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Pharmacology Final
EVERYTHING
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| zyrtec | cetirizine |
| Zoloft | sertraline |
| synthroid | levothroxine |
| propulsid | cisapride |
| procardia XL | nifedipine |
| neurontin | gabapentin |
| lasix | furosemide |
| glucophage | metformin |
| dilantin | phenytonin |
| diflucan | fluconazole |
| cardizem CD | diltiazem |
| norvasc | amlodipine |
| provera | medroxyprogesterone |
| Xanax | alprazolam |
| Lanoxin | digoxin |
| sumycin | tetracycline |
| bactroban | mupirocin |
| BuSpar | Buspirone |
| Zantac | ranitidine |
| Cozaar | losartan |
| aphthasol | amlexanox |
| SingulAir | montelukast |
| Lescol | lovastatin |
| Coumadin | warfarin |
| Biaxin | clarithromycin |
| the federal trade commission does not allow false advertising of foods, OTC drugs and... | cosmetics |
| a drug is first identified by its... | chemical name |
| an ______ has an affinity for a receptor, combines with that receptor and produces an effect | agonist |
| which route of administration is an injection in the gluteal mass or deltoid region? | intramuscular route |
| what is defined as the amount of time that passes from the concentration of a drug to fall to one half of its blood level at any time? | half life |
| name one factor that may alter drug effects | environmental |
| tinnitus and hyperthermia are toxic reactions to high doses of... | aspirin |
| which allergic reaction classification is demonstrated by symptoms of bronchospasm and laryngeal edema? | type I |
| which route of administration may be used for the treatment of some forms of meningitis? | intrathecal |
| in most states, before a dentist can legally write a prescription for a patient, what 2 criteria must be met? | patient of record must have a dental problem |
| before this law, OTC mixtures could contain opium and cocaine | Harrison Narcotic Act |
| when two drug formulations produce similar concentrations in _______ they are called biologically equivalent | blood and tissue |
| what is another name for a trade name? | brand name |
| what are the four main components of pharmacokinetics? | absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion |
| serum sickness is an example of a type what allergic reaction? | type 3 |
| what is phase IV in Human studies of drugs | involves postmarketing surveillance |
| what is the term for a genetically related abnormal drug response? | idiosyncratic reaction |
| define the term ionic bond | two opposite charges are attracted to each other |
| name one unit in the apothecary system | grain, scruple, ounce, pound, dram |
| What goes in the superscription? | patient's name, address, and age date, the symbol Rx |
| What goes in the inscription? | name of the drug, dose form, and the amount |
| what goes in the subscription? | directions to the pharmacist |
| what goes in the transcription? | signature directions to the patient |
| a or a | before |
| ac | before meals |
| bid | twice a day |
| c | with |
| cap | capsule |
| d | day |
| disp | dispense |
| gm | gram |
| gr | grain |
| gtt | drop |
| h | hour |
| hs | at bedtime |
| p | after |
| pc | after meals |
| PO | by mouth |
| prn | as required, if needed |
| q | every |
| qid | 4 times a day |
| s | without |
| sig | write (label) |
| ss | one half |
| stat | immediately (now) |
| tab | tablet |
| tid | three times a day |
| ud | as directed |
| a drug that acts at a location where norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released is called | adrenergic |
| cholinergic effects on the eye include... | myosis and cycloplegia |
| what are adverse reactions of cholinergic agents when they are ingested in large doses? | salivation and lacrimation urination and defecation |
| uses of anticholinergic agents do not include... | congestive heart failure |
| gluconeogenesis is defined as.... | the formation of glucose from protein or fat |
| uses of sympatheomimetic agents with respect to vasoconstriction include... | prolonged action hemostasis and decongestion |
| what are functions of the autonomic nervous system? | blood pressure, heart rate, GI motility |
| what describes Mydriasis? | dilation of pupil size |
| what body part mainly releases epinephrine and some norepinephrine? | adrenal medulla |
| phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine have been used in... | the treatment of Raynaud's and in the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma |
| competitive neuromuscular blockers such as curare can cause... | paralysis of the small facial muscles and fingers loss of diaphragmatic breathing |
| what is false regarding nicotine? | is not addicting |
| the autonomic nervous system is made of the... | sympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system |
