Busy. Please wait.

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
We do not share your email address with others. It is only used to allow you to reset your password. For details read our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.

Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
Don't know
remaining cards
To flip the current card, click it or press the Spacebar key.  To move the current card to one of the three colored boxes, click on the box.  You may also press the UP ARROW key to move the card to the "Know" box, the DOWN ARROW key to move the card to the "Don't know" box, or the RIGHT ARROW key to move the card to the Remaining box.  You may also click on the card displayed in any of the three boxes to bring that card back to the center.

Pass complete!

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
restart all cards
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

Pharmacology Final


zyrtec cetirizine
Zoloft sertraline
synthroid levothroxine
propulsid cisapride
procardia XL nifedipine
neurontin gabapentin
lasix furosemide
glucophage metformin
dilantin phenytonin
diflucan fluconazole
cardizem CD diltiazem
norvasc amlodipine
provera medroxyprogesterone
Xanax alprazolam
Lanoxin digoxin
sumycin tetracycline
bactroban mupirocin
BuSpar Buspirone
Zantac ranitidine
Cozaar losartan
aphthasol amlexanox
SingulAir montelukast
Lescol lovastatin
Coumadin warfarin
Biaxin clarithromycin
the federal trade commission does not allow false advertising of foods, OTC drugs and... cosmetics
a drug is first identified by its... chemical name
an ______ has an affinity for a receptor, combines with that receptor and produces an effect agonist
which route of administration is an injection in the gluteal mass or deltoid region? intramuscular route
what is defined as the amount of time that passes from the concentration of a drug to fall to one half of its blood level at any time? half life
name one factor that may alter drug effects environmental
tinnitus and hyperthermia are toxic reactions to high doses of... aspirin
which allergic reaction classification is demonstrated by symptoms of bronchospasm and laryngeal edema? type I
which route of administration may be used for the treatment of some forms of meningitis? intrathecal
in most states, before a dentist can legally write a prescription for a patient, what 2 criteria must be met? patient of record must have a dental problem
before this law, OTC mixtures could contain opium and cocaine Harrison Narcotic Act
when two drug formulations produce similar concentrations in _______ they are called biologically equivalent blood and tissue
what is another name for a trade name? brand name
what are the four main components of pharmacokinetics? absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
serum sickness is an example of a type what allergic reaction? type 3
what is phase IV in Human studies of drugs involves postmarketing surveillance
what is the term for a genetically related abnormal drug response? idiosyncratic reaction
define the term ionic bond two opposite charges are attracted to each other
name one unit in the apothecary system grain, scruple, ounce, pound, dram
What goes in the superscription? patient's name, address, and age date, the symbol Rx
What goes in the inscription? name of the drug, dose form, and the amount
what goes in the subscription? directions to the pharmacist
what goes in the transcription? signature directions to the patient
a or a before
ac before meals
bid twice a day
c with
cap capsule
d day
disp dispense
gm gram
gr grain
gtt drop
h hour
hs at bedtime
p after
pc after meals
PO by mouth
prn as required, if needed
q every
qid 4 times a day
s without
sig write (label)
ss one half
stat immediately (now)
tab tablet
tid three times a day
ud as directed
a drug that acts at a location where norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released is called adrenergic
cholinergic effects on the eye include... myosis and cycloplegia
what are adverse reactions of cholinergic agents when they are ingested in large doses? salivation and lacrimation urination and defecation
uses of anticholinergic agents do not include... congestive heart failure
gluconeogenesis is defined as.... the formation of glucose from protein or fat
uses of sympatheomimetic agents with respect to vasoconstriction include... prolonged action hemostasis and decongestion
what are functions of the autonomic nervous system? blood pressure, heart rate, GI motility
what describes Mydriasis? dilation of pupil size
what body part mainly releases epinephrine and some norepinephrine? adrenal medulla
phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine have been used in... the treatment of Raynaud's and in the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma
competitive neuromuscular blockers such as curare can cause... paralysis of the small facial muscles and fingers loss of diaphragmatic breathing
what is false regarding nicotine? is not addicting
the autonomic nervous system is made of the... sympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system
beta adrenergic blocking agents can be used in the treatment of migraine headache prophylaxis....(T/F) true
Dantrolene is a drug use for the treatment of... malignant hyperthermia
succinylcholine when used with halothane can precipitate... malignant hyperthermia
B-1 receptors on the heart have.... a postive chronotropic effect
define efferent
what is cranial nerve VII called? facial nerve
which part of the ANS conserves body processes? parasympathetic nervous system
what are symptoms of pheochromocytoma? tremors abdominal cramps
what are ways to counteract xerostomia in dry mouth patients? autonomic drugs, frequent sips of water, biotin mouth rinse
MBD is an acronym for
BPH is an acronym for benign prostatic hypertrophy
dipivefrin is used in the treatment of... glaucoma
phenylephrine has been used in nose sprays to.... decongest
the perception component of pain is... the physical component of pain and involves the message of pain that is carried through the nerves to the cortex
nonopioids are also known as peripheral
what is false with respect to aspirin? it can be applied topically to the oral mucosa
near term high dose aspirin can lead to.. prolonged gestation delayed parturition increased risk of hemorrhage in the mother and newborn
what is not a symptom of salicylism? appendicitis
aspirin can interfere with the clearance of what medications and cause subsequent bone marrow suppression? methotrexate
NSAIDS inhibit ______ resulting in the decreased production of prostaglandin synthesis cyclooxygenase
what are oral adverse effects of NSAID ulcerative stomatitis
what due interactions with NSAIDS is incorrect? may decrease the effect of digoxin
codeine and detromethorphan are considered to be.... antitussives
what is true with respect to opioids? they are useful in the treatment of diarrhea
what are some symptoms of withdrawal? tachycardia, rhinorrea, goose flesh, perspiration, lacrimation
what is the prototype opioid agonist? morphine
what is used for the maintenance of the opioid free state in detoxified formally opioid dependent patients? naltrexone
most dental pain can be managed with the use of... NSAIDS
naloxone is the drug of choice for... opioid overdose
what are two shopper symptoms? cancels dental appointments because of business trips or going out of town goes to several different dental offices because they "don't understand"
opium is derived from the.... poppy plant
what does MAO stand for?
an excess of PG in the uterine wall producing painful contractions is known as... dismenorrhea
what is an NSAID dosed on an 8-12 hour schedule Naproxen and Naproxen sodium
alcoholics should avoid... acetaminophen
urate crystals are also known as tophi
what types of polyps are found in the aspirin hypersensitivity triad? nasal polyps
hepatotoxicity of acetaminophen is potentiated by the use of barbiturates, carbamazepine, phenytoin and... rifampin
What best describes the word bactericidal? the ability to kill bacteria the effect is irreversible
what is the best definition of the word iatrogenic? practitioner can cause infection
what dental procedure is infective endocarditis prophylaxis NOT recommended? bleeding from trauma to the lips taking dental radiographs shedding of deciduous teeth
what cardiac conditions require prophylaxis with dental procedures prosthetic cardiac valve congenital heart disease cardiac transplantation recipients who develop cardiac valvulopathy
vitamin K are... oral coagulants so interfering with the production of vitamin K could increase the anticoagulant effect
the use of clindamycin is linked with pseudomembranous colitis
what is the reason for antibiotic failure? patient compliance wrong antibiotic poor debridement
what is considered an adverse reaction of vancomycin? red man syndrome
how long is nystatin used for it to be effective? 10-14 days or for 48 hours after symptoms have subsided and cultures have returned negative
amino glycosides such as Kanamycin and Gentamicin have adverse reactions of ototoxicity and... nephrotoxicity
erythromycin is broken down... in the gastric fluid and therefore must be enteric coated
