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Sgts Course Comp 2

QuestionAnswer
Maximum Range for M203 40mm grenade launcher? 400 meters
Maximum effective range for M203 40mm grenade launcher with leaf sight? 250 meters
Maximum effective point target range for M203 40mm grenade launcher with quad sight? 150 meters
Maximum effective area target range for M203 40mm grenade launcher with quad sight? 350 meters
Minimum safe Training range for M203 40mm grenade launcher? 80 meters
Maximum Range for M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? 3,600 meters
Maximum effective point target range for M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? 800 meters
Maximum effective area target range for M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? 1,000 meters
Grazing range for M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? 600 meters
Maximum Range for M240G Medium Machine-gun? 3,725 meters
Maximum effective range for M240G Medium Machine-gun? 1,800 meters
Grazing range for M240G Medium Machine-gun? 600 meters
Maximum Range for M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun (M2 Ball)? 7,400 meters
Maximum effective range for M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun? 1,830 meters
Grazing range for M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun? 700 meters
Maximum Range for MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher? 2,212 meters
Maximum effective point target range for MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher? 1,500 meters
Maximum effective area target range for MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher? 2,212 meters
Characteristics of M203 40mm grenade launcher? Lightweight, compact, breech loaded, pump action, single shot launcher
Components of M203 40mm grenade launcher? Hand guard and sight assembly with adjustable metallic folding, short-range blade sight assemble, and an aluminum receiver assembly, which houses the barrel latch stop and firing mechanism
Ammunition for M203 40mm grenade launcher? Capable of firing a variety of LOW velocity 40mm ammunition
What is the purpose of the quad sight on the M203 40mm grenade launcher? Used when precision firing is required out to the maximum effective range of the weapon
What is the main target of the M203 40mm grenade launcher? Automatic weapons and enemy troops in defilade. This will silence enemy base-of-fire and cause enemy troops to leave cover
Characteristics of M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? Gas Operated, air cooled, belt or magazine fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position
What position does the M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW) fire from? The open-bolt position
How many Marines are required to operate the M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? One Marine
Ammunition for M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? Primarily fed into the weapon from a 200-round ammunition box containing disintegrating metallic split-link belt. In emergency, can use a 30-round magazine from M16A2, but this will increase chance of stoppages
What is the main target of the M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? SAW can augment a base of fire to suppress and destroy enemy personnel on the objective. Priority given to counter enemy automatic weapons positions
Sustained rate of fire for M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? 85 rounds per minute, 3-5 round bursts, 4-5 seconds between bursts, no barrel change
Rapid rate of fire for M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? 200 rounds per minute, 6-8 round bursts, 2-3 seconds between bursts, barrel change every 2 minutes
Cyclic rate of fire for M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)? 850 rounds per minute, continuous burst, barrel change every 1 minute
Characteristics of M240G Medium Machine-gun? Air cooled, belt-fed, gas operated automatic weapon
What position does the M240G Medium Machine-gun fire from? The open-bolt position
Ammunition for M240G Medium Machine-gun? Primarily fed by a disintegrating metallic split-link belt
On the M240G Medium Machine-gun, what provides the energy for firing round after round? The gas from firing one round provides the energy for firing the next
What two mounts can the M240G Medium Machine-gun be fired from? Either the attached bipod mount or by mounting on the M122 tripod with flex-mount
What is the main target of the M240G Medium Machine-gun in offense? Employed by section from a base of fire from which the guns can mass their fires in a continuous, accurate, heavy volume
What is the main target of the M240G Medium Machine-gun in defense? Employed as a whole in general support of the overall unit, engaging crew-served weapons, massing enemy troops, and light armored vehicles
Sustained rate of fire for M240G Medium Machine-gun? 100 rounds per minute, 6-8 round bursts, 4-5 seconds between bursts, barrel change every 10 minutes
Rapid rate of fire for M240G Medium Machine-gun? 200 rounds per minute, 10-12 round bursts, 2-3 seconds between bursts, barrel change every 2 minutes
Cyclic rate of fire for M240G Medium Machine-gun? 650-950 rounds per minute (depending on gas setting), continuous burst, barrel change every 1 minute
Characteristics of M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun? Belt-fed, recoil operated, air cooled, crew-served machine-gun
