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NMT Review Test 4

Steve's Review Exam 4 Part 2

Following the injection of 99mTc-MAA for a perfusion lung scan, activity is seen in the kidneys and brain. This is indicative of: A)right to left cardiac shunt B)renal failure C)CHF D)incorrect particle size A) right to left cardiac shunt
Which ingredients in a sulfur colloid kit are combined and heated: A)99mTc-pertechnetate and thiosulfate mix B)thiosulfate mix and acid C)99mTc-pertechnetate, thiosulfate mix, and acid D)99mTc-pertechnetate, thiosulfate mix, acid, and buffer C) A sulfur colloid kit contains the following reagents: acid, sodium thiosulfate, the material from which the colloidal particle is formed, and a buffer. The buffer is added after boiling.
When preparing to withdraw a dose of 32P-chromic phosphate, the tech visually inspects the it and notes that it is a blue-green color. The tech should next: A)contact the manufacturer B)reschedule the procedure C)withdraw the dose C) 32P-chromic phosphate is a blue-green color. Because this is the radiopharmaceutical's normal appearance, the tech should continue preparing the unit dose.
What is the concentration of 99mTc-succimer if 1.5mL succimer reagent and 30mCi 99mTc-pertechnetate (concentration is 18mCi/mL) are mixed to prepare the radiopharmaceutical? 9.4mCi/mL. 30mCi/18mCi/mL=1.7mL 30mCi/(1.7mL+1.5mL)=9.4mCi/mL
Which radiopharmaciutical, when correctly prepared, will have the smallest particle size: A)99mTc-sulfur colloid B)99mTc-albumin colloid C)99mTc-human serum albumin D)99mTc-MAA C) 99mTc-human serum albumin
What method is used to calculate pediatric dose: A)weight B)Clark's formula C)body surface area D)Talbot's nomogram E)all the above E) All methods can be used to calculate pediatric dose.
A vial of 67Ga is calibrated to contain 5mCi at 0600, Pacific Standard Time, on March 8. How much activity does the vial contain on March 9 at 1200, Eastern Standard Time? 3.9mCi. 0600PST=0900EST. DF=0.787 5mCix0.787=3.9mCi
Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of radionuclides used for imaging: A)photon energy 50-500keV B)effective half-life long enough to permit imaging C)particulate emission D)low toxicity C) Particulate emission is not a desirable characteristic of a radionuclide used for imaging.
To reduce the possibility of pyrogenic reactions, all kits should be prepared using saline that contains bacteriostatic preservatives. True or False? False
All of the following are advantages of the in vitro method of labeling RBC's with 99mTc-pertechnetate EXCEPT: A)RBC's can be washed to remove substances from the plasma that may interfere with labeling B)has the lowest risk of red cell hemolysis B)
What equipment is needed to verify the size and number of MAA particles in a 99mTc-MAA preparation: A)dose calibrator B)limulus amebocyte lysate solution C)chromatography strips, solvent, developing chamber D)hemocytometer, light microscope D) Particles are viewed with the aid of a microscope. Their size and number can be determined by using the grids on the hemocytometer as a reference.
According to NRC regulations, records of patient dosage determinations must be retained for how long: A)3yrs B)5yrs C)10yrs D)indefinitely A) The NRC requires that patient unit dosage records be retained for 3 years.
During RBC labeling with 51Cr, the purpose of adding ascorbic acid to the ACD whole-body solution is to: A)prevent hemolysis of the RBC's B)maintain the pH of the mix C)prevent clot formation D)reduce the chromate ion to a lower valence state D) Ascorbic acid acts as a reducing agent to change the valence of radiochromium from +6 to +3, which stops the labeling process.
Upon visual inspection, a vial of 99mTc-MAA has a white, slightly cloudy appearance. What should the tech do: A)prepare unit doses from the vial B)prepare another vial of 99mTc-MAA C)filter the preparation D)adjust the pH of the preparation A) 99mTc-MAA is made up of aggregated protein particles (albumin). It normally appears as a cloudy, milky solution.
