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Procedures Test 4

medical emergencies, standard precautions, vital signs, drug classif.,

QuestionAnswer
What are the precautions to prevent the transmission of infections in healthcare institutions? standard precautions
T/F: standard precautions apply to non-intact skin, mucous membranes, & secretions. true
T/F: standard precautions apply to all excretions. false; not sweat
What is the single most important means of preventing the spread of disease? handwashing
How do you know if you have used enough hand antiseptic? if hands are dry after rubbing together after 10-15 seconds you haven't used enough.
T/F: Handwashing needs to be done even when gloves are worn. true
What equipment provides a barrier between the patient and the healthcare provider to prevent exposure to skin and mucous membranes? PPE: personal protective equipment
What are some advantages of alcohol based hand rubs? *more accessible *more efficacious with HAIs *less time
T/F: alcohol foam kills C. diff. false
When PPE is worn, when are gloves put on? last
Name some PPE. gloves, fluid-repellent gowns, face masks, protective eyewear & respirators
What must always be done after removing and disposing PPE? handwashing
What is medical asepsis? reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual.
What is the destruction of pathogens by using chemical materials? disinfection
How is a contaminated area cleaned? always clean from least contaminated area towards more contaminated area and from top down.
What is recommended to prevent the spread of HIV? use sodium hypochlorite bleach
T/F: cleaning w/bleach is effective for all organisms. false
How long should fingernails be in the workplace? no longer than 1/4"
What jewelry is allowed to be worn in the workplace? plain wedding band and watch
When is an individual placed on transmission based precautions? when patient is infected with a pathogenic microorganism, communicable disease or when at risk of becoming infected.
What is the purpose of transmission based precautions? to reduce the risk of airborne, droplet, and contact transmission.
What are the 3 types of precautions under transmission? droplet, airborne, & contact
Which precaution includes organisms bigger than 5 microns? droplet
T/F: droplet precautions need a surgical mask, the patient is in a negative pressure room, and the patient most likely has chicken pox or measles. false; this is describing airborne precautions except a respirator (N95) is worn instead of a surgical mask.
What are the patients' condition when under contact precautions? have a multi drug resisting organism, disease spread by indirect or direct contact, requires both gown & gloves
What diseases are under droplet precautions? rubella, influenza, mumps
Influenza, rubella, and mumps are under what kind of precaution? droplet
Which kind of mask is considered a respirator: surgical or N95? N95
Droplets typically travel how many feet before dropping? 3 feet
Which travel further organisms in rubella or measles? measles because they are airborne. Rubella is droplet.
How are droplet infections spread? talking, sneezing, coughing
What PPE is worn with contact precautions? gown and gloves
T/F: Contact precautions prevent infection spread by only direct contact. false; can be spread through indirect as well.
Name some conditions/ infections that require contact precautions. varicella, hepatitis, C. diff, MRSA, VRE
What does MDRO stand for? multi drug resisting organism
T/F: radiographer who positions the patient is the "clean" member of the team. true
What kind of conditions are compromised patients under? protective isolation, equipment must be cleaned before entering room, patients have received organ transplant, burned patients, or chemo patients.
What is the constancy in the internal environment of the body, naturally maintained by adaptive responses that promotes healthy survival? homeostasis
T/F: blood pressure, body temp, heartbeat, & respiratory rate are examples of primary mechanisms that maintain homeostasis. true
T/F: electrolyte balance is not part of vital signs. true
What are measurements of those primary mechanisms that adapt to responses inside or outside the body to maintain homeostasis? vital signs
What are also reported with vital signs? mental alertness
Vital signs are invasive or noninvasive? noninvasive
What part of the body does body temperature measure? degree of heat in the deep tissues
What is the normal body temperature range in Celsius? 36.5-37.5
How is the body temperature regulated? *vasodilation & sweating *excess heat removed by ventilation *shivering generates heat *vasoconstriction conserves heat
What are the 5 routes the body temperature can be measured? *oral *axillary *tympanic *rectal *temporal artery
When a patient is said to be febrile what does that mean? fever or aka hyperthermia
What route is the most common method for measuring body temperature? oral
Which route of measuring is useless & inaccurate? axillary
Where is the tympanic route? ear
Which route is the most accurate when recording body temperature? rectal
What are temporal artery thermometers? sweep device across forehead for immediate display; closely correlates to core body temperature
Which one relates to a fever: A)hypothermia B)hyperthermia? B)hyperthermia
What incidents may cause a fever to occur? *viral & bacterial infections *surgical procedures *myocardial infarction *head injury
What is a normal respiratory rate in adults? 12-20 breathes per minute
How is respiratory rate measured? breaths per minute
What happens when inspiration occurs? diaphragm contract, chest cavity expands which causes the chest pressure to decrease. Air rushes into lungs. Diaphragm moves down
What does one single respiration consist of? an inspiration + an expiration
T/F: During expiration, the diaphragm contracts causing an increase in pressure and air flows out of the lungs. false; the diaphragm relaxes on expiration
What respiration causes the chest cavity pressure to decrease? inspiration
What is the significance of abnormal breathing? increased cellular metabolism which causes increase need for oxygen and to get rid of CO2, overall increased respiratory rate.
