embolus |
| Which hemostatic agent was developed to treat severe traumatic bleeding on the battlefield? | Quikclot |
| Which is an example of a flowable form of absorbable gelatin? | Floseal |
| Which hemostatic agent can be used in the presence of a gram-positive microorganism? | Surgicel |
| Major electrolytes found in body fluids are sodium, chloride, calcium, and | Potassium |
| Food and fluid restrictions preoperatively can result in the surgical patient needing | IV fluids |
| The electrolyte that controls the distribution of water in the body and maintains fluid and electrolyte balance is | sodium |
| The intravenous (IV) solution used during blood transfusion is | Normal saline |
| Which IV solution increases insulin requirements for the patient with diabetes? | Dextrose |
| Another name for Hartmann solution is | Lactated ringers |
| Proteins responsible for transporting oxygen to cells are which one of the following? | Hemoglobin |
| The volume of erythrocytes in a given volume of blood is called which one of the following? | Hematocrit |
| Another name for donor blood is which one of the following? | Homologous |
| Most transfusions involve packed red blood cells (RBCs) given with | Volume expander |
| What blood product is given when clotting factors are required? | Plasma |
| Dextran is an example of a | Volume expander |
| Testing the temperature of irrigation solution is important, because if too hot, it can | Cause tissue damage |
| The irrigation solution that is conductive and is used with caution in the presence of the ESU is which one of the following? | Saline |
| One of the most common IV solutions used in the surgical setting is which one of the following? | 0.9% sodium chloride |
| Which of the following is not a reason that IV fluids may be ordered? | Maintain acid base balance |
| 60% of the total body weight in a healthy adult is made up of | Fluid |
| Which of the following is an electrolyte present in normal body fluid? | Magnesium |
| Which form of potassium is not preferable for the patient undergoing surgery? | IV |
| Which form of potassium is not preferable for the patient undergoing surgery? | Dextrose in saline |
| If a surgical patient has liver disease, which IV fluid should not be given? | Lactated ringer |
| Why is the secondary tubing hung higher than the primary tubing when establishing an IV on a surgical patient? | Because the secondary medication should infuse first |
| Which of the following is a low hemoglobin level for an adult female? | 10g/100ml of blood |
| A surgical patient with blood type AB has a blood type that contains | Both A and B antigens |
| A component of blood that is used when several units of blood have been used and should be thawed in water prior to use is called | Plasma |
| The term anesthesia means without ______ | Sensation |
| What are the five phases of general anesthesia in the correct sequence? | Preinduction, induction, maintenance, emergence, recovery |
| Which phase of general anesthesia includes preoxygenation of the patient? | preinduction |
| Which phase of general anesthesia includes administration of anesthetic agents? | induction |
| Which phase of general anesthesia includes the administration of muscle relaxants? | induction |
| Preoperative patient assesment and evaluation are performed during which phase of general anesthesia? | preinduction |
| Patient intubation is performed during which phase of general anesthesia? | induction |
| The surgical procedure is performed during which phase of general anesthesia? | maintenance |
| Anesthetic agents are reversed or discontinued or both during which phase of general anesthesia? | Emergence |
| Which is the postoperative phase of general anesthesia? | recovery |
| the preoperative phase of general anesthesia is which one of the following? | preinduction |
| which statement does not apply to endotracheal intubation | the ET tube is connected to a pulse oximeter |
| which one of the following statements is not true about cricoid pressure | it reduces the risk of laryngeal spams |
| which one of the following statements is not true of largyngeal masked airway | adminstering muscle relaxants is required |
| where does the recovery phase take place | PACU |
| the patient is most prone to agitation and excitement in which phase of anesthesia | induction |
| general anesthesia may be accomplished by adminstering inhalation or intravenous drugs or bith | true |
| the anesthesia technique that uses both inhalation and intravenous agents is called | balanced anesthesia |
| ultra short acting intravenous anesthesia agents administered during the induction phase are | barbiturates |
| which one of the following is not true of Pentothal | it is an effective analgesic |
| which of the following is not true of benzodiazepines | the are exclusively used in surgery |
| which one of the following is not true of ketamine | it is best used for procedures of long duration |