| beta adrenergic blocking agents can be used in the treatment of migraine headache prophylaxis....(T/F) | true |
| Dantrolene is a drug use for the treatment of... | malignant hyperthermia |
| succinylcholine when used with halothane can precipitate... | malignant hyperthermia |
| B-1 receptors on the heart have.... | a postive chronotropic effect |
| define efferent | |
| what is cranial nerve VII called? | facial nerve |
| which part of the ANS conserves body processes? | parasympathetic nervous system |
| what are symptoms of pheochromocytoma? | tremors abdominal cramps |
| what are ways to counteract xerostomia in dry mouth patients? | autonomic drugs, frequent sips of water, biotin mouth rinse |
| MBD is an acronym for | |
| BPH is an acronym for | benign prostatic hypertrophy |
| dipivefrin is used in the treatment of... | glaucoma |
| phenylephrine has been used in nose sprays to.... | decongest |
| the perception component of pain is... | the physical component of pain and involves the message of pain that is carried through the nerves to the cortex |
| nonopioids are also known as | peripheral |
| what is false with respect to aspirin? | it can be applied topically to the oral mucosa |
| near term high dose aspirin can lead to.. | prolonged gestation delayed parturition increased risk of hemorrhage in the mother and newborn |
| what is not a symptom of salicylism? | appendicitis |
| aspirin can interfere with the clearance of what medications and cause subsequent bone marrow suppression? | methotrexate |
| NSAIDS inhibit ______ resulting in the decreased production of prostaglandin synthesis | cyclooxygenase |
| what are oral adverse effects of NSAID | ulcerative stomatitis |
| what due interactions with NSAIDS is incorrect? | may decrease the effect of digoxin |
| codeine and detromethorphan are considered to be.... | antitussives |
| what is true with respect to opioids? | they are useful in the treatment of diarrhea |
| what are some symptoms of withdrawal? | tachycardia, rhinorrea, goose flesh, perspiration, lacrimation |
| what is the prototype opioid agonist? | morphine |
| what is used for the maintenance of the opioid free state in detoxified formally opioid dependent patients? | naltrexone |
| most dental pain can be managed with the use of... | NSAIDS |
| naloxone is the drug of choice for... | opioid overdose |
| what are two shopper symptoms? | cancels dental appointments because of business trips or going out of town goes to several different dental offices because they "don't understand" |
| opium is derived from the.... | poppy plant |
| what does MAO stand for? | |
| an excess of PG in the uterine wall producing painful contractions is known as... | dismenorrhea |
| what is an NSAID dosed on an 8-12 hour schedule | Naproxen and Naproxen sodium |
| alcoholics should avoid... | acetaminophen |
| urate crystals are also known as | tophi |
| what types of polyps are found in the aspirin hypersensitivity triad? | nasal polyps |
| hepatotoxicity of acetaminophen is potentiated by the use of barbiturates, carbamazepine, phenytoin and... | rifampin |
| What best describes the word bactericidal? | the ability to kill bacteria the effect is irreversible |
| what is the best definition of the word iatrogenic? | practitioner can cause infection |
| what dental procedure is infective endocarditis prophylaxis NOT recommended? | bleeding from trauma to the lips taking dental radiographs shedding of deciduous teeth |
| what cardiac conditions require prophylaxis with dental procedures | prosthetic cardiac valve congenital heart disease cardiac transplantation recipients who develop cardiac valvulopathy |
| vitamin K are... | oral coagulants so interfering with the production of vitamin K could increase the anticoagulant effect |
| the use of clindamycin is linked with | pseudomembranous colitis |
| what is the reason for antibiotic failure? | patient compliance wrong antibiotic poor debridement |
| what is considered an adverse reaction of vancomycin? | red man syndrome |
| how long is nystatin used for it to be effective? | 10-14 days or for 48 hours after symptoms have subsided and cultures have returned negative |
| amino glycosides such as Kanamycin and Gentamicin have adverse reactions of ototoxicity and... | nephrotoxicity |
| erythromycin is broken down... | in the gastric fluid and therefore must be enteric coated |
| bactroban can be used for treatment of which condition? | impetigo |
| neosporin is made up of.. | neomycin, polymyxin, bacitracin |
| Diflucan is used to treat... | oropharyngeal and esophageal candidiasis |
| photosensitivity, dizziness, vertigo, glossitis and chelitis are all adverse reactions to | tetracyclines |
| define antiviral | suppress or retard the growth and multiplication of a virus |