bactroban can be used for treatment of which condition? impetigo
neosporin is made up of.. neomycin, polymyxin, bacitracin
Diflucan is used to treat... oropharyngeal and esophageal candidiasis
photosensitivity, dizziness, vertigo, glossitis and chelitis are all adverse reactions to tetracyclines
define antiviral suppress or retard the growth and multiplication of a virus
the most common fungus in the oral cavity is... candida albicans
where are tetracyclines stored? in the dentin and enamel of unerupted teeth
what is one oral adverse reaction to tongue in the use of tetracycline brown tongue
name one oral reaction of the tongue in the use of metronidazole black furry tongue
what are the anti tuberculosis drugs? Rifampin, INH, Pyrazinamide, ethambutol
erythromycin increases the serum levels of theophylline, digoxin, triazolam, warfarin, carbamazepine and... cyclosporine
Griseofulvin is an anti fungal agent used to treat ringworm of the scalp
zidovudine (AZT) is a medication used to treat... AIDS
acyclovir is an.. antiviral used to treat herpes simplex
an adverse reaction of the quinolines is a rupture of the.. achilles tendon
what is one antibiotic agent in the lecture listed for non dental use vancomycin
minocycline can cause a _____ pigmentation of the mandibular and maxillary alveolar pne and hard palate black
what antibiotics can cause cardiac arrhythmias cisapride and clarithromycin
what is herpetic whitlow? a prulent lesion which turns into an abbess at the bulbous long end of a finger
reduction of simple anxiety and activity occurs with... a small dose of a sedative hypnotic
what has shown an improvement in sleep latency? rozerem
benzodiazepines facilitate _____ mediated transmission GABA
the use of benzodiazepines is contraindicated in... narrow angle glauoma
what is NOT a dental effect noted with the bezodiazepines herpes labialis
what is in FDA category X? triazolam
Benzodiazepines may increase the effect of phenytoin, digoxin and... probenecid
chronic long term use of barbiturates may lead to... progressive depression psychologic dependence physical dependence
what can be masked with flavored syrup? chloral hydrate
what drug may be used for the treatment of spinal cord injuries, cerebral palsy, multiple sclerosis and malignant hyperthermia? dantrolene
long acting barbiturates may be used fo epilepsy
what are some considerations for management of the dental patent taking benzodiazepines all consent forms must be signed prior to taking medication patient must have a ride to and from the office do not drink alcohol or take opioids before taking benzodiazepines
what are 5 symptoms of sloppy infant syndrome hypoactivity hypothermia hypotonia feeding problems apnea
what are 5 ways to manage sleep disirders get out of bed if you can't fall asleep after 30 minutes drink a warm glass of milk, do not drink caffeine before bed try to keep regular sleep schedule do not smoke before bed
what is a dermatologic effect of benzodiazepines rash
what is the side effect of first trimeter use of benzodiazepines? cleft lip or palate
what is one contraindication of the use of barbiturates family history of parphyria
what is one rationale in the use of analgesic sedative combintations patient may need both a analgesic and a sedative
what is the benzodiazepine antagonist? flumazenil
what is true regarding vitamin C? a definite role in connective tissue metabolism required for the formation of collagen enhances the absorption of iron
what is NOT an oral manifest ion of B1 deficiency? dysqeusia
a deficiency of which of what leaves the tongue a magenta red color? riboflavin
Wernicke's encephalopathy is a severe deficiency of Thiamine
a deficiency of this vitamin causes the tongue to appear smooth and slightly edematous, painful and purplish vitamin B6
the use of which of the following several months before conception and in pregnancy prevent neural tube defects? folic acid
deficiency of which of the following can be induced by eating large quantities of eft white with symptoms of loss of appetite, mental depression and hypersthesia of skin biotin
which of the following has a deficiency characterized by nyctalopia, xeropthalmia and kertomalacia? vitamin A
which of the following is essential for the hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II,VII, IX, and X vitamin K
the basic function of this mineral involves the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide from one tissue to another iron
what is NOT routine treatment manage of ANUG biopsy
dry socket is also known as.. alveolar osteitis