| which one of the following drugs is a barbiturate | brevital |
| which one of the following drugs is not a benzodiazepine | pentothal |
| which one of the following drugs is best used for superficial procedures of short duration such as skin grafts | ketalar |
| which one of the following drugs is used for patients with hypovolemic trauma or short procedures on patients with compromised cardiac function or both | amidate |
| analgesics are used in surgery to reduce the necessary amount of anesthesia drugs | true |
| which one of the following class of drugs is used for analgesic effect | opiods |
| analgesics are administered during which phase of general anesthesia | maintenance |
| which one of the following statements is not true of propofol | patients may experience hallucinations through the emergence phase of anesthesia |
| which one of the following drugs is not an opiod | propofol |
| fentanyl is available under what trade name | sublimaze |
| which one of the following statements is not true of fentanyl | it can only be used in combination with other anesthetic agents |
| which one of the following opiods has an onset time greater than 30 seconds | sufenta |
| of the following early inhalation agents which one is still in use | nitrous oxide |
| inhalation agents enter the bloodstream from the inhaled air through the alveoli in the lungs | true |
| which one of the following does not apply to inhalation agents | they are difficult to control |
| sevoflurane is marketed under what trade name | ultane |
| isoflurane is marketed under what trade name | forane |
| desflurane is marketed under what trade name | suprane |
| each one of the following inhalation agents, either alone or in combination with succinylcholine is considered a triggering agent for malignant hyperthermia except | nitrous oxide |
| which one of the following inhalation agents is a gas not a vapor | nitrous oxide |
| which group of drugs is given to facilitate intubation as well as provide better surgical exposure during abdominal procedures | muscle relaxants |
| what was the first muscle relaxant used in surgery | curare |
| what is the neurotransmitter that is released at neuromuscular synapses to stimulate the release of calcium ions | Acetylcholine |
| depolarization means which of the following | muscle contraction |
| small involuntary muscle twitches just under the skin are known as | fasciculations |
| which one of the following muscle relaxants produces fasciculations followed by flaccidity | succinylcholine |
| which is not an adverse effect associated with succinylcholine | decreased intracranial pressure |
| which one of the following is not an adverse effect associated with nondepolarizing muscle relaxants | elevated serum potassium in burn patients |
| which one of the following muscle relaxants has no reversal agent and must be allowed to wear off | anectine |
| the effect of nondepolarizing muscle relaxants can be reversed by using which one of the following | prostigmin |
| what is the trade name for succinylcholine | anectine |
| what is the trade name for pancuronium bromide | pavulon |
| what is the trade name for naloxone | narcan |
| opiods are reversed using which of the follwing | narcan |
| which medication is given to treat febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction to incompatible blood | antipyretics |
| why might lidocaine be administered in the management of cardiac arrest | to treat ventricular arrhythmias |
| which one of the following does not apply to malignant hyperthermia | MH is triggered by succinylcholine and nitrous oxide |
| which one of the following is not one of the treatment steps for MH | slow ventilation |
| measurement of inspired and expired carbon dioxide concentrations is which one of the following terms | capnography |
| rapid iv administration of a concentrated dose of medication is known as | bolus |
| cardiac arrhythmias are often observed in surgical patients with imbalances of what electrolyte | potassium |
| which medication is administered intravenously for anaphylaxis when it occurs under general anesthesia | dopamine |
| which one of the following agents may be used as a bronchodilator | epinephrine |
| which one of the following is a late sign of MH | pyrexia |
| which one of the following medications must be reconstituted before administering | dantrolene sodium |
| which medication would be used to manage laryngospasm with oxygen desaturation after extubation | anectine |
| in a hemolytic transfusion reaction which agent would be used to treat hypotension | mannitol |
| which drug is useful in treating bronchospasm | albuterol |
| the first line medications used to treat cardiac arrest are | amiodarone and epinephrine |
| the first line treatment for ventricular fibrillation are | lidocaine and amiodarone |
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Kamrine
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