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Midterm
Chapters 1,2,3,7,11, & 12
| Progesterone was the second reliable birth control drug. | False |
| In 1884, Carl Koller, a viennese surgeon, discovered many uses for the coca leaves. | True |
| Data is information that is entered and stored in a storage house. | False |
| in 1981, was the first documented case of AIDS. | True |
| The 1938 Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act was enacted in response to the fatal poisoning of 107 people by an untested drug. | True |
| In Canada, drug regulation is performed by the Food and Drug Administration. | False |
| FDA approval is often more than 10 years. | True |
| Synthetic is a chemical created by combining simpler chemicals into a new chemical into a new chemical not found in nature. | True |
| Pharmaceutics is being of or about material. | False |
| Antitoxins are substances that act against a toxin in the body. | True |
| Quinine is made from the bark of the: | Peruvian Cinchona Tree |
| What chemicals are produced by the body that regulates body functions and processes? | hormones |
| Cocaine was the first effective, what? | local anesthetic |
| The study of drugs, their properties, uses, applications, and effect is called | pharmacology |
| Quinine is also referred to as | Jesuit's Powder |
| The foxglove plant contains a drug that is used to treat | heart disease |
| What was the first drug to be used successfully in the treatment of malaria? | Quinine |
| Which inactive substances, not real medications, are administered to give the patient the impression of receiving and effective medication. | placebos |
| The 1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendment | Requires drug manufactures to provide proof of safety and effectiveness before marketing a drug |
| The 1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment | defines which drugs require a prescription |
| A legend drug is any drug that requires a | prescription |
| The 1970 Controlled Substances Act (CSA) | classifies 5 level of controlled substances that have potential for abuse |
| Individuals in health care who are given a basic level of training designed to help them are known as | technicians |
| In each state, departments of professional regulation or [BLANK] are responsible for licensing all prescribes and dispensers. | state boards |
| Licensed pharmacists are legally responsible for the work of | pharmacy technicians |
| What individuals may or may not do in their jobs in know as the | scope of practice |
| The 1996 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) makes health-care providers responsible for maintaining the [BLANK] of patient information. | privacy and security |
| To renew their certification, CPhT's must complete | 20 contact hours of pharmacy related continuing education |
| Personal inventory is an assessment of one's characteristics, skills, [BLANK] etc. | qualities |
| The CPhT credential must be renewed every [BLANK] years. | 2 |
| What medication was first introduced in 1960? | birth control pill |
| In 2006, this medication was marketed as the first medication to target a cause of cancer. | gardasil |
| This is what an individual may or may not do in their jobs. | scope of practice |
| Pharmacy technicians perform such tasks as filling prescriptions, packaging doses, performing inventory, and [BLANK]. | keeping records |
| Drugs in DEA schedule 1 have | no accepted medical use |
| Which agencies laws provide a foundation for the state laws that govern pharmacy practice | Federal Law |
| Like pharmacists, most pharmacy technicians are employed in community [BLANK] and [BLANK]. | pharmacies/hospitals |
| A prescription drug is one that has been ordered or prescribed by a physician or other [BLANK] prescriber to treat a patient. | licensed |
| The Joint Commission (TJC) is an independent, non-profit organization that [BLANK] and [BLANK] for nearly 20,000 hospitals. | establishes standards/monitors compliance |
| The DEA was established in 1973 as part of the [BLANK] of 1970. | Control Substance Act |
| The 2005 Combact Methamphetamine Epidemic Act, establishes strict control on OTC sales of | pseudoephedrine |
| Around 400 B.C., medicine was developed with a more scientific approach [BLANK]. | based on careful observation |
| The 1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) requires pharmacist to offer [BLANK] to medicaid patients regarding medications. | counseling |
| What drugs have the ability to mass produce and the advantage of cost effectiveness? | synthetic drugs |
| Federal laws provide a foundation for the [BLANK] that govern pharmacy practice. | state laws |
| Unclear or confusing prescription abbreviations are a common [BLANK] of [BLANK]. | cause/errors |
| In 1928, Alexander Fleming discovered a fungus that produces a chemical that kills bacteria, he named the chemical [BLANK]. | penicillin |
| Protected Health Information (PHI) is any information that could be used to [BLANK] individual or their health history. | identify |
| Medication Therapy Management services provide patients with a look at all the [BLANK] they are taking. | medications |
| An antibiotic is a substance that harms or kills [BLANK] like bacteria and fungi. | microorganisms |
| Over the counter medications do require a prescription and may not be filled without one. | False |
| A prescription is an instruction from a surgical practitioner that authorizes a patient to be issued a drug or device. | False |
| Drugs produce either a desired or undesired effects in the body. | True |
| When a DUR screen appears, the nurse manager should be notified immediately. | False |
| Only a pharmacists can receive a telephone request for a new prescription. | True |
| A technician may council a patient on OTC medications only. | False |
| Tall man lettering has been encouraged by the FDA, ISMP, and the TJC to help distinguish soundalike, look-alike medications. | True |
| The pharmacist should be consulted on all OTC and Scheduled II prescriptions. | True |
| An agonist are drugs that band with receptors, but do not activate them. | False |
| The location where an administered drug produces an effect is called the site of action. | True |
