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NMT Review Exam 5

Steve's Review Exam 5 Part 1

QuestionAnswer
Testing for pyrogens is achieved by: A)radiochromatography B)limulus amebocyte lysate assay C)ITLC D)none of the above B) Testing for pyrogens is achieved by limulus amebocyte lysate assay.
For a patient undergoing bone imaging, the information from the medical history is relevant to the interpretation of the bone image EXCEPT: A) gallbladder surgery a year ago B)abdominal surgery 10 days ago C)radiation therapy to the breast 6 months ago A)gallbladder surgery a year ago.
If a patient is injected with 99mTc-MAA in an upright position, which is most likely to be seen on the perfusion lung images: A)increased tracer activity in lung apices B)decreased tracer activity in lung apices C)decreased tracer activity in lung bases B) If the patient is in the upright position, the apices of the lung receive very little blood flow.
If the usual adult dosage of 99mTc-MAA is 4mCi, a patient who has had a right pneumonectomy should receive what dosage: A)1mCi B)2mCi C)3mCi D)4mCi B) For adult patients who have only one lung and , therefore half the lung vasculature, half the usual dosage is recommended.
Which step would be appropriate during a standby-assist wheelchair transfer: A)wheelchair should be perpendicular to the imaging table B)wheelchair footrests should be out of the way C)wheelchair should be parallel to the imaging table B) The footrests should always be moved out of the way. The wheelchair must be properly aligned to the imaging table (depending on patient condition) and locked.
Patient preparation for infection imaging using tagged white blood cells include: A)fasting for at lest 4hr B)smoking cessation for at least 24hr C)discontinuation of certain medications D)lab work and info concerning recent blood transfusions D) No special preparation is really needed for a white blood cell infection imaging other than a possible interference if the patient has had a recent blood transfusion.
Thyroid imaging may be performed with which collimators: A)flat field B)pinhole C)parallel hole D)pinhole or parallel hole D) A pinhole collimator provides an image with better resolution and offers the ability to obtain oblique views. A parallel-hole used with electronic zoom can provide a magnified image with good resolution.
Which of the following measures absorbed doses: A)millicurie B)becquerel C)gray D)all of the above C) Absorbed doses are measured in gray.
The % LVEF calculated from the net counts per min shown here End diastole=2,875; End systole=2,162 is approx: A)13% B)25% C)33% D)75% B) (2875-2162)/2875x100=25%
OSHA requires that personnel exposure records be provided to employees: A)monthly B)quarterly C) annually D)biannually C) OSHA requires that personnel exposure records be provided to employees annually.
Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by: A)60-100bpm B)R wave occurs at constant intervals C)PR interval 0.12-0.20sec long D)all the above D) The characteristics of normal sinus rhythm as they appear on an ECG tracing are: heart rate of 60-100bpm, R waves at regular intervals, P waves present and preceded QRS complex, PR interval between 0.12 and 0.20 sec long, QRS complex less than 0.12sec
After stress myocardial imaging with 201Tl, 1-1.5mCi of 201Tl may be administered before rest myocardial imaging to: A)improve patient throughput B)demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily C)demonstrate infarct size more precisely B) Defects visualized on stress images are interpreted as myocardial ischemia if the defect fills in on the resting images.
If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60min during hepatobiliary imaging, what may be administered: A)cimetidine B)morphine C)dobutamine D)furosemide B) If the gallbladder is not visualized after 1hr but tracer is seen in the common bile duct and small intestine, morphine may be administered. Morphine contracts the sphincter of Oddi.
Preparation of the patient for Meckel's diverticulum localization includes: A)administration of laxatives B)fasting for at least 2hr before imaging C)enema immediately before imaging D)oral or intravenous hydration B) Bowel preparations are contraindicated before Meckel's diverticulum imaging. It is recommended that patients fast for at least 2 hours before imaging to reduce stomach secretions.
Which 99mTc-labeled agents is the preferred tracer for demonstrating intermittent GI bleeding: A)HSA B)lidofenin C)RBC's D)Sulfur colloid C) 99mTc-labeled RBC's are preferred, because this tracer remains in the blood pool for an extended period that permits imaging up to 24 hours.
Furosemide is sometimes administered during renal imaging to: A)rule out transplant rejection B)rule out uretopelvic obstruction C) enhance tracer uptake in an abnormal kidney D)increase blood flow to the kidneys B) Furosemide is a diuretic that increases the production of urine. Activity retained in the collecting system or renal pelvis may indicate an obstruction in that area.