What is it called when your respiratory rate is greater than 20 breaths per minute? tachypnea
T/F: bradypnea is more common than tachypnea. false; tachypnea is more common
What is diaphoresis? sweating
What kind of respiration is associated with drug overdoses, head trauma, & hypothermia? bradypnea
What is dyspnea? difficult breathing
What is orhtopnea? difficulty breathing upon sitting or standing
What is an absence of spotaneous ventilation? apnea
What is the arterial palpation of a heartbeat? pulse
What is higher: adult or child pulse? child
What 3 superficial arteries are used to measure pulse? *radial *brachial *carotid
Where is your brachial pulse located? in the antecubita fossa
Why is the thumb never used to take a pulse? because it has its own pulse
What device is used to measure hemoglobin oxygen saturation of arterial blood & pulse rate? pulse oximeter
What happens to the heart/pulse when there is an increase cellular demand for oxygen? increases
What is it when your pulse is greater than 20 bpm or heart rate increases to more than 100 bpm? tachycardia
T/F: hypothermia causes tachycardia. false; it causes bradycardia
What is a decrease in heart rate? bradycardia
What is the measure of the force exerted by blood on the arterial walls during contraction & relaxation of the heart? blood pressure
T/F: systolic pressure is the peak pressure during contraction of the heart. true
T/F: dystolic pressure is the pressure exerted on the arteries when the heart is relaxed. true
Blood pressure equals what? A) systolic over diastolic B) diastolic over systolic A) systolic/diastolic
What devices measure blood pressure? sphygmomanometer & stethoscope
What is normal blood pressure? systolic: 120 mmHg or less; diastolic: 80mmHg or less
At what level should you arm be at when assessing blood pressure? level of the heart
What is the condition persistent, elevated blood pressure above 140/90 mmHg? hypertension
What unit is blood pressure measured in? mmHg (milimeters of mercury)
Hypertension increases the risk for what diseases? stroke & heart attack
What is your blood pressure when you have hypertension? 140/90 mmHg
T/F: Hypotension is a sign of shock. true
What are is AVPU scale? assessing levels of mental alertness: Alert, Verbal, Painful, Unresponsive
How is the patient when they are Verbal? drowsy, but responsive to loud voices or gentle physical contact
How is the patient when they are labeled as "painful"? unconscious & responds only to painful stimuli
What is the patients state when they are unresponsive? comatose; no response to any stimuli
What are signs of deteriorating head injury? *irritability *lethargy *slowing pulse rate *slowing respiratory rate
What is failure of the cirulatory system to support vital body functions? shock
What is the type of shock where its caused by cardiac disorders including myocardial infarction? cardiogenic
What type of shock is caused by loss of blood or tissue fluid? hypovolemic
What type of shock is cause by spinal anesthesia or damage to the upper spinal cord? neurogenic
What is the peak pressure of contraction of the heart? systolic
A respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute is what? tachypnea
The most accurate method used to measure body temperature is what? rectal
What describes the condition of having a fever? hyperthermia or febrile
What are measurements of the mechanisms that adapt to responses inside or outside the body to maintain homeostasis? vital signs
What is a device to measure hemoglobin oxygen saturation and pulse rate? pulse oximeter
Persistant elevated blood pressure above 140/90 mmHg is known as what? hypertension
The mental illness status when a patient does not respond to any stimuli and is in a coma is what? unresponsive
Name some sign/symptoms of shock. *restlessness *anxiety *tachycardia *decreased blood pressure *cold, clammy skin *pallor (pale)
What can cause anaphylactic shock? iodinated contrast media administerated
What is urticaria? hives
What are some mild reactions to contrast media? *local itching/urticaria *nausea *vomiting
What are some serious reactions to contrast media? *laryngeal edema *anaphylactic shock *cardiac arrest
What is when there is too much insulin present in the bloodstream? hypoglycemia
How do you respond to a hypoglycemic patient? pt needs to be given a quick form of carbohydrate, have patient sit down; seek medical attention especially if the patient is unconscious.
What is the condition of excessive sugar in the blood that can develop gradually over hours or days? hyperglycemia
What are the ABC's of CPR? airway, breathing, circulation (compression)
What is DNR? no code; do not resuscitate if patient has an order for this via bracelet or necklace do NOT perform CPR.