| the most common fungus in the oral cavity is... | candida albicans |
| where are tetracyclines stored? | in the dentin and enamel of unerupted teeth |
| what is one oral adverse reaction to tongue in the use of tetracycline | brown tongue |
| name one oral reaction of the tongue in the use of metronidazole | black furry tongue |
| what are the anti tuberculosis drugs? | Rifampin, INH, Pyrazinamide, ethambutol |
| erythromycin increases the serum levels of theophylline, digoxin, triazolam, warfarin, carbamazepine and... | cyclosporine |
| Griseofulvin is an anti fungal agent used to treat | ringworm of the scalp |
| zidovudine (AZT) is a medication used to treat... | AIDS |
| acyclovir is an.. | antiviral used to treat herpes simplex |
| an adverse reaction of the quinolines is a rupture of the.. | achilles tendon |
| what is one antibiotic agent in the lecture listed for non dental use | vancomycin |
| minocycline can cause a _____ pigmentation of the mandibular and maxillary alveolar pne and hard palate | black |
| what antibiotics can cause cardiac arrhythmias | cisapride and clarithromycin |
| what is herpetic whitlow? | a prulent lesion which turns into an abbess at the bulbous long end of a finger |
| reduction of simple anxiety and activity occurs with... | a small dose of a sedative hypnotic |
| what has shown an improvement in sleep latency? | rozerem |
| benzodiazepines facilitate _____ mediated transmission | GABA |
| the use of benzodiazepines is contraindicated in... | narrow angle glauoma |
| what is NOT a dental effect noted with the bezodiazepines | herpes labialis |
| what is in FDA category X? | triazolam |
| Benzodiazepines may increase the effect of phenytoin, digoxin and... | probenecid |
| chronic long term use of barbiturates may lead to... | progressive depression psychologic dependence physical dependence |
| what can be masked with flavored syrup? | chloral hydrate |
| what drug may be used for the treatment of spinal cord injuries, cerebral palsy, multiple sclerosis and malignant hyperthermia? | dantrolene |
| long acting barbiturates may be used fo | epilepsy |
| what are some considerations for management of the dental patent taking benzodiazepines | all consent forms must be signed prior to taking medication patient must have a ride to and from the office do not drink alcohol or take opioids before taking benzodiazepines |
| what are 5 symptoms of sloppy infant syndrome | hypoactivity hypothermia hypotonia feeding problems apnea |
| what are 5 ways to manage sleep disirders | get out of bed if you can't fall asleep after 30 minutes drink a warm glass of milk, do not drink caffeine before bed try to keep regular sleep schedule do not smoke before bed |
| what is a dermatologic effect of benzodiazepines | rash |
| what is the side effect of first trimeter use of benzodiazepines? | cleft lip or palate |
| what is one contraindication of the use of barbiturates | family history of parphyria |
| what is one rationale in the use of analgesic sedative combintations | patient may need both a analgesic and a sedative |
| what is the benzodiazepine antagonist? | flumazenil |
| what is true regarding vitamin C? | a definite role in connective tissue metabolism required for the formation of collagen enhances the absorption of iron |
| what is NOT an oral manifest ion of B1 deficiency? | dysqeusia |
| a deficiency of which of what leaves the tongue a magenta red color? | riboflavin |
| Wernicke's encephalopathy is a severe deficiency of | Thiamine |
| a deficiency of this vitamin causes the tongue to appear smooth and slightly edematous, painful and purplish | vitamin B6 |
| the use of which of the following several months before conception and in pregnancy prevent neural tube defects? | folic acid |
| deficiency of which of the following can be induced by eating large quantities of eft white with symptoms of loss of appetite, mental depression and hypersthesia of skin | biotin |
| which of the following has a deficiency characterized by nyctalopia, xeropthalmia and kertomalacia? | vitamin A |
| which of the following is essential for the hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II,VII, IX, and X | vitamin K |
| the basic function of this mineral involves the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide from one tissue to another | iron |
| what is NOT routine treatment manage of ANUG | biopsy |
| dry socket is also known as.. | alveolar osteitis |
| long term exposure to the sun is a possible cause of... | actinic cheilitis |
| what is NOT associated with gingival enlargement | benadryl |
| what is noted in acute toxicity of fluoride | profuse salivation and black stools |
| which of the following is a natural product found in plants and inhibits biofilm attachment to the teeth | xylitol |