Which event is a normal response when furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study: A)radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladder B)the peak transit time of the radiopharmaceutical is shortened A)
Early (6hr after injection) 67Ga imaging should be performed if what condition is suspected: A)sarcoma B)osteomyelitis C)lymphoma D)bronchogenic carcinoma B) 67Ga imaging can be performed from 6hr-3 days or longer. When the exam is being performed for inflammatory process, early imaging is indicated.
The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is: A)stay home when ill B)wear gloves, mask, and hospital gown at all times C)wash hands before and after patient contact D)maintain distance from patients C) It is widely accepted that handwashing is considered to be the single most effective way of preventing the spread of infection in a medical care facility.
111In-pentetreotide normally localizes in all of the following sites EXCEPT: A)pituitary gland B)salivary gland C)spleen D)thyroid gland B) 111In-pentetreotide normally localizes in the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, liver, spleen, bladder, and bowel. NOT SALIVARY GLAND
SPECT brain imaging may begin how soon after the administration of 99mTc-exametazime: A)immediately B)15-20min C)1-2hr D)24hr C) For the best image quality, brain imaging with 99mTc-exametazime should begin no sooner than 90 min after tracer administration.
Radioactivity is visualized in all of the following areas during a normal cisternographic study EXCEPT: A)cerebral convexities B)basal cisterns C)lateral ventricles D)central canal C) Normally, cerebral spinal fluid flows out of the lateral ventricles. Reversal of this flow (or reflux) and visualization of tracer in the lateral ventricles is an abnormal finding.
Patient prep for instilling colloidal 32P into the peritoneal cavity includes: A)surgical placement of a LeVeen shunt to remove excess peritoneal fluid B)introducing 99mTc-SC into the cavity to confirm that the 32P will disperse evenly C)fasting 8-12hr B) Before instilling 32P into the peritoneal space, 99mTc-SC is introduced to demonstrate that the agent will disperse throughout the cavity, thereby uniformly irradiating the peritoneal space.
Patient prep for post-thyroidectomy 131I whole-body imaging for metastases may include all EXCEPT: A)discontinuation of thyroid hormone B)administration of exogenous TSH C)administration of 600-1000mg of potassium perchlorate 2hr before imaging C)
The administration technique for 99mTc-bicisate includes: A)direct venous stick B)infusion at peak cardiac stress C)bolus injection technique D)minimize environmental stimuli D) It is desirable to image the brain in as close to a resting state as possible, because uptake of 99mTc-bicisate can be affected by sensory input.
What instruction should be given to patients after administration of 18F-FDG for PET imaging: A)the patient may leave and return in 90 min B)the patient should rest quietly in a designated waiting area until imaging begins C)the patient may read B) Patient's who receive 18F-FDG for PET imaging must remain quiet during the interval between tracer administration and imaging.
In performing a gastric-emptying study, imaging should begin: A)15min after meal, and every 15min for 1hr B)immediately after meal, and every 15min for at least 2 hr B) With the patient upright, imaging should begin immediately after meal for 1min. Then every 15min for at least 2hr.
A patient with a chest tube arrives in the NM dept for an imaging study. The tech should: A)place the chest tube's external apparatus on the imaging table next to patient B)place chest tube's external apparatus on a level lower than the patient's chest B) For proper drainage, chest tube apparatus must always remain lower than the patient's chest.
The following studies are ordered for a patient: GFR determination 99mTc-pentetate; Shilling test 57Co 0.5uCi; Thyroid uptake 123I-sodium iodide. What order should the studies be performed? Shilling test Thyroid uptake GFR
To help clear the thyroid, liver, and bowel when performing a cardiac perfusion study with sestimibi, a tech should give what prior to imaging: A)fatty meal B)cold water C)adenosine D)dextrose intravenously B) In an effort clear activity out of the thyroid, liver, and bowel, cold water can be given to the patient prior to imaging to increase the target-to-nontarget ratio for imaging the heart.
A contraindication for performing a myocardial perfusion resting study is: A)fasting for 4-12hr B)drinking cold water prior to the study C)having a nitroglycerin drip D)NPO for 4-12hr C) A nitroglycerin drip will interfere with determining if, at rest, the cardiac arteries are partially occluded.