long term exposure to the sun is a possible cause of... actinic cheilitis
what is NOT associated with gingival enlargement benadryl
what is noted in acute toxicity of fluoride profuse salivation and black stools
which of the following is a natural product found in plants and inhibits biofilm attachment to the teeth xylitol
what has adverse effects of tooth staining, bitter taste, taste alteration, and increased calculus formation chlorhexidine
what are non pharmacologic therapies in the prevention of dental caries? eat more products which stimulate saliva and are high in protein
what is added to mouth rinses to decrease the number of microbes? benzoic acid
pilocarpine is... a medication used to treat xerostomia
for children under 2 years of age, clean teeth with soft cloth and massage the gums (T/F) true
floss teeth at least once a day (T/F) true
hormonal changes during pregnancy can cause gingivitis (T/F) true
the 0.2% form of chlorhexidine is used to kill S. mutans bacteria (T/F) true
fluoride gels are applied with toothbrush for 10 minutes or placed in a custom filled tray (T/F) false
What are the indications for dental treatment? stable CHF
what are the uses for digoxin? treatment of CHF, atrial arrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
what are the oral side effects related to the use of digoxin? increased salivation
tetracycline and ______ can increase digoxin levels in 10% of patients erythromycin
what is true regarding amyl nitrate volatile, no advantage for its use over nitroglycerin, not frequently used
severe headaches, flushing, hypotension, lightheadedness and syncope are adverse reactions to... nitroglycerin
diziness, weakness, constipation, hypotension, dysgeusia and gingival enlargement are adverse reactions to calcium channel blockers
what is step II in the stepped care regimen of hypertension therapy
what is step I in the stepped care regiment of hypertension life style changes
which class of hypertension must be treated aggressively with antihypertensive agents malignant
losartan is considered the prototype.... angiotension II receptor antagonist
the most commonly used antihyperlipidemics are... HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
what is not true when treating a patient taking warfarin oral hygiene with sub gingival calculus removal can produce ageusia
in the management of the dental patient taking hypertensives.... avoid dental agents that add to side effects such as opiods
what must you avoid in the dental patient taking nitroglycerin like agents provide analgesic if headache occurs watch for syncope especially if rising avoid heat and moisture for proper storage
what antihypertensive group is used for the treatment of an enlarged prostate alpha 1 adrenergic blocking agents
the centrally acting antihypertensive used as the drug of choice for a pregnant hypertensive women is... hydralazine
NSAIAs can decrease the antihypertensive effect of... alpha 1 blockers angiotensin II receptor anatgonists ACE inhibitors
what are the clot busters? streptokinase
what are indicated for intermittent claudication pentoxyfylline
if an NSAIA is to be used in a patient taking warfarin what can be prescribed to the patient ibuprofen or naproxen
NSAIAs can decrease the antihypertensive effect of... alpha 1 blockers angiotensin II receptor antagpnists ACE inhibitors
if an antibiotic is to be used with warfarin what has the greatest effect on changing warfarin's anticoagulant action? erythromycin and metronidazole
define automaticity intrinsic rthym of the heart heart can regulate its own beat
what is one clot buster streptokinase
what is one oral adverse effect of oral anticoagulants petchia on the oral hard palate
what are the characteristics of absence seizures? breit loss of consciousness with little movement
what characterizes grand map seizures? urination, apnea and an epileptic cry may be present
exfoliative dermatitis, erythma multiforme and drug induced lupus are... idosyncratic reactions to anticonvulsants
carbamazepine can be used to treat... convulsions, trigeminal neuralgia, bipolar depression and chronic pain
the pediatric dosage form of _______ has 63% sugar in it carbamazepine
the effect of carbamazepine may be increased by its use with INH
the most common barbiturate used in the treatment of epilepsy is... phenobarbital
what is NOT part of the fetal hydantonin syndrome? thinning of the facial structures
ethosuxamide is the drug of choice for the treatment of... absence sizures
as an adjunctive agent to treat absence seizures its oral effects include increased salivation, coated tongue, xerostomia and sore gums clonazepam