| what has adverse effects of tooth staining, bitter taste, taste alteration, and increased calculus formation | chlorhexidine |
| what are non pharmacologic therapies in the prevention of dental caries? | eat more products which stimulate saliva and are high in protein |
| what is added to mouth rinses to decrease the number of microbes? | benzoic acid |
| pilocarpine is... | a medication used to treat xerostomia |
| for children under 2 years of age, clean teeth with soft cloth and massage the gums (T/F) | true |
| floss teeth at least once a day (T/F) | true |
| hormonal changes during pregnancy can cause gingivitis (T/F) | true |
| the 0.2% form of chlorhexidine is used to kill S. mutans bacteria (T/F) | true |
| fluoride gels are applied with toothbrush for 10 minutes or placed in a custom filled tray (T/F) | false |
| What are the indications for dental treatment? | stable CHF |
| what are the uses for digoxin? | treatment of CHF, atrial arrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, paroxysmal atrial tachycardia |
| what are the oral side effects related to the use of digoxin? | increased salivation |
| tetracycline and ______ can increase digoxin levels in 10% of patients | erythromycin |
| what is true regarding amyl nitrate | volatile, no advantage for its use over nitroglycerin, not frequently used |
| severe headaches, flushing, hypotension, lightheadedness and syncope are adverse reactions to... | nitroglycerin |
| diziness, weakness, constipation, hypotension, dysgeusia and gingival enlargement are adverse reactions to | calcium channel blockers |
| what is step II in the stepped care regimen of hypertension | therapy |
| what is step I in the stepped care regiment of hypertension | life style changes |
| which class of hypertension must be treated aggressively with antihypertensive agents | malignant |
| losartan is considered the prototype.... | angiotension II receptor antagonist |
| the most commonly used antihyperlipidemics are... | HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor |
| what is not true when treating a patient taking warfarin | oral hygiene with sub gingival calculus removal can produce ageusia |
| in the management of the dental patient taking hypertensives.... | avoid dental agents that add to side effects such as opiods |
| what must you avoid in the dental patient taking nitroglycerin like agents | provide analgesic if headache occurs watch for syncope especially if rising avoid heat and moisture for proper storage |
| what antihypertensive group is used for the treatment of an enlarged prostate | alpha 1 adrenergic blocking agents |
| the centrally acting antihypertensive used as the drug of choice for a pregnant hypertensive women is... | hydralazine |
| NSAIAs can decrease the antihypertensive effect of... | alpha 1 blockers angiotensin II receptor anatgonists ACE inhibitors |
| what are the clot busters? | streptokinase |
| what are indicated for intermittent claudication | pentoxyfylline |
| if an NSAIA is to be used in a patient taking warfarin what can be prescribed to the patient | ibuprofen or naproxen |
| NSAIAs can decrease the antihypertensive effect of... | alpha 1 blockers angiotensin II receptor antagpnists ACE inhibitors |
| if an antibiotic is to be used with warfarin what has the greatest effect on changing warfarin's anticoagulant action? | erythromycin and metronidazole |
| define automaticity | intrinsic rthym of the heart heart can regulate its own beat |
| what is one clot buster | streptokinase |
| what is one oral adverse effect of oral anticoagulants | petchia on the oral hard palate |
| what are the characteristics of absence seizures? | breit loss of consciousness with little movement |
| what characterizes grand map seizures? | urination, apnea and an epileptic cry may be present |
| exfoliative dermatitis, erythma multiforme and drug induced lupus are... | idosyncratic reactions to anticonvulsants |
| carbamazepine can be used to treat... | convulsions, trigeminal neuralgia, bipolar depression and chronic pain |
| the pediatric dosage form of _______ has 63% sugar in it | carbamazepine |
| the effect of carbamazepine may be increased by its use with | INH |
| the most common barbiturate used in the treatment of epilepsy is... | phenobarbital |
| what is NOT part of the fetal hydantonin syndrome? | thinning of the facial structures |
| ethosuxamide is the drug of choice for the treatment of... | absence sizures |
| as an adjunctive agent to treat absence seizures its oral effects include increased salivation, coated tongue, xerostomia and sore gums | clonazepam |
| which precautions to be observed in the treatment of patients with mental disorders? | compliance, communication, suicidal tendencies |
| irreversible dyskinesia of the tongue, lips, face and jaw is called | tardive dyskinesia |