What does AED stand for? automatic external defibrillator
What are AEDs used for? to restore the normal cardiac rhythm in the event of cardiac arrest caused by ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation (arrhythmia) by delivering an electrical shock to the heart.
What is a cerebral vascular accident also known as? stroke
What causes a stroke? by occlusion of blood supply to the brain or rupture of a cerebral artery
What must be done to ensure a patient doesn't aspirate their own vomit? turn them on their side (lateral decubitus)
What's another name for nosebleed? epistaxis
What should be done in the case of a nosebleed? have patient lean forward to apply pressure against the affected nostril; apply cold compress if bleeding doesn't stop
When should medical attention be seen for nosebleeds? if the bleeding doesn't stop after 15 minutes.
What is the science concerned with the origin, nature, properties, effects, and uses of drugs? pharmacology
What is a substance used as medicine to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of disease? drug
What identifies the chemical structure of the drug; often complex and not practical for everyday use? chemical name
What is given to a drug when it becomes commercially available; aka non-proprietary name? generic name
what is the difference between the generic name and the brand name? *brand name: a drug manufactured by a specific company, a trade name, doesn't reflect chemical structure (proprietary) *generic name: drug when it becomes commercially available; simpler name from chem name (non-proprietary)
What are drugs that have similar chemical actions or functions that are grouped into categories? drug families
T/F: the brand name is also known as the non-proprietary name. false; brand name = proprietary name
T/F: over-the-counter drugs are prescription drugs. false; over-the-counter drugs are nonprescription
T/F: vitamins and other dietary supplements are controlled by the FDA and are drugs. false; not regulated by the FDA and are not considered as a drug.
What is the most common oral dose form? tablet
What are one or more drugs that in small particles are suspended in a liquid barrier? a suspension
T/F: a suspension dissolves in water. false; a suspension does not dissolve; if not shaken up it settles on the bottom of the solvent.
What is a transdermal patch? drug is applied to the skin surface and absorbed into bloodstream.
What is an example of a suspension? barium
What is a powdered or liquid drug is contained in a gelatin shell which dissolves in the stomach? capsule
T/F: you should never inject a suspension. true
What is the state of adaptation exhibited by a withdrawal syndrome to a class of drugs and that may be produced by abrupt cessation, rapid dose reduction, or administration of an antagonist? physical dependence
What is the chronic neurobiologic disease characterized by one or more of the following behaviors: impaired control over drug use, compulsive use, continued use despite harm, inappropriate use and craving? addiction
What is the process of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated. pharmacokinetics
What is the study of the mechanism of drug action on various sites in the body? pharmacodynamics
What organ is responsible for metabolizing? liver
What organ is responsible for eliminating and secreting? kidneys
What is are side effects? drug acts on tissue other than those intended, which causes response unrelated to the intended action
What does it mean for the body to have an allergic reaction to a drug? immunologic system is hypersensitive to the drug; mild to severe.
What are idiosyncratic reactions? reactions caused by individuals genetics
What are the 5 rights of drug administration? *right drug *right amount *right patient *right time *right route
What do analgesics do? relieve pain without causing loss of consciousness
What do anesthetics do? produce loss of ability to perceive pain and/or other sensations
What are Valium, Ativan, Xanax & Versed an example of? Anti-anxiety agents
Are Valium, Ativan, Xanax & Versed the generic or brand name? brand name
Whats an example of a local anesthetic? lidocaine
What do anesthetics do? produce loss of ability to perceive pain and/ or sensations
What do antibiotics do? kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria
Penicilin is a broad or narrow spectrum antibiotic? narrow-spectrum
What drugs inhibits clotting of blood? anticoagulants
what do anticovulsants do? prevents or controls seizures
What agents treat diabetes mellitus? antidiabetic agents
which type of diabetes is insulin resistance? type II
WHich type has insulin as the only treatment? type I
Which drugs prevent and treat nausea and vomiting? antiemetic
What do antihistamines do? treat acute and chronic allergic disorders and symptoms of upper respiratory tract infections and common cold.
What drugs are used to sedate people? antihistamines
What drugs inhibit platelet aggregation and are used to prevent myocardial infarction, stroke, and transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)? anitplatelets
What are used in the treatment of COPD & asthma? bronchodilators
What drugs increase the amount of urine excreted by the kidneys, thus removing sodium and water from the body? diuretics
What drugs promote the passage and elimination of feces from the large intestines; they are frequently used to prepare patients for both GI and urinary tract procedures in radiology? laxatives
What drugs dissolve thrombi (clots)? thrombolytics
what does norepinephrine do? treatment of shock
What is an example of a vasodilator? nitroglycerin
Created by: mokapis