which precautions to be observed in the treatment of patients with mental disorders? compliance, communication, suicidal tendencies
irreversible dyskinesia of the tongue, lips, face and jaw is called tardive dyskinesia
what is true with respect to the use of tricyclic antidepressants? 10% of the patients exhibit fine tremors
prozac (fluoxetine) was was the first member of which group serotonin specific reuptake inhibitors
what can be used as an adjunctive in tobacco cessation? wellbutrin
MAO inhibitors may interact with amphetamines as well as foods and lead to... hypertensive crisis
in the management of the dental patient taking antipsychotic agents what is a consideration check for xerostomia tardive dyskinesia may make oral hygiene more difficult epinephrine can be safely used in dental local anesthetic
what is a consideration in dental management of the patient taking anticonvulsant agents remove hands and dental instruments from mouth turn head to the side use additional CNS depressants cautiously
some ______ can decrease the clearance of lithium NSAIAs
gingival enlargement is seen in ____% of all chronic users of phenytoin 50
what are ways to manage phenytoin induced gingival enlargement gingectomy, change medications, improve oral health
what is one symptom seen in acute toxicity of tricyclic antidepresstans? hypertensive crisis
what is the prototype antipsychotic? phenotonin
what is a blood dyscrasias associated with Felbamate? aplastic anemia
carbamazepine can decrease the effect of... doxycyline
deloratidine (Clarinex) has the following side effects... GI disturbance
what is a mast cell stabilizer? astelin
histamine is useful in the diagnosis of... pheochromocytoma
what are the signs of toxicity with antihistamine use death from coma with CV and respiratory collapse
what is true with respect to the use of antihistamines? can be used for vomiting induced by radiation therapy
what can be used by injection to provide some local anesthesia? benadryl
erythromycin and ketoconazole ____ the level of fexofenadine increase
fexofenadine is also known as allegra
kinins aid in the mediation of pulpal pain
what substance is an example of a prostaglandin antagonist? indomethacin
what is responsible for stimulating gastric acid secretion? H-2 receptors
when an allergic reaction occurs the _____ degranulate and histamine is released mast cells
what is NOT usually seen in an anaphylactic reaction hypertension
what is NOT an H-1 receptor blocking effect bronchodilation
the drug of choice for anaphylaxis is... parenteral epinephrine
side effects of viral infections and drowsiness are noted in the use of allegra
which of the following was foun to cause cardiac arrhythemias terfenadine
cimeidine is used for the treatment of GI problems
PGEs stimulate the release of GH, TSH, ACTH
prostacyclin produced by blood vessel walls, inhibits platelet aggregation
prostaglandin ____ and prostaglandin ___ have an oxytocic action E and F
____ can cause secretion in the salivary glands and increases sodium and water excretion from the kidney Substance P
what are dental hygiene considerations in the management of patients using antihistamines marked drowsiness may occur don't use alcohol with antihistamines remind patients caffeine may increase xerostomia
what is NOT a pharmacologic effect of a glucocorticoid? increased sodium retention
what is NOT a characteristic of Cushing's syndrome syncope and adrenal supression
dental uses of corticosteroids do NOT include... herpes labialis
management of the dental patient taking steroids one must give salicylates and NSAIAs with caution check blood pressure obtain good anesthesia
adrenocorticoids are not secreted by... the adrenal cortex
what is NOT a characteristic of hypopituitarism increased metabolism
what is used to treat prolactin secreting adenomas, acromegaly and Parkinson's disease bromocriptine
what is NOT considered a systemic complication of diabetes cystic fibrosis
what is used to treat hypoglycemia in the early stages when the patient is awake fruit juice, cake icing, glucose gel
what is the prototype drug of the sulfonylureas glyburide
what drug classification slows down breakdown of ingested fat so that postprandial hyperglycemia is reduced acarbose
cloesevelam is a new bile acid sequestrate
what is secreted primarily by the ovaries but also by the testes and placenta estrogens
what is associated with estrogenic effects on the oral tissues puberty gingivitis
estrogens may be used to treat menstrual disturbances
what is an intraoral side effect of an oral contraceptive? gingivits