Does the M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun fire single shot or automatic? The M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun has single shot and automatic capabilities
Ammunition feeding for M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun? Fed from the left or right side of the receiver by a disintegrating belt of links
Ammunition types for the M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun? .50 Caliber Ball, Tracer, Armor-piercing (AP), incendiary, armor-piercing incendiary (API), armor-piercing incendiary tracer, sabot light-armor penetration, sabot light-armor penetration tracer, blank, dummy, and plastic practice
What is the main target of the M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun? Used effectively against personnel, light armored vehicles, aircraft, and SMALL BOATS
Sustained rate of fire for M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun? 40 rounds or less per minute
Rapid rate of fire for M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun? More than 40 rounds per minute
Cyclic rate of fire for M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun? 450-550 rounds per minute
Characteristics of MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher? Air cooled, blowback operated, fully-automatic weapon
Ammunition feeding for MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher? Fed by a disintegrating belt of links
What is fixed to the muzzle of the barrel on the MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher? A flash suppressor. Its slotted configuration suppresses vibration during firing, and dissipates flash and smoke
The barrel of the MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher prevents what, even after prolonged firing? The barrel of the MK19 MOD3 prevents cook-off
How is the MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher employed/mounted? The MK19 MOD3 is employed from a tripod or from a variety of vehicles
What is the main target of the MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher? Designed to deliver accurate, intense, and decisive firepower against enemy personnel and light armored vehicles
Sustained rate of fire for MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher? 40 rounds or less per minute
Rapid rate of fire for MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher? 60 rounds per minute
Cyclic rate of fire for MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher? 325-375 rounds per minute
What is the definition of Defilade? protection or shielding from hostile ground observation and flat projecting fire provided by an artificial or natural obstacle, as a hill.
What is the definition of Enfilade? A position of works, troops, etc., making them subject to a sweeping fire from along the length of a line of troops, a trench, a battery, etc.
Which weapon is well suited for ambush patrols? M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW) Light Machine-gun. Because of the need for speed and stealth in these operations. The accurate firepower provided by 2 or 3 SAWs can cause devastating effects against personnel in an ambush kill zone
Which weapon systems can be employed on either an FPL or PDF? M249 SAW Light Machine-gun, M240G Medium Machine-gun, and the M2 .50 Caliber Heavy Machine-gun
Which weapon system is not suitable for an FPL in the defense? The MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher
What weapon system should be used to fire on automatic weapons and troops in the defilade? M203 Grenade Launcher
Extreme caution must be taken to ensure that fields-of-fire are cleared of obstructions when employing the M203 Grenade Launcher, to prevent what? Premature detonation of the projectile
As the enemy approaches the defensive position, when should the M203 grenade laucher be used? Initially, the fire team leader should us the rifle portion of the weapon. As the enemy maneuvers closer to friendly positions, the grenade launcher should be used
Why does the M203 grenadier fire on automatic weapons and troops in the defilade? This employment method will silence the enemy base-of-fire and cause enemy troops to leave covered positions so automatic riflemen can engage them
Should the Mk19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher be assigned a PDF or FPL in the defense? The MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher is not suited for an FPL, and should be assigned a PDF to cover an avenue of approach, obstacle, defilate, choke point, or dead space in the FPL of a flatter trajectory weapon
Name a Light Machine-gun M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW) Light Machine-gun
Name a Medium Machine-gun M240G Medium Machine-gun
Name a Heavy Machine-gun M2 .50 Caliber Heavy Machine-gun
What Weapon system can be used to augment the FPL and PDF of the machine-guns, or cover dead space in those FPLs with direct fire? M249 SAW LMM
Can the M249 SAW be assigned its own PDF? Yes, it can be assigned its own PDF to cover likely avenues of approach or other priority target areas
Who controls the fires of the machine gun section and the weapons platoon commander? The unit leader, such as the company commander, who is advised by the machine gun section leader
When grazing fire can be attained, how should the M240G MMG be employed? The M240G MMD should be assigned the mission of firing an FPL
Should dead space in an FPL be covered by the M240G MMG? No, dead space should be covered by other weapon systems