Convert 23mCi to SI units. 851MBq
If an MAA kit contains appx 6 million particles, what reconstituting volume is required to obtain 500,000 particles in 0.4mL: A)0.03mL B)0.21mL C)4.8mL D)12mL C) part in kit / x = part in pt dosage / vol in pt dose; 6 mil part / x = 500,000 part / 0.4mL; x = (0.4mLx6million)/500,000=4.8mL
When assembling a needle and syringe for an intravenous administration, all areas must remain sterile EXCEPT: A)outer side of syringe barrel B)syringe tip C)needle shaft D)needle tip A) The areas of a needle and syringe that must remain sterile are any areas that will come into contact with the sterile solution being withdrawn into the syringe or any part of the needle that will be introduced into the patient.
The NRC defines an unrestricted area as one in which an individual will receive less than how many millirems in an hour: A)2mrem B)5mrem C)50mrem D)100mrem A) According to the NRC, an unrestricted area is one in which access is not limited by or under control of a licensee and one in which an individual will receive less than 2mrem in any hour.
A package containing radioactive material produces 0.4mR/hr at the surface and no detectable radiation exposure at 1 meter from the package. What DOT label must be affixed to the outside of the package? Category 1 (white)
The NRC requires that all of the following information be included in unit dosage measurement records EXCEPT: A)date and time of measurement B)dose calibrator make and model C)patient's name D)radiopharmaceutical name B) Dosage measurement records must include the radiopharmaceutical, the patient's name or identification number, the prescribed dosage, the determined dosage, date and time of measurement, and name of the person who measured the dosage.
If the distance between a radiation point source and a survey meter is doubled, the measured radiation exposure rate is reduced: A)to 1/2 original exposure rate B)to 1/4 original exposure rate C)to 1/8 original exposure rate B) The inverse square law states that by doubling the distance from a point source, the radiation intensity is reduced to 1/4 of the original intensity.
If excessive Al is present in 99mTc eluate, which of the following would be expected on a bone scan: A)lung uptake B)liver uptake C)thyroid uptake D)gastric uptake B)liver uptake
According to NRC, a written directive for the administration of 89Sr-chloride must include all the information EXCEPT: A)route of administration B)radiopharmaceutical name C)patient's SSN D)signature of an authorized user C) Do not use patient's Social Security Number
According to the NRC, the radiation dose to the fetus of a declared pregnant worker must not exceed how many rems during the pregnancy: A)500 B)50 C)5 D)0.5 D) According to the NRC, the radiation dose to the fetus of a declared pregnant worker must not exceed 0.5rem (500mrem) during the entire pregnancy.
Which of the following monitoring techniques should be used to rule out internal contamination after handling a radioiodine solution: A)thyroid uptake after 24hr B)urine count after 2-4hr C)plasma count after 24hr D)pocket dosimeter reading A) Iodine is taken up into the thyroid gland whether it is ingested, inhaled, or absorbed through the skin. Therefore, using an uptake probe to measure radioiodine uptake the day after handling a radioiodine solution is the method of choice.
Which is an example of a radionuclidic impurity: A)free 99mTc in a preparation of 99mTc-sulfur colloid B)presence of 99Mo in 99mTc eluate C)presence of Al ions in 99mTc eluate D)presence of pyrogens in eluate B) Presence of 99Mo in 99mTc eluate
According to NRC, packages with which DOT labels must be checked for contamination using a wipe test: A)yellow 11 B)white 1 and yellow 11 C)yellow 11 and yellow 111 D)white 1, yellow 11, and yellow 111 D) According to the NRC, all shipments of radioactive materials identified with DOT radioactive labels of White 1, Yellow 11, or Yellow 111 must be tested for contamination using a wipe test.
The first step in the decontamination of personnel is to: A)remove contaminated personal or protective clothing B)wash contaminated areas of the skin with soap and water C)remove the contaminated person from the site of the spill A) Most contamination may be eliminated by removing a personal clothing or protective garb. Once contaminated clothing is removed, decontamination of skin surfaces should begin.
According to the NRC, patient dosage records must be retained for how many years: A)1 B)3 C)5 D)as long as the facility's license is in effect B) According to the NRC, patient dosage records must be retained for 3 years.
According to NRC regulations, a written directive must me retained: A)1yr B)3yrs C)5yrs D)indefinitely B)According to the NRC, written directives must be retained for 3 years.