the use of androgenic steroids in females can cause... virilization
what hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary? vasopressin and oxytocin
beta blockers are used to treat which of the following conditions encountered in hyperthyroidism tachycardia
Iodide in high concentrations can cause... sialadenitis
what is the rule of teo patient taking 20 mg daily for more than 2 weeks, 2 years after dental treatment
what are characteristics of hyperpituitarism gigantism, large teeth, shedding of teeth
what is another name for toxic nodular goiter plumber's disease
androgenic steroids are classified as schedule ____drug 3
what is danazol? treatment of endrometriosis and breast fibrosis
antineoplastic drugs are... designed to treat malignancies used to manage RA, and psoriasis
which of the following is NOT of the reproductive cycle of a cell K phase
what is NOT classified of antineoplastic agents antihistamines
what are adverse dermatologic effects of antineoplastic drugs exfoliative dermatitis
what is considered to be environmental carcinogens alflatoxins, PCBs from transformers, PCBs from transformers, benzene
what are intraoral adverse effects of antineoplastic drugs xerostomia, taste alteration, gingival bleeding, stomatitis
what is de novo resistance? cells have an innate resistance
what is acquired resistance cells that acquire resistance through mutation or natural selection
adverse drug effects of the antineoplastic drugs on germ cells include... inhibition of oogenesis
according to the lecture handout, antineoplastic drugs can be used for the treatment of leukemias, choriocarcinomas, multiple myelomas and... Brickett's lymphoma
antibiotics are effective for the treatment of... solid tumors
estrogens are used in the palliative treatment of... inoperable breast cancer
plant alkaloids arrest cells in... metaphase
what is a stronger effect with an MDI than a comparable oral dose bronchodilator
dextromethorphan... suppresses the cough reflex by direct effect on the cough center
GERD symptoms are exacerbated by... eating large meals, eating less than four hours before bedtime, lying flat on the bed without pillows
what laxative classifications should one use caution in patients with renal impairment osmotic saline laxatives
what is the most common adsorbent combination in antidiarrheals is... kaopectate
what can be used to control nausea and vomiting associated with cancer chemotherapy metocloparmide and cannabinoids
COPD is divided into two groups... emphysema and chronic bronchitis
what is a side effect of albuterol? tachycardia
NSAIA-induced ulcers can be treated with misoprostol
blood levels of alcohol is higher in those taking... cimetidine
what is a systemic antacid? sodium bicarbonate
what extends through all the laters f the intestinal mucosa? Crohn's disease
symptoms of frequent urination, loss of appetite, nausea and vomiting, thirst, hypercapnia, warm and dry skin, rapid pulse and low BP are consistent with the condition of diabetic coma
symptoms of tachypnea, tachycardia anesthesia, nausea, faintness, perspiration, lightheadedness and shortness of breath are consistent with the condition of hyperventilation
symptoms of hyperpyrexia, increased sweating, hyperactivity, mental agitation, shaking, nervousness, and tachycardia are consistent with... thyroid storm
what is the drug of choice for opioid induced apnea naloxone
the treatment of parenteral hydrocortisone and oxygen by inhalation as well as fluid replacement after hospitalization is consisted for the condition of acute adrenocortical insufficiency
what is a level I or critical drug epinephrine
what is a level II drug morphine
the emergency hit should be checked every _____ to make sure drugs are not out of date three months
what is the local anesthetic of choice in pregnant women lidocaine
difficulty in lying prone and premature labor both characterize the third trimester of pregnancy
what analgesics are not recommended especially in the third trimester of pregnancy aspirin and NSAIDS
what are contraindicated during pregnancy tetracyclines
near term administration of _____ can produce respiratory depression in the infant opioids
what characterizes fetal alcohol syndrome? microcephaly and micropthalmia, short palpebral fissures and flat maxilla, hypertonia and restlessness
benzodiazepines are indicated in pregnancy for the treatment of... status epilepticus
what may increase the chance of kernicterus in the nursing infant keoconazole
large doses of what may be associated with fetal renal changes? acetaminophen
what is a known teratogen lithium
Created by: Chobchi