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hartwein final

procedures

QuestionAnswer
Who discovered x-rays Wilhelm roentgen
In what country were x-rays discovered? Germany
What month were x-rays discovered? November
What day were x-rays discovered? 8th
The symbol "X" in mathematic represents: an unknown quantity
Kilovolt Peak (kVp) is associated with which of the following? energy
Milliampere (mA) is associated with which of the following intensity
Who was credited with the development of the fluoroscope? Edison
Who was counted as the first x-ray fatality in the United States? Clarence Dally
The part of the radiographic system that produces the x-rays is the x-ray tube
The device that supports the x-ray tube and allows it to be moved in different directions is the tube stand
Which direction(s) can the tube travel? Longitudinal, Transverse< Vertical
The metric sixe for the 14X17 inch IR is: 35 X43
The film record produced to visualize the internal structures of the body is called: radiograph
The process and procedures for producing a radiograph is: radiography
Which of the following are often used interchangeably? x-ray film and radiograph
The device that captures the radiographic image is the image receptor (IR) film/screen cassette
Anatomic side markers must be placed correctly on some radiographic images. false
The patient's anatomic reference position is: erect
Radiation protection measures should include: shielding, time, distance
The oblique plane is parallel to the sagittal, coronal and horizontal plane false
The midsagittal plane can also be referred to as the ______ plane. median
Which of the following are longitudinal planes? coronal, sagittal
Which of the followi8ng planes divides the body into superior and inferior portions axial
Which of the following is at a right angle to the frontal plane? sagittal plane
The ventral surface of the body is the _______ surface. anterior
The posterior surface of the body can be referred to as the: dorsal surface
The CR exits through the ventral surface of a patient. What projection is this? PA
The CR is perpendicular to which plane on a lateral projection? longitudinal and coronal
Which plane will be parallel to the IR when the patient's back is closest to the IR? Longitudinal and sagittal
Which area is closest to the IR on an LAO? Left anterior
Patient is placed in a RPO position What side is he laying on? dorsal
A patient is a recumbent position with the head higher than the feet is the: Fowler position
The direction or path of the CR of the x=-ray beam defines the positioning term: projection
A thin patient would have what type of body habitus? Asthenic
What can be done to limit repeat exposures? Effective communication and Careful positioning of the patient
Which of the following is the protective framework for the thorax? bony thorax
The medial portion of the thoracic cavity between the lungs is called the: mediastinum
What is the minimum number of ribs that should be seen on a PA chest 10 posterior ribs
Which of the following is not part of the respiratory system? trachea
CXR means chest x-ray
the trachea is located ____ to the esophagus. anteriorly
Where will the CR exit on a PA chest? ventrally and anteriorly
What should be the SID for a PA erect chest? 72 inches
At what level should the CR be centered for a left lateral erect chest? T7
The plural cavity is associated with which of the following lungs
The fundamental unit of all living things is (are) the: cell
The control center of a cell is the nucleus
The chemical process in a cell that includes both catabolism and anabolism is: metabolism
Which of the following is a muscle that separates the abdominal cavity form the thoracic cavity? diaphragm
The central ray on a lateral chest should enter at a level 3 to 4 inches below the: jugular notch
On a lateral chest, what plane of the body is parallel to the IR? midsagittal
Which of the following is true about the CR on erect Lt. lateral chest position? CR will enter the right side and CR is perpendicular to the IR
A lateral chest radiograph demonstrates that the soft tissue of the upper limbs is superimposed over the apices of the lungs. How can this positioning error be corrected? raise upper limbs higher
What should the SID be on a seated erect lateral chest? 72 inches
At what level should the CR be centered for an AP projection of the chest? T7 and 2 to 4 inches below jugular notch
Where will the CR exit on a AP supine or AP semierect chest projection? dorsal
Which chest position would best demonstrate pleural effusion in the right lung? right lateral decubitus
What type of beam should be used to show air-fluid levels? horizontal
If the patient's conditions allows, all chest x-rays should be taken in the erect position? true
A patient has fluid in the pleural cavity of the left lung. What body position would be recommended? left lateral decub
On an erect AP projection of the chest, what is the orientation of CR to the IR? perpendicular
Where should the clavicles appear on an AP Lordotic projection of the chest? above the apices
How much CR angulation is required on an AP supine semiaxial Lordotic chest projection? 20 degrees
What is the SID for a lateral position: upper airway? 72 in.