If a tech stands next to a radioactive source that is producing an exposure rate of 0.5mrem/hr for 20min, what radiation dose does the tech receive: A)0.17mrem B)0.5mrem C)10mrem D)17mrem A) (0.5mrem/hr\60min/hr)x20min=0.17mrem
A wipe test gives a reading of 1240cpm with a background count of 410cpm. If the efficiency of the instrument is 35%, what is the wipe test reading in dpm? 2,371dpm (1,240cpm-410cpm)/0.35=2,371dpm
Ten millisieverts is equivalent to how many millirems? 1,000 1mSv=100mrem 10x100mrem=1,000mrem
If a tech received dosimeter readings that are nearly equal to the NRC limits, which is the most appropriate action: A)the RSO must review the technologist's work habits B)the RSO must give the technologist a written warning A) If an occupationally exposed worker has an exposure reading that approaches the NRC limits, the RSO is required to review the individual's work habits to determine what changes can be made to decrease exposure.
How often must dose calibrator constancy be performed? Daily. According to the NRC, dose calibrator constancy must be tested on a daily basis before the instrument is used to measure radiopharmaceuticals.
According to the NRC, records of survey meter calibration are retained for how long? The NRC requires that survey meter calibration records be retained for 3 years. It does not require records for daily constancy tests.
Radiochemical impurities often result from: A)introduction of water into the kit B)introduction of oxygen int the kit C)introduction of nitrogen into the kit D)a and b only E)all of the above D)
It is a proper technique to clean the septum of a kit reaction vial, and inject an amount of air equal to the volume being withdrawn when preparing a unit dose. True or False True
According to the NRC, how often must survey meters be calibrated? According to NRC regulations, survey meters must be calibrated before first use, annually, and after each repair.
What is the purpose of adding hetastarch to a blood sample drawn for the purpose of leukocyte labeling: A)to act as an anticoagulant B)to hasten the settling of erythrocytes C)to separate platelets from leukocytes D)improve labeling efficiency B) to hasten the settling of erythrocytes
The standard of practice dictates that the COR offset correction be performed how frequently on SPECT cameras: A)daily B)weekly C)monthly D)quarterly B) It is recommended that the COR offset correction be performed at least weekly.
How often should a uniformity flood be acquired on a scintillation camera: A)daily B)weekly C)monthly D)quarterly A) The standard of practice calls for acquisition of a uniformity flood every day the camera is used, prior to performing patient studies.
Static frame mode acquisition is the most appropriate type of image acquisition for which procedure: A)first phase of a 3-phase bone scan B)LVEF determination C)thyroid imaging D)renal function imaging C) A static acquisition is performed in studies where the radiopharmaceutical localizes and remains in the area of interest for a period of time long enough for imaging to be completed.
Which radionuclide source is used to acquire a uniformity correction flood: A)99mTc point source w/o collimator B)57Co sheet source w/o collimator C)99mTc point source with collimator in place D)57Co sheet source with collimator in place D) The collimator must be in place when uniformity correction acquisitions are performed because collimators have inherent variations that differ from one collimator to another.
It is recommended that high-count uniformity correction flood images be acquired how frequently? For uniformity correction maps, it is recommended that high-count flood images be acquired weekly. These flood images should not be confused with daily uniformity flood images that are acquired to check detector response.
Which will increase resolution of a "spot view" bone image obtained with a parallel-hole collimator: A)increasing the pulse-height analyzer window width B)moving the camera closer to the patient's body C)using fewer shades of gray to display the image B) The resolution of a parallel-hole collimator is greatest at its surface, so the closer the collimator is to the patient, he better the resolution will be.
If a Butterworth filter is applied to an image and the order of the filter remains constant, which frequencies will result in the smoothest image: A)0.50cycles/pixel B)0.42cycles/pixel C)0.33cycles/pixel D)0.15cycles/pixel D) The lower the cutoff frequency, the more high frequencies (which provide image detail) are removed from an image.
When a high activity of a radiouclide is used for a PET scan, image quality is degraded because: A)deadtime decreases B)random events increase C)attenuation increases D)noise increases B) As activity increases, so does the number of events.
If a 20% window is set around a centerline of 364keV, what energies will be accepted by the pulse-height analyzer? 328-400keV.
A tech changes collimators from a low-energy all-purpose to a high-resolution collimator. If the same number of counts are acquired, how will the acquisition time change Because the holes are smaller and the septa are often longer in a high-resolution collimator, fewer photons pass through the channels and strike the crystal. This decreases sensitivity and takes more time.
Created by: fhantom88
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