| Prescriptions are governed by federal and state rules and regulations, the primary purpose of these rules and regulations is to | provide minimal standards of practice |
| When most drugs produce an effect, they are interacting at a [BLANK] level with [BLANK] material. | molecular, cellular |
| The primary health care professionals allowed to write prescriptions include all of the following EXCEPT: | pharmacists |
| An example of a Schedule II medication is | a narcotic pain reliever |
| DAW is a code specifying that the brand name drug, rather than its generic equivalent, [BLANK]. | is to be dispensed |
| Which of the following tasks is not the role of the pharmacy technician? | Performing final label and product check. |
| When the directions for a prescription are unclear, the pharmacy technician should | ask the pharmacist for clarification |
| An example of an abbreviation used for a time of administration would be: | ac |
| A pharmacy technician may legally receive a verbal or telephone prescription order for a new prescription from a physician, once the physician has been correctly identified. | this a false statement |
| "Sig" is an abbreviation for the Latin word Signa which means | "to write" |
| Prescription errors can be prevented by | the pharmacists, the technician, and computer alerts |
| An example of an abbreviation used for a medication measurement would be: | ss |
| What is the result of four simultaneously occurring processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. | blood concentration |
| Biological membranes are complex structures composed of | lipids and proteins |
| If a prescription reads: ii gtt od tid, it is intended for use in | the eye |
| Which is a variable that influences human variability and differences in response to medications? | age, genetics, and weight |
| Some drugs given to children require a higher than normal adult dose. Why? | Children metabolize some drugs faster than adults. |
| What is the nature of a drug idiosyncrasy? | it is an unexpected response to medication. |
| Which of the following describes an antidote? | A drug that antagonizes the toxic effect of another drug |
| If two drugs are taken together and one of them intensifies the action of the other, what type of drug interaction has occurred? | synergism |
| It indicates the direction for use and the administration route | signa |
| Schedule II drugs | drugs that have a high potential for abuse |
| Drugs that bind with receptors but do not activate them | antagonist |
| Auxiliary labels | these provide specific warnings, food or medications to avoid for potential side effects |
| Involves the movement of a drug within the body | distribution |
| Formulary | a list approved by the insurance provider |
| This contains a single dose of medication | unit dose package |
| aa | this refers to "of each"; measurement |
| Dispense as written | DAW |
| Pharmaceutical equivalent | drug products that contain identical amounts of the same active ingredient |
| This provides information for the patient regarding the dispensed medication and how to take it | labels |
| Metabolism | refers to the body's process of transforming drugs |
| Capable of associating with or absorbing water | hydrophilic |
| DUR | an alert or message generated by the pharmacy or insurance company notifying the pharmacist of a potential drug safety or payment concern |
| The cellular material located at the site of action that interacts with the drug | receptor |
| SC, subc, subq | subcutaneous; route of administration |
| Is the length of time a prescribed quantity of medication will last | days supply |
| Hydrophobic | water repelling |
| Medications that do not require a prescription | OTC |
| Therapeutic equivalent | pharmaceutical equivalent that produces the same effect |
| ad | right ear; route of administration |
| au | each ear; route of administration |
| od | right eye; route of administration |
| SL | sublingually, under the tongue; route of administration |
| pv | vaginally, into the vagina; route of administration |
| SR, XR, XL | slow/extended release; dosage form |
| ac | before food; before meals, timing of adminstration |
| pc | after food; after meals, timing of adminstration |
| ss | one-half; measurement |
| gtt | drop; measurement |
| qs, qs ad | add sufficient quantity to make; measurement |
| UD | as directed |
| Faxing or telephoning refill and clarification request to prescribers is who's role? | pharmacy technician's |
| What does ADME stand for? | absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. |
| What is Half-life? | the amount of time it takes for the blood concentration of a drug to decline to one-half an initial value. |
| Absorption | the movement of a drug from the dosage formulation into the blood. |
| Bioequivalency | the comparison of bioavailability between two dosage forms. |
| Provides information on the therapeutic equivalence of brand and generic drugs. | The "Orange Book" |
| Pharmacogenomics | a field of study that defines the hereditary basis of the individual differences in the ADME processes. |
| ADR | adverse drug reaction - an unintended side effect of a medication that is negative or in some way injurious to a patient's health. |
| Anaphylactic shock | a potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction producing sever respiratory distress and cardiovascular collapse. |
| Drug resistance | is the reduction in effectiveness of a antimicrobial, anthelmintic, or antineoplastic drug. |
| Acute viral hepatitis | an inflammatory condition of the liver caused by viruses. |
| Cirrhosis | a chronic liver disease causing loss of function. |
| Hyperthyroidism | thyroid hormone secretions are above normal; overactive thyroid. |
| Hypothyroidism | thyroid hormone secretions are below normal; underactive thyroid. |
| Potentiation | when one drug with no inherent activity of it's own increases the activity of another drug that produces an effect. |
| Drug-Diet Interaction | when elements of ingested nutrients interact with a drug and this affects the disposition of the drug. |
Created by:
daniesha23
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