What Machine gun can be fired from the defilade, and can effectively engage in indirect fire? The M240G MMG
How many missions should be assigned to each gun squad? Only one mission, either an FPL or PDF should be assigned per gun squad
What are PDFs typically designed to cover? Likely avenues of approach or areas where the enemy may mass
Which weapon system has a high trajectory, and is not suitable for an FPL in the defense? MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher
Depending on the protection and mobility of the enemy, what weapon systems might be vehicle-mounted in a counterattack force? Heavy Machine guns
What weapon systems may be employed with anti-armor weapons in a task organized CAAT with missions assigned such as conducting anti-armor ambushed forward of the FEBA, supporting combat outposts, or reinforcing a counterattack force? Heave Machine guns
What is a PDF? Principle Direction of Fire
What is an FPL? Final Protective Line
Which weapon system is a Lightweight, compact, breech loaded, pump action, single shot launcher? M203 40mm grenade launcher
Which weapon system has a Hand guard and sight assembly with adjustable metallic folding, short-range blade sight assemble, and an aluminum receiver assembly, which houses the barrel latch stop and firing mechanism? M203 40mm grenade launcher
Which weapon system is capable of firing a variety of LOW velocity 40mm ammunition? M203 40mm grenade launcher
Which weapon system has a maximum range of 400 meters? M203 40mm grenade launcher
Which weapon system has a maximum effective area target range of 350 meters? M203 40mm grenade launcher
Which weapon system has a maximum range of 3,600 meters? M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)
Which weapon system has a maximum range of 3,725 meters? M240G Medium Machine-gun
Which weapon system has a maximum effective range of 1,830 meters? M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun
Which weapon system has a maximum effective area target range of 2,212 meters? MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher
Which weapon system has a maximum effective point target range of 1,500 meters? MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher
Which weapon system is a Gas Operated, air cooled, belt or magazine fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position? M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)
Which weapon systems fire from the open-bolt position? M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW) and M240G Medium Machine-gun
Which weapon system requires only One Marine to operate it? M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)
Which weapon system fires a sustained rate of 85 rounds per minute, 3-5 round bursts, 4-5 seconds between bursts, no barrel change? M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)
Which weapon system fires a cyclic rate of 850 rounds per minute, continuous burst, barrel change every 1 minute? M249 Squad Automatic Weapon (SAW)
Which weapon system may be use either the attached bipod mount or be mounted on the M122 tripod with flex-mount? M240G Medium Machine-gun
Which weapon system fires at a sustained rate of 100 rounds per minute, 6-8 round bursts, 4-5 seconds between bursts, barrel change every 10 minutes? M240G Medium Machine-gun
Which weapon system fires at a rapid rate of 200 rounds per minute, 10-12 round bursts, 2-3 seconds between bursts, barrel change every 2 minutes? M240G Medium Machine-gun
Which weapon system fires at a cyclic rate of 650-950 rounds per minute (depending on gas setting), continuous burst, barrel change every 1 minute? M240G Medium Machine-gun
Which weapon system is a Belt-fed, recoil operated, air cooled, crew-served machine-gun? M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun
Which weapon system is fed from the left or right side of the receiver by a disintegrating belt of links? M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun
Which weapon system is used effectively against personnel, light armored vehicles, aircraft, and SMALL BOATS? M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun
Which weapon systems fire at a sustained rate of 40 rounds or less per minute? M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun and MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher
Which weapon system fires at a rapid rate of more than 40 rounds per minute? M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun
Which weapon system fires at a cyclic rate of 450-550 rounds per minute? M2 .50 Caliber Machine Gun
Which weapon system has a barrel designed to prevent cook-off? MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher
Which weapon system fires at a cyclic rate of 325-375 rounds per minute? MK19 MOD3 40mm Grenade Launcher
What are the benefits of a squad Echelon? Heavy Firepower to front and flanks of the echelon Used to protect an open or exposed flank
What are the Fire support concerns in MOUT? Cover and concealment for enemy in buildings Lack of proper fields of observation Collateral damage and rubble
What are the fundamentals of the offense? Gain/maintain contact & momentum Develop situation Concentrate superior power at decisive time/place Exploit success/enemy weakness Seize/control key terrain Gain/retain initiative Neutralize enemy ability to react Advance by fire & maneuver Secur
What are the types of Offensive Operations? Movement to contact. Attack. Exploitation. Pursuit.