Why is it necessary to make exposure during a slow, deep inspiration for the upper airway exam? make sure trachea is filled with air
The diaphragm separate which two cavities? thoracic and abdominal
Which of the following is not part of the digestive organs of the abdominal cavity? mouth
What is the Greek word for stomach? gaster
The right colic (hepatic) flexure is located in which quadrant of the abdomen? RUQ
The LLQ has which of the following in its location? sigmoid colon
Which of the following is NOT one of the nine abdominal regions? RUQ
Which topographic landmark is located posteriorly? ischial tuberosity
The superior margin of the abdomen can sometime be located at which topographic landmark? xiphoid process
The iliac crest landmark is associated with which of the following? L4-L5 vertebral interspace, umbilicus,midabdome
Which of the following bears the weight of the patient in the seated position? greater trochanter
Good radiation practices when radiographing the abdomen include which of the following? limit repeats, collimation, careful positioning
What type of patient will require two 14X17 inches image receptors placed crosswise? hypersthenic
What is the SID for an AP projection - supine abdomen? 40 inches
If an iliac wing is elongated on an AP projection-supine abdomen, this could be a sign of rotation
What can be done to assist in preventing motion n an AP projection - supine abdomen? make exposure 1 second after instruction patient to hold breath on expiration
Where will the central ray exit on a PA projection of the abdomen? anteriorly
What is the patient position for a PA projection of the abdomen? prone and recumbent
The CR will be directed where for a PA projection of the abdomen? perpendicular to the IR, center of IR and level of iliac crest
The CR will be centered where for a lateral decubitus position (AP) projection for the abdomen? 2 inches above the level of the iliac crest
Which of the following should be included on a left lateral decubitus position (AP) projection for the abdomen? diaphragm and rt. side of abdomen
Which should be done first if the patient comes to the department ambulatory or in a wheelchair? AP projection - erect abdomen
Which landmark corresponds with the inferior margin of the abdomen? symphysis pubis
The peritoneum surrounds the: abdominal organs
How many pairs of salivary glands surround the oral cavity? 3
What happens when deglutition occurs? epiglottis closes over trachea
Ingestion and/or digestion foes not occur in which of the following? pharynx
Which of the following parts of the duodenum is the descending portion? third
During fluoroscopy what radiation protection procedures should the technologist practice? wear protective apron of 0.5 PB-Eq and fully extend the Bucky slot shield
Which of the following can reduce exposure to the hands of the fluoroscopist during fluoroscopy? compression paddle and lead gloves
Which abdominal region contains the rectum? pubic
Which of the following soft tissue structures can be visualized on a properly exposed KUB? Kidneys and Psoas muscle
The mechanical process of breathing can be referred to as: respiration
Which of the following is an accessory organ of the alimentary tract? Liver, Pancreas, Gallbladder, Salivary glands
Inflammation of the pancreas could be: pancreatitis
The liver is located primarily in the RUQ
The uvula is part of the soft palate
The act of swallowing is defined as: deglutition
The pharynx has three parts, Identify the three parts in order, starting with the superior part? nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
What prevents the food mass from going up into the trachea? epiglottis
The esophagus is located _____ to the trachea. posterior
What is the term for the longitudinal mucosal folds found within the stomach? rugae
With the patient in the prone position for an UGI, where will the barium be located? body of pylorus
Which aspect of the stomach is attached to the duodenum? pylorus
Which division of the duodenum contains the duodenal bulb or cap? superior
Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, this mixture can be referred to as chyme
With the patient in the erect position, the stomach lies high and transverse in which body habitus? hypersthenic
What is the classification of barium sulfate as a contrast media? radiopaque
What type of solution is formed when barium is mixed with water? colloidal suspension
Which of the following patient care concerns would prevent the use of an oral water soluble iodinated contrast medium? The patient is sensitive to iodine
Two indentations are usually seen in the esophagus during an esophagram. These indentations are caused by Aortic arch and left primary bronchus
Which of the following devices reduces gonadal radiation exposure during fluoroscopy for the radiologist and technologist? bucky slot cover
Lead aprons worn during fluoroscopy should be a minimum: 0.5 mm lead equivalent
A large outpouching of the proximal esophagus above the upper esophageal sphincter is termed: Zenker diverticulum
Gastritis is defined as inflammation of the stomach
Why would a patient undergo the Valsalva maneuver during an esophagram? to demonstrate esophageal reflux
Which of the following procedures will not demonstrate possible esophageal reflux? Reverse Trendelenburg method
Patient preparation for an esophagram includes: Patient preparation is not needed as long as an upper GI series is not scheduled to follow the esophagram
Centering of the central ray for an esophagram should be to the vertebrae level of: T5-T6
How much obliquity (rotation) is required on the RAO position for an esophagram? 35-40 degrees
The RAO position of the esophagus is preferred over the LAO because it: increases the visibility of the esophagus between the vertebrae and heart.