| what is true with respect to the use of tricyclic antidepressants? | 10% of the patients exhibit fine tremors |
| prozac (fluoxetine) was was the first member of which group | serotonin specific reuptake inhibitors |
| what can be used as an adjunctive in tobacco cessation? | wellbutrin |
| MAO inhibitors may interact with amphetamines as well as foods and lead to... | hypertensive crisis |
| in the management of the dental patient taking antipsychotic agents what is a consideration | check for xerostomia tardive dyskinesia may make oral hygiene more difficult epinephrine can be safely used in dental local anesthetic |
| what is a consideration in dental management of the patient taking anticonvulsant agents | remove hands and dental instruments from mouth turn head to the side use additional CNS depressants cautiously |
| some ______ can decrease the clearance of lithium | NSAIAs |
| gingival enlargement is seen in ____% of all chronic users of phenytoin | 50 |
| what are ways to manage phenytoin induced gingival enlargement | gingectomy, change medications, improve oral health |
| what is one symptom seen in acute toxicity of tricyclic antidepresstans? | hypertensive crisis |
| what is the prototype antipsychotic? | phenotonin |
| what is a blood dyscrasias associated with Felbamate? | aplastic anemia |
| carbamazepine can decrease the effect of... | doxycyline |
| deloratidine (Clarinex) has the following side effects... | GI disturbance |
| what is a mast cell stabilizer? | astelin |
| histamine is useful in the diagnosis of... | pheochromocytoma |
| what are the signs of toxicity with antihistamine use | death from coma with CV and respiratory collapse |
| what is true with respect to the use of antihistamines? | can be used for vomiting induced by radiation therapy |
| what can be used by injection to provide some local anesthesia? | benadryl |
| erythromycin and ketoconazole ____ the level of fexofenadine | increase |
| fexofenadine is also known as | allegra |
| kinins aid in the mediation of | pulpal pain |
| what substance is an example of a prostaglandin antagonist? | indomethacin |
| what is responsible for stimulating gastric acid secretion? | H-2 receptors |
| when an allergic reaction occurs the _____ degranulate and histamine is released | mast cells |
| what is NOT usually seen in an anaphylactic reaction | hypertension |
| what is NOT an H-1 receptor blocking effect | bronchodilation |
| the drug of choice for anaphylaxis is... | parenteral epinephrine |
| side effects of viral infections and drowsiness are noted in the use of | allegra |
| which of the following was foun to cause cardiac arrhythemias | terfenadine |
| cimeidine is used for the treatment of | GI problems |
| PGEs stimulate the release of | GH, TSH, ACTH |
| prostacyclin produced by blood vessel walls, inhibits | platelet aggregation |
| prostaglandin ____ and prostaglandin ___ have an oxytocic action | E and F |
| ____ can cause secretion in the salivary glands and increases sodium and water excretion from the kidney | Substance P |
| what are dental hygiene considerations in the management of patients using antihistamines | marked drowsiness may occur don't use alcohol with antihistamines remind patients caffeine may increase xerostomia |
| what is NOT a pharmacologic effect of a glucocorticoid? | increased sodium retention |
| what is NOT a characteristic of Cushing's syndrome | syncope and adrenal supression |
| dental uses of corticosteroids do NOT include... | herpes labialis |
| management of the dental patient taking steroids one must | give salicylates and NSAIAs with caution check blood pressure obtain good anesthesia |
| adrenocorticoids are not secreted by... | the adrenal cortex |
| what is NOT a characteristic of hypopituitarism | increased metabolism |
| what is used to treat prolactin secreting adenomas, acromegaly and Parkinson's disease | bromocriptine |
| what is NOT considered a systemic complication of diabetes | cystic fibrosis |
| what is used to treat hypoglycemia in the early stages when the patient is awake | fruit juice, cake icing, glucose gel |
| what is the prototype drug of the sulfonylureas | glyburide |
| what drug classification slows down breakdown of ingested fat so that postprandial hyperglycemia is reduced | acarbose |
| cloesevelam is a new | bile acid sequestrate |
| what is secreted primarily by the ovaries but also by the testes and placenta | estrogens |
| what is associated with estrogenic effects on the oral tissues | puberty gingivitis |
| estrogens may be used to treat | menstrual disturbances |
| what is an intraoral side effect of an oral contraceptive? | gingivits |
| the use of androgenic steroids in females can cause... | virilization |
| what hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary? | vasopressin and oxytocin |