In the phases of combat, what is the conduct phase used for? Line of departure passing through the assault position. Gaining contact with enemy. Movement to the object area. Advance by fire & maneuver. Assault the enemy. Consolidation and reorganization.
What are the components of a training standard? -Task -Condition -Criteria
What are the intelligence gathering techniques in MOUT? -Human intelligence -Technology intelligence
What are the logistical concerns in MOUT? Requires flexible, balanced, responsive logistics. Time consuming and costly in manpower & resources. Aid stations and surgical teams need to be as far forward as possible with dedicated vehicles.
In the phases of combat, what is the exploitation phase used for? Exploit every advantage. Think and plan beyond the objective. Pursuit of enemy by fire and maneuver. Exploitation operations.
What are the benefits of a squad column? Easy to control. Excellent for speed of movement. Very suitable for narrow routes of advance, moving through gaps in areas of hostile fire and limited observation. Vulnerable to fire from the front. Excellent for night ops.
What is the definition of MOUT (Military Operations on Urbanized Terrain)? Military actions that are planned and conducted on a topographical complex and its adjacent terrain where manmade construction is the dominant feature.
What are the command and control concerns in MOUT? Lack of communication. Rapidly changing, highly fluid battlefield. Ensuring proper maneuver during warfare. Ability of all Marines to carry out mission regardless of rank.
What is the purpose of the squad in the defense? Destroy the enemy by fire. Repel assault by close combat. Destroy the enemy by counterattack.
What is the Marine Corps role in urbanized warfare? Maintain forward presence for rapid crisis response. 60% of significant urban areas are within 25 miles of coastline. 75% of population lives within 150 miles of the sea.
What are the common myths associated with MOUT? - MOUT is new to the Corps. - The Marine Corps is not prepared to fight in the urban battlefield.
What is the purpose of training standards? Defines the level of proficiency required to satisfy the task
What are the 4 principle tasks while in the attack? SAM-K Suppress (prevent enemy ability to maneuver or concentrate) Assess (exploit advantages) Maneuver (maneuver to gain advantage) Kill (deliver overwhelming assault to destroy enemy)
What are the fundamentals of the squad in the defense? -Preparation -Concentration -Flexibility -Maximum use of offensive action -Proper use of terrain -Mutual support -Defense in depth -Surprise -Knowledge of the enemy
What are the techniques of advance? - Fire and maneuver - Fire and movement
In the phases of combat, what is the preparation phase used for? Receive warning order. Plan and coordinate. Recon and rehearsal. Issue orders. Logistics preparation. Movement to the assembly area, attack position, and line of departure
What are the tasks associated with the organization on the ground? Posting security. Posting automatic weapons. Clearing fields of fire. Digging fighting holes. Constructing obstacles. Selecting supplementary fighting positions. Camouflage measures.
What is the mission of the squad in the offense? To locate, close with, and destroy the enemy by fire and maneuver
What are the force protection concerns in MOUT? Constant vigilance. Overwatch positions. Ability to sound the alarm. Project a "Hard Target". Marine is always on the watch.