A technologist is working in a hot lab where the exposure rate is 20mR/hr. What sign should be on the door? Caution: Radiation Area
A pregnant tech receives 350mrem during her pregnancy according to a film badge worn at waist level. Has the NRC dose limit for the fetus been exceeded? No
If the hematocrit is 40%, and a plasma-volume determination is 3900mL, what are the derived red cell and whole blood volumes, in milliliters? TBV=3900mL/1-0.40x100=6500mL RCV=6500mL-3900mL=2600mL
If an anticoagulant is added to the blood sample, the fluid portion of the blood sample is know as: A)plasma B)serum C)antiserum D)blood complement A) Preventing clot formation with the addition of an anticoagulant will result in the fluid portion remaining as plasma. The fluid portion of a blood sample that is allowed to clot is serum.
In a hospital setting, CPR cannot legally be administered to a patient in cardiac arrest when the patient: A)has an infectious disease B)has a DNR C)is hallucinating D)has a terminal illness B) CPR should always be administered to a patient in cardiac arrest unless the patient, patient's family, or patient's physician has specifically requested that it not be done. In these cases, DNR should be clearly indicated on the patient's chart.
Pentagastrin is commonly used in which of the following scans: A)gastric emptying B)deep vein thrombosis C)LeVeen shunt patency D)Meckel's diverticulum D) Pentagastrin stimulates ectopic gastric mucosal uptake of pertechnetate by 30-60% while decreasing emptying time into small bowel and decreasing background.
Data collected from a red cell survival procedure are plotted on what type of graph paper: A)linear B)semilog C)log-log D)logit-log B) Red cell survival half-time is obtained from a graph of the net counts per minute of each blood sample plotted on the log scale and plotted on the linear scale of semilog paper.
Which of the following is not recommended during HMPAO/ECD administration: A)dim the lights B)inject using IV line C)talk calmly to patient D)ask the patient to keep eyes and ears open C) Place patient in quiet environment before injection.
If a 1:50 dilution of a solvent with a tracer concentration of 50uCi/mL is prepared, followed by a 1:200 dilution of the 1:50 dilution, what is the final dilution? 1/10,000. (1/50)x(1/200)
Which of the following medical history is relevant to 111In-capromab pendetide imaging: A)breast-feeding schedule B)mamogram results C)PSA level D)pregnancy status C) 111In-capromab is used in patients who have been newly diagnosed with prostate cancer to more accurately stage the disease before surgery.
On the basis of the data, what are the net counts in the cardiac region of interest? Cardiac ROI: total counts 28,503 in 417 pixels Background ROI: total counts 1,859 in 88 pixels 19,694. 28,503cts-(1,859cts/88pix)x417pix
If a 99mMo/99mTc generator is eluted at 0700 and again at 1300, the next day's 99mTc yield at 0700: A)is decreased B)is unaffected C)is increased D)cannot be predicted A) The yield of 99mTc is affected by 3 factors: the amount of 99Mo on the column at the time of elution, the time elapsed since the last elution, and the elution efficiency of the generator.
127mCi is equvalent to how many GBq? 4.7GBq. (127mCi)x(37MBq/mCi)=4,699MBq 1,000MBq=1GBq (4,699MBq)x1GBq/1000MBq=4.7GBq
All factors affect the amount of 99mTc eluted from a 99Mo/99mTc generator except: A)amount of 99Mo activity on column B)time elapsed since last elution C)elution efficiency D)saline volume used for elution D) The amount of 99mTc activity removed will be the same regardless of the saline volume used for elution.
According to the NRC, max allowable 99Mo concentration in 99mTc eluate at the time of administration to the patient must not exceed: A)0.15uCi B)1uCi C)5uCi D)5uCi A) According to the NRC, the max allowable 99Mo concentration in 99mTc eluate must not exceed 0.15uCi99Mo/mCi 99mTc at the time of administration to the patient.
An eluate of 99mTc-pertechnetate is assayed for 99Mo contamination with these results. 99Mo=45uCi; 99mTc=275. Should this eluate be used? No. 45uCi/275mCi=0.16uCi99Mo/mCi99mTc
If a new generator is eluted several times and each time the amount of Al in the eluate exceeds the USP limit, what should the tech do? Contact the generator manufacturer.
Which of the following 99mTc-labeled agents is approved for perfusion brain imaging: A)apcitide B)exametazime C)succimer D)tetrofosmin B) 99mTc-exametazime (HMPAO) is approved for perfusion brain imaging. Apcitide is used to visualize deep vein thrombosis. Succimer is a static renal imaging agent. Tetrofosmin is a myocardial perfusion agent.
The shelf life of most 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals is: A)4-6hr B)6-8hr C)10-12hr D)16-18hr B) Most prepared 99mTc-agents may be administered for 6-8 hours after preparation.
Created by: fhantom88