What type of breathing instructions should be given to the patient during an esophagram using a thin barium mixture? Suspended inspiration after the last swallow
Which body position will allow for better visualization of the upper esophagus? swimmer's lateral
What is the SID for a recumbent esophagram? 100cm
The LAO position for an esophagram requires how much rotation? 40 degrees
What size IR will be used for an esophagram on a hyposthenic patient? 35cm X 43cm
Which of the following esophagram projections and /or positions will project the majority of the esophagus over the spine? AP
Which of the following could increase gastric secretion during the NPO period? gum chewing and smoking
Which method of performing an UGI will best demonstrate the mucosal lining of the stomach? double contrast method
Which of the following upper GI projections and / or positions will best fill the body and pylorus with barium? right lateral and PA
A hypersthenic patient would require how much obliquity (rotation) on a RAO position for an UGI? 70 degrees
A right lateral position on an UGI should demonstrate: the retrogastric space
What is the SID on a LPO for an UGI? 40 inches
A hypersthenic patient would require how much obliquity (rotation) on a LPO position for an UGI? 70 degrees
The CR will enter posteriorly for the "overheads" on the LPO position for an UGI. false
Bile is produced in the: liver
Which of the following separates the right and left lobes of the liver? falciform ligament
The right and left hepatic ducts join and form the: Common hepatic duct
Bile enters what section of the small intestines? duodenum
A special fiberoptic endoscope commonly used for an ERCP is the: duodenoscope
Examination of the biliary tree and pre-operative planning are both uses of the ________ function of an ERCP. Diagnostic
Hypersensitivity to iodine is a contraindication to an ERCP. true
Which of the following are responsibilities of the technologist during an ERCP? Prepare fluoroscopy suite, Take scout images, and Take overhead images
The duct leading from the gallbladder is the: cystic duct
The liver has _______ lobes. 4
The average length of the combined sections of small bowel is approximately: 23 feet
Which portion of the small bowel is the shortest? Duodenum
During an enteroclysis procedure, a catheter is advanced to the duodenojeunal flexure
Which type of body habitus may require 2 14X17 cross-wise cassettes for an AP Barium enema exam? hypersthenic
Shielding is not recommended for examinations of the large intestine. true
What is the SID for a small bowel series? 40 inches
What are the parts (in order) of the small intestines? duodenum, jejunum, ileum
The ileocecal valve is located in which quadrant? RLQ
The jejunum is located in which quadrant(S) LUQ,LLQ
Contrast will leave the small intestines via the: ileocecal valve
Digestive movement of the large intestines includes which of the following? defecation, rhythmic segmentation, haustral churning
Which of the following is not part of the large intestines? ileum
The vermiform appendix is attached to the: cecum
Where does the large intestine begin? RLQ
What are the digestive functions of the large intestine? elimination, defecation
barium sulfate is a: suspension
A drug that can stimulate the evacuation of the bowels is a: laxative and cathartic
Which of the following are radiolucent contrast agents? room air and carbon dioxide
Before tip insertion for a BE, what is the required position of the patient? Sims
The height of the enema bag should not exceed ____ inches form the table top. 24
What size IR will be used for a small bowel series? 14X17 and 35X43cm
contraindications to BaSO4 a small bowel series are: presurgical patients and perforated hollow viscus
A 2 hour small bowel radiograph is needed. What is the location of the CR? at the level of the iliac crest
Which position can result in compression and a more uniform radiographic density of the entire abdomen during a small bowel series? prone
Once the barium reaches the ______ this can signal completion of the small bowel series. cecum
The SID for a PA projection barium enema is: 40 inches 100cm
The RAO position for a barium enema should not exceed: 45 degrees
The right colic flexure, ascending colon and the sigmoid are seen open in which position for a barium enema: RAO
The amount of rotation for a LPO (for barium enema) should be a minimum of: 35 degrees
The central ray should be centered were for a lateral rectum position? Level of ASIS
On a right lateral decubitus (Barium enema- double contrast) what parts of the colon will be on the "upside"? left colic flexure and descending colon
Which plane should be parallel with the IR for a left lateral decubitus position? midcoronal and coronal
The post evacuation radiograph demonstrates which of the following? large intestine mucosal pattern
How much angulation should be used for an AP Axial projection during a BE? 30-40
Which projection is used to elongate the rectosigmoid area of the large intestine? AP Axial
Why should the tube be dropped when angling 5 degrees or more? maintain SID
Necrosis of the bowel can occur in which the following conditions? intussusception volvulus
The kidneys and ureters are located in the _____ space. retroperitoneal
The total capacity for the adult bladder is: 350 to 500ml
The kidneys lie posterior to the spleen and liver, and anterior to the ribs. true
Which of the following may be used to reduce intestinal spasms during a barium enema? lidocaine and Glucagon
Functions of the urinary system include: Removal of nitrogenous waste, Regulate water levels, Regulate electrolyte levels