What is the Marine Corps vision of the "3-block war"? Humanitarian assistance on one block, Peace keeping operations on the next block, and high intensity combat on the third block. (Also, 'strategic corporal' making significant decisions)
What are the benefits of a squad wedge? Good control. All around security. Formation is flexible. Fire is adequate in all directions.
What are the benefits of the squad Vee? Easy to move squad on-line. Excellent fire to front and flanks. All around security. Used to cross large open areas, and when enemy is to the front and their strength & location are known.
What are the maneuver concerns in MOUT? Lack of open space. Enemy's ability to place obstacles. Lack of options due to surroundings. Rubble on the battlefield.
What are the elements of a defensive position? Sectors of fire. -Lateral limits. -Forward limits. Fighting position. Principle direction of fire.
What are the different types of squad formations? - Squad column - Squad wedge - Squad vee - Squad line - Squad echelon
What are the benefits of the squad line? Maximum firepower to the front. Used when location of enemy is known. During assaults. Mopping up. Crossing short open areas.
What are the phases of the offense? - Preparation phase - Conduct phase - Exploitation phase
What are the references used to train Marines? MCO 1510 Individual Training Standard System (ITSS) Series. MCO 3501 Marine Corps Combat Readiness Evaluation System (MCCRES) Series. MCRP 3-0A UNIT Training management Guide. MCRP 3-0B How to conduct Training
Which training reference contains all the tasks an INDIVIDUAL needs to know to perform successfully? MCO 1510 Individual Training Standard System (ITSS) Series
Which training reference contains all the tasks a UNIT needs to know how to perform? MCO 3501 Marine Corps Combat Readiness Evaluation System (MCCRES) Series.
Which training reference contains 13 volumes covering all of the elements of the MAGTF? MCO 3501 Marine Corps Combat Readiness Evaluation System (MCCRES) Series.
In MCO 3501 Marine Corps Combat Readiness Evaluation System (MCCRES) Series, how are unit tasks reflected? As Mission Performance Standards (MPSs)
Which training reference assists unit commanders and their staffs in the preparation of unit training programs, and provides a background on the philosophy, prinicples and policies of MC training? MCRP 3-0A UNIT Training management Guide.
Which training reference assists units on how to implement and conduct Marine Corps training? MCRP 3-0B How to conduct Training
The Marine Corps' training system is what type of system? A standards-based training system
What are the 6 elements of an Individual Training Standard (ITS)? Task. Conditions. Standards. Performance Steps. Administrative Instructions. References.
How are training deficiencies corrected? Instruction. Practical Application. Correspondence Courses. Training Aids/Devices.
What is fire and maneuver? A technique of advance where one element moves while being supported by another element (base of fire). Separate but distinct mission is assigned to each element.
What is fire and movement? A technique of advance where parts of the maneuver element simultaneously fire and move by bounds. Each part of the element alternates the firing and moving.
What are ways to Neutralize the enemy's ability to react in squad offensive tactics? Use firepower to shape the battlefield. Suppress enemy forces and disrupt enemy support activities. Attack enemy command and control. Block reinforcements. Conceal your intentions. Employ deception.
What is included in the scheme of maneuver (the tactical plan to be executed by a force in order to seize the assigned objective)? Formations. Distribution of forces. Forms of maneuver. Consolidation. Necessary control measures.
What are some control measures for squad offensive tactics? - Assembly Area - Attack Position - Line of departure - Check points - Assault position - Final coordination line - Objective
What squad offensive tactics control measure is an area in which a command is assembled in preparation for further actions? Assembly Area
What squad offensive tactics control measure is the last concealed position short of the line of departure, and is where final coordination, last minute preparations and deployment into initial attack formations are effected? Attack Position
What squad offensive tactics control measure is a line designated to coordinate the beginning of an attack? Line of departure
What squad offensive tactics control measure is an easily identifiable point on the terrain, used to control movement or as a reference point for reporting locations of friendly units? Check point
What squad offensive tactics control measure is a position designated between the line of departure and the objective where the unit completes its final deployment into its assault formation? Assault position
What squad offensive tactics control measure is the last covered and concealed position short of the objective, and is big enough for the unit to deploy into its assault formation? Assault position
What squad offensive tactics control measure is used to coordinate the ceasing or shifting of the direct and indirect fire? Final Coordination Line
What squad offensive tactics control measure is the physical object of the action taken? The objective
In Squad offensive tactics, what are the Forms of maneuver? Single envelopment. Frontal attack.
