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CT Path Midterm


Which type of disease has a quick onset and lasts a short period of time? A. Idiopathic B. Iatrogenic C. Acute D. Chronic A
A group of signs and symptoms that characterize a specific abnormality is known as: A. a syndrome B. a pathogenesis C. epidemiology D. a prognosis B
_____ is the study of the cause of a disease. A. Epidemiology B. Pathogenesis C. Morbidity D. Etiology B
_____ is the study of disease. A. Iatrogenic B. Pathology C. Pathogenesis D. Epidemiology B
_____ reaction is the term used to describe the skin erythema that may occur from radiation treatment of a neoplasm. A. Pathogenesis B. Etiology C. Iatrogenic D. Inflammation C
An objective manifestation is known as a _____, while a patient’s perception is known as a _____. A. syndrome/symptom B. sign/syndrome C. sign/symptom D. symptom/sign C
A disease that does not produce symptoms, especially in the early stages, is termed: A. symptom B. asymptomatic C. syndrome D. prognosis B
Multiple sclerosis is considered a(n) _____ condition. A. acute B. syndrome C. chronic D. malignant C
The name of a disease an individual is believed to have is known as the_____. A. prognosis B. symptom C. diagnosis D. syndrome C
The investigation of disease in large groups is called: A. etiology B. epidemiology C. morbidity rate D. prognosis B
Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change? A. Increase B. Decrease C. No change A
Anencephaly requires what type of technical factor change? A. Increase B. Decrease C. No change C
Simple bone cyst requires what type of technical factor change? A. Increase B. Decrease C. No change B
This type of arthritis generally occurs between 30 and 40 years of age. A. Acute arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Both types B
This type of arthritis may be classified as a degenerative disease. A. Acute arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Both types C
The modality of choice for demonstrating vertebral fractures or other bony anomalies is: A. radiography B. CT C. MRI D. nuclear medicine B
Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral: A. Pedicle B. Lamina C. spinous process D. pars interarticularis D
The condition that causes a forward slippage of the vertebral column off a vertebra because of spondylolysis is known as: A. Kyphosis B. Lordosis C. Spondylolisthesis D. herniated nucleus pulposis (HNP) C
A common radiographic finding with patients suffering from whiplash is: A. narrowed disk spaces B. loss of lordosis C. Subluxation D. erosion of vertebral body B
The most common imaging modality to assess lower back pain is: A. Radiography B. CT C. MRI D. nuclear medicine A
To decrease patient dose while performing computed chest radiography, which technical factors can be increased? A. kVp B. mA C. Exposure time D. Focal spot size A
Which imaging modality is preferred when evaluating pulmonary adenopathy? A. Radiography B. CT C. MRI D. Nuclear medicine B
Which imaging modality can distinguish between benign and malignant pulmonary lesions because it captures information regarding metabolic activity? A. Radiography B. CT C. MRI D. PET D
What is the primary method of diagnosing pulmonary tuberculosis? A. Chest radiography B. CT scan C. Bronchoscopy D. Intradermal Mantoux test A
Which of the following is not a primary type of pneumoconiosis? A. Silicosis B. Anthracosis C. Histoplasmosis D. Asbestosis C
What is the procedure performed under sonographic guidance that removes excess fluids from the pleural cavity? A. Bronchoscopy B. Bronchography C. Thoracocentesis D. Paracentesis C
Croup is a(n): a. Viral infection of the subglottic region of the trachea b. Infection involving the pleural lining of the lung c. Bronchial spasm narrowing the bronchi d. Trapping of air in the alveolar sacs A
Rod-shaped bacteria that have a waxy coat permitting existence outside the host for long periods cause: a. Bacterial pneumonia b. Chronic bronchitis c. Tuberculosis d. Bronchopneumonia C
Infected fluid in the pleural cavity is a(n): a. Pleural effusion b. Empyema c. Lung abscess d. Atelectasis B
What imaging modality uses fiberoptics to visualize the GI tract and other organs? A. Radiography B. Virtual CT colonoscopy C. Endoscopy D. Nuclear medicine C
What diagnostic procedure can identify the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacterial infection in the stomach? A. Upper GI B. CT of the abdomen C. Sonography of the gallbladder D. Nuclear medicine urea breath test D
Which imaging procedure is used to detect esophageal carcinoma? a. CT b. NM c. US d. Double-contrast barium swallow D
Which imaging procedure is used to demonstrate dilated veins in the walls of the esophagus? a. Upper GI b. Barium enema c. MRI d. Double-contrast barium swallow D
Which imaging modality is used to stage gastric carcinoma? a. Ultrasound b. Upper GI series c. CT d. MRI C
Which type of gallstone is more prevalent in the United States? a. Cholesterol b. Pigment c. Mixed cholesterol and calcium carbonate d. None of these. Gallstones are rare in the United States. A
What is the current imaging modality of choice for the gallbladder? a. Nuclear medicine b. Ultrasound c. Radiography d. CT B
Which imaging modality has almost 100% accuracy for the detection of cholelithiasis? A. Radiography B. Computed tomography C. Sonography D. Nuclear medicine C
The radiographic appearance of a porcelain gallbladder is often an indication of: A. biliary obstruction B. liver cirrhosis C. gallbladder carcinoma D. jaundice C
What imaging procedure visualizes the biliary tree and main pancreatic duct with a fiberoptic endoscope passed through the duodenum? A. PTC B. ERCP C. OCG D. T-tube cholangiogram B
What imaging modality provides a noninvasive method of evaluating hepatic function as well as hepatic and splenic perfusion? A. Single photon emission computed tomography B. Sonography C. Spiral computed tomography D. Magnetic resonance imaging A
Signs or symptoms associated with hepatocellular carcinoma include: A. RUQ pain B. increased jaundice C. hepatomegaly D. all of the above are signs and/or symptoms of hepatocellular carcinoma D
If a patient has hepatitis B, he or she is suffering from a(n) _____ condition. A. airborne B. bacterial C. traction D. viral D
The yellowish skin discoloration of jaundice is a result of: C. the presence of bilirubin in the bloodstream
Which enzyme begins to autodigest the pancreas with pancreatitis? A. CCK B. Pepsin C. Trypsin D. Glutin C
What type of reaction can occur following the injection of iodinated contrast media? A. Anaphylactic reaction B. Neurogenic shock C. Hypovolemic shock D. Cardiogenic shock A
Why is it important for the radiographer to check BUN and creatinine levels prior to the injection of iodinated contrast media? B. To determine if the patient has uremia C. To determine if the patient has renal failure C
Which imaging modality is most likely to be utilized when assessing a potential kidney donor? A. Radiography B. Sonography C. Computed tomography D. Renal angiography D
What type of renal pathology is categorized as either autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant? A. Bladder diverticula B. Ureterocele C. Polycystic kidney D. Horseshoe kidney C
The radiographic appearance of dilated renal pelvis and calyces indicates what pathology? A. Polycystic kidney B. Hydronephrosis C. Urinary tract infection D. Glomerulonephritis B
What imaging modality is preferred to assess a Wilms’ tumor? A. IVU B. Sonography C. Computed tomography D. Nuclear medicine C
What is the chief symptom of bladder carcinoma? A. Abdominal mass B. Polyuria C. Vesicoureteral reflux D. Painless hematuria D
Created by: RT2017