Anxiety, nausea and mild urticarial are symptoms of which kind of contras reaction? Vasomotor
70% of reactions to IV contrast will occur within: 5 minutes
A patient measures 36 cm at the level of the mid abdomen. At what level would you take your first tomographic "cut"? 12cm
Which ureterovesical junction will be visualized on an LPO? The right
Vasovagal reactions do not require immediate attention. false
Which of the following are not effects of non-ionic contrast media Separates into ions when injected and Increases blood osmolality
Nephrons are found in which section of the kidney? Cortex
LPO and RPO for an IVU should be rotated how many degrees? 30
Which of the following true when charging a mobile x-ray unit? Charge unit for at least 8 hours if fully discharged, employ parking break when charging, can be charged with 10 to 220 volts
A lead apron should always be worn by the technologist when performing a mobile radiographic exam. true
Where is the central ray centered for a portable AP chest x-ray? level T7
Excessive caudal angulation will cause the clavicle to be projected above apices on a portable AP chest x-ray? (true-false) False
What is the central ray placement for a left lateral decubitus PA projection of the abdomen? 2 inches above iliac crest
How many bones make up the phalanges (fingers and thumb)? 14
What is the most proximal part of a phalanx? base
The joints between the metacarpals and the phalanges are the: metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint
What is the total number of carpal bones? 27
The 4th and 5th metacarpals articulate with which carpal bone? hamate
The ________ bone is the smallest carpal bone in the proximal row? pisiform
The ______ is the most common fractured carpal bone? scaphoid
In the erect anatomical position which of the following is located on the lateral side? radius and trapezium
What is the location of the medial head? proximal radius
Which of the following is a breaklike process of the proximal ulna? coronoid process
The forearm radiographed in an AP projection will place the hand in which of the following positions? supinated and palm up
Ulnar deviation demonstrates carpal bones on the: radial side and lateral side
Which of the following movements separates the proximal radius and ulna? lateral rotation
The CR for a PA projection of the finger is directed toward the: PIP joint
What should be the position of the hand and fingers for a PA projection of the finger? pronated and extended
Open interphalangeal joint spaces indicate which of the following? phalanges are parallel to film
The CR should be directed toward the _____ joint on an AP projection of the thumb? 1st MCP
What carpal bone should be visualized on an AP projection for the thumb? trapezium
Which position of the thumb is achieved naturally by placing the palmer surface of the hand in contact with the IR? PA oblique
What is the major disadvantage of performing a PA projection of the thumb rather an AP? increased OID
What should be done to aid in positioning of an oblique thumb? abduct thumb
Where is the central ray directed for a PA projection of the hand? 3rd MCP joint
What is the orientation of the hand for a PA hand projection? pronated
The hand and wrist should be rotated _____ for a PA oblique projection. 45 medially
A radiograph of a PA oblique of the hand reveals the mid aspect of the third, fourth and fifth metacarpals are superimposed. What must be done to correct this positioning error on the repeat exposure? decrease rotation of the hand
The AP oblique bilateral projection: hand for the "ball catcher's" position can also be referred to as the Norgaard's method
The CR is directed to the _____ for a "fan lateral" hand? 2nd MCP joint
In ordered to reduce the carpal bones OID for a PA projection of the wrist, what should be done? arch hand slightly
Where is the CR directed for a PA projection of the wrist? midcarpal area
The hand and wrist should be rotate no more than ___ for a PA oblique projection of the wrist 45 degrees
How much are the hand and wrist elevated from the IR for the modified Stecher method? 20 degrees
The hand and wrist will be rotated ___ internally for the Gaynor-Hart method. 10 degrees
The CR is directed ____ to the long axis of the hand for the Gaynor-Hart method? 30 degrees
The AP projection of the forearm requires the arm to be fully ___ and hand ____. extended, supinated
What should be the amount of elbow flexion for the lateral forearm position? 90 degrees
What basic projections are required for a forearm radiographic series? AP and lateral
What can be palpated to assist in positioning a true AP projection of the elbow? epicondyles
What should be done to obtain an AP projection of the elbow if the patient is not able to fully extend the elbow? take only the lateral projection
What structure should be visualized free of superimposition for an AP oblique projection lateral (external) rotation of the elbow? radial neck, radial tubercle(tuberosity)
Which of the following could demonstrate proper positioning of the lateral elbow on a radiograph? humeral epicondyles superimposed and three concentric arcs visualized
Which of the following are safety features for a battery-powered, battery driven mobile (portable) unit? "dead man" switch and 6 feet exposure cord switch
Which of the following are features of a mobile (portable) c-arm fluoroscopy unit? image enhancement, digital storage, and image hold feature
Which of the following are fat pads that are visible on a lateral elbow? anterior, supinator, posterior
How much tube angulation is required for a Modified Roberts AP projection of the thumb? 15 degrees
Created by: dcausey