In Squad offensive tactics, what form of maneuver splits the enemy's defensive fire and allows the maneuvering squad to attack over the ground of its own choice? Single envelopment
What are the three elements of distribution of forces in the offense? - Focus of effort - Supporting Attack (Deceives, destroys or pins down enemy, controls ground, forces the enemy to commit reserve prematurely) - Reserve
What are the types of combat support operations in MOUT? Combat Engineers. Assault Support Helicopters. Employment of Reconnaissance Forces. Military Police.
What are the general rules of engagement (ROE) in MOUT? Always serve to protect the force and accomplish mission. Never limit your ability to defend yourself. Allow Marines the flexibility to succeed.
What are reasons to restrict use of weapons in MOUT? Avoid alienation of local populace. Reduce risk of adverse world opinion. Preserve facilities for suture use. Preserve cultural facilities and grounds.
List three reasons why Marine Corps is prepared for the urban fight? Realistic Training. Combined Arms. Technology.
Why is artillery less effective against targets in built-up areas? Artillery has a low angle of fire
Why are mortars the most commonly used indirect-fire weapon in urban combat? Their high angle of fire
What are the benefits of snipers in urban combat? Observation. Intelligence gathering. Can deliver precision fire on select targets. Can occupy overwatch positions for patrol bases. Can provide constant "eyes on" security for patrols.
What are a few of the Lessons Learned in MOUT? Small unit leaders fight. Comm intensive. Decentralized command with common objectives. Logistically challenging. Task-organized teams essential. Situational awareness at all levels. Mechanized/Infantry teams must exploit armor protection and mobili
What are a few of the Lessons Learned in MOUT? Cross coordination needed at lowest levels. Squad leaders must effectively employ combined arms. Unit leaders push info up and across. Exploit success, never reinforce failure. Entire city is danger zone.
What are a few of the Lessons Learned in MOUT? Use bounding and overwatch positions. Rely on training, not just technology. Everyone must be able to do mission two levels up. Standard infantry fundamentals apply to MOUT.Develop battle drills and SOPs. Train, Rehearse, Debrief
What are the types of rifle squad missions in the defense? Frontline squad. Squad as part of the reserves. Squad as a security element.
Within a rifle squad, who is normally assigned a PDF? Automatic rifles
What is a Sector of Fire? A pie-shaped area enclosed by two lateral limits and a forward limit, which is required to be covered by an individual, a fire unit, or a crew-served weapon.
Who formulates the fire teams' fire plan? The fire team leader
What is included in a fire plan? Assignment of individual sectors of fire, individual fighting positions, PDF for automatic weapons assigned by squad leader, and position of fire team leader
What is the purpose of the defense? -Retain or control terrain -Gain time to develop favorable conditions or for offensive action -Economize forces
What is the mission of the frontline squad in the defense? To stop the enemy by fire forward of the platoon position, and repel him by close combat if he reaches the platoon battle position.
What is the purpose of the Squad as part of the reserves in the defense? Supports frontline units by fire. Assigned to concentrate fire in the rear, on the flanks, or into a gap between frontline platoons. May participate in counterattack.
What is the purpose of the Squad as a Security Element in the defense? To gain information about the enemy, and to deceive, delay and disorganize his advance
What must NOT be allowed in order to maximize use of offensive action in the defense? Collection of extra equipment to provide creature comforts must not be allowed. Affects physical/mental ability of squad to move quickly and aggressively
How should positions be located for mutual support in the defense? Positions should be located so that when attacking one, the enemy comes under fire from at least one other
What is the basic fire unit of the rifle platoon? The fire team
Created by: inventorjack