| beta blockers are used to treat which of the following conditions encountered in hyperthyroidism | tachycardia |
| Iodide in high concentrations can cause... | sialadenitis |
| what is the rule of teo | patient taking 20 mg daily for more than 2 weeks, 2 years after dental treatment |
| what are characteristics of hyperpituitarism | gigantism, large teeth, shedding of teeth |
| what is another name for toxic nodular goiter | plumber's disease |
| androgenic steroids are classified as schedule ____drug | 3 |
| what is danazol? | treatment of endrometriosis and breast fibrosis |
| antineoplastic drugs are... | designed to treat malignancies used to manage RA, and psoriasis |
| which of the following is NOT of the reproductive cycle of a cell | K phase |
| what is NOT classified of antineoplastic agents | antihistamines |
| what are adverse dermatologic effects of antineoplastic drugs | exfoliative dermatitis |
| what is considered to be environmental carcinogens | alflatoxins, PCBs from transformers, PCBs from transformers, benzene |
| what are intraoral adverse effects of antineoplastic drugs | xerostomia, taste alteration, gingival bleeding, stomatitis |
| what is de novo resistance? | cells have an innate resistance |
| what is acquired resistance | cells that acquire resistance through mutation or natural selection |
| adverse drug effects of the antineoplastic drugs on germ cells include... | inhibition of oogenesis |
| according to the lecture handout, antineoplastic drugs can be used for the treatment of leukemias, choriocarcinomas, multiple myelomas and... | Brickett's lymphoma |
| antibiotics are effective for the treatment of... | solid tumors |
| estrogens are used in the palliative treatment of... | inoperable breast cancer |
| plant alkaloids arrest cells in... | metaphase |
| what is a stronger effect with an MDI than a comparable oral dose | bronchodilator |
| dextromethorphan... | suppresses the cough reflex by direct effect on the cough center |
| GERD symptoms are exacerbated by... | eating large meals, eating less than four hours before bedtime, lying flat on the bed without pillows |
| what laxative classifications should one use caution in patients with renal impairment | osmotic saline laxatives |
| what is the most common adsorbent combination in antidiarrheals is... | kaopectate |
| what can be used to control nausea and vomiting associated with cancer chemotherapy | metocloparmide and cannabinoids |
| COPD is divided into two groups... | emphysema and chronic bronchitis |
| what is a side effect of albuterol? | tachycardia |
| NSAIA-induced ulcers can be treated with | misoprostol |
| blood levels of alcohol is higher in those taking... | cimetidine |
| what is a systemic antacid? | sodium bicarbonate |
| what extends through all the laters f the intestinal mucosa? | Crohn's disease |
| symptoms of frequent urination, loss of appetite, nausea and vomiting, thirst, hypercapnia, warm and dry skin, rapid pulse and low BP are consistent with the condition of | diabetic coma |
| symptoms of tachypnea, tachycardia anesthesia, nausea, faintness, perspiration, lightheadedness and shortness of breath are consistent with the condition of | hyperventilation |
| symptoms of hyperpyrexia, increased sweating, hyperactivity, mental agitation, shaking, nervousness, and tachycardia are consistent with... | thyroid storm |
| what is the drug of choice for opioid induced apnea | naloxone |
| the treatment of parenteral hydrocortisone and oxygen by inhalation as well as fluid replacement after hospitalization is consisted for the condition of | acute adrenocortical insufficiency |
| what is a level I or critical drug | epinephrine |
| what is a level II drug | morphine |
| the emergency hit should be checked every _____ to make sure drugs are not out of date | three months |
| what is the local anesthetic of choice in pregnant women | lidocaine |
| difficulty in lying prone and premature labor both characterize | the third trimester of pregnancy |
| what analgesics are not recommended especially in the third trimester of pregnancy | aspirin and NSAIDS |
| what are contraindicated during pregnancy | tetracyclines |
| near term administration of _____ can produce respiratory depression in the infant | opioids |
| what characterizes fetal alcohol syndrome? | microcephaly and micropthalmia, short palpebral fissures and flat maxilla, hypertonia and restlessness |
| benzodiazepines are indicated in pregnancy for the treatment of... | status epilepticus |
| what may increase the chance of kernicterus in the nursing infant | keoconazole |
| large doses of what may be associated with fetal renal changes? | acetaminophen |
| what is a known teratogen | lithium |
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