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NMT Review Test 3
Steve's Review Exam 3 Part 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| All of the following radiopharmaceuticals are prepared with reduced 99mTc-pertechnetate except: A)99mTc-sulfur colloid B)99mTc-oxidronate C)99mTc-MAA D)99mTc-lidofenin | A) 99mTc-sulfur colloid |
| What is the most commonly used 99mTc complex used for bone imaging. A)PYP B)MDP C)HDP | B) 99mTc-MDP is most commonly used for bone scanning. |
| On the basis of the USP criteria, which of the following statements about the particle size of MAA preparations is true: A)no particles should exceed 90um in diameter B)Some particles may be smaller than 10um C)up to 10% of the particles may exceed 150um | B) According to the USP, 90% of the particles in MAA preparation should be 10-90 microns in size. No particles should be larger than 150 microns. |
| An eluate of 99mTc-pertechnetate is assayed for 99Mo contamination immediately after elution. If the 99Mo breakthrough is determined to be 0.035uCi 99Mo/mCi99mTc and the shelf life of the eluate is 12hr, for how many hours after elution can it be used? | 12 hours. Decay correct the Mo99 & Tc99m for 12 hours. 0.035uCi Mo/0.251mCi Tc = 0.124 uCi Mo/ mCi Tc. This level is below the limit of 0.15uCi Mo/mCi Tc |
| After a radiochromatography strip is developed and cut in half, the solvent front half of the strip counted 15,345cpm and the origin half of the strip counted 55,632cpm. What is the radiochemical purity? | 78.4%) Based on the Rf values, the RP is at the origin and the RC impurity is at the solvent front. The RC purity is: Cts on origin / total counts on both strips. 55,632cpm/(55,632cpm + 15,345cpm) x 100 = 78.4% |
| Why is a patient asked to void the bladder before a whole body bone scan? | So the bladder activity does not blur the pelvic region on the image. |
| 18F-FDG can be used for brain imaging. True or False? | True. 99mTc-HMPAO, 99mTc-ECD and 18F-FDG are diffusible tracers that can be used for brain imaging. |
| A tech needs 185MBq 131I-sodium iodide solution on Nov 3. What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on Nov 3 given this information: Total act=740MBq Total vol=10mL Assay=Oct 28 DF=.597 | 4.2mL. |
| In labeling RBC's with 51Cr-sodium chromate, which of the following reagents is used to prevent the blood sample from coagulating: A)ACD solution B)EDTA C)heparin D)sodium fluoride | A) ACD solution, EDTA, heparin, and sodium fluoride all may be used as anticoagulants. However, for labeling RBC's with 51Cr ACD solution is the anticoagulant of choice. |
| All of the following medications has been shown to interfere with in vivo 99mTc labeling of RBC's except: A)doxorubicin B)heparin C)penicillin D)lidocaine | D)lidocaine |
| What dose calibrator reading would verify that the maximum activity of 99mTc-pentetate was prepared: Concentration=25.0mCi/mL Total volume=5mL | 125mCi. 25mCi/mL x 5mL = 125mCi |
| In radiopharmacy lab, good radiation protection includes all except: A)wearing disposable gloves B)wiping the top of the vial with betadine solution C)using syringe shields | B) wiping the top of the vial with betadine solution is not radiation protection. |
| If 99mTc-exametazime is prepared at 0900 to label WBC's, it should be used no later than what time: A)0930 B)1100 C)1300 D)1500 | A) When 99mTc-exametazime is used to label WBC's, methylene blue stabilizer is omitted from its preparation. For this reason, the preparation should be used within 30 minutes. |
| Upon visual inspection, a vial of 99mTc-medronate appears to be white and slightly turbid. What should the technologist do? | 99mTc-medronate, a bone agent, should be a clear, colorless solution. Therefore, the technologist should not use the original vial because of its abnormal appearance. |
| What is the % of radiochemical impurity of the 99mTc-pentetate reparation: system 1:Origin=3uCi HR-Tc Solvent front=177uCi 99mTc-pentetate; System 2: Origin=275uCi 99mTc-pentetate HR-Tc Solvent front=15uCi 99mTc-pertechnetate | 6.9%) % HR-Tc 99m = 3uCi / (3uci + 177uCi) x 100 = 1.7% ; % free pertechnetate = 15uCi / (15 uCi + 275uCi) x 100 = 5.2%; Total RC Impurity = 1.7% = 5.2% = 6.9% |
| If a 290uCi/kg dose is needed, approximately how many millicuries should a 95-lb patient receive? | 12.5mCi 95lb x 1kg/2.2lb=43.18kg |
| Which needle size is the most likely to cause coring of the rubber closure of a medication vial: A)27 gauge B)25 gauge C)22 gauge D)16 gauge | D)16 gauge. Larger-gauge needles are more likely to damage the rubber closure, especially after multiple withdrawals. |
| According to NRC, which sign should be posted on the door a a radiopharmacy lab in which radiation levels measure 7.5mR/hr: A)no posting required B)caution radioactive materials C)caution radiation area D)caution high radiation area | C)The NRC requires that restricted areas, such as a radiopharmacy lab, be posted with specifically worded signs depending on the radiation level present. A "Caution: Radiation Area" sign should be posted when an individual could receive more than 5mrem/hr |
| To determine the transportation index for a package containing radioactive material, the package must be monitored at: A)surface of package B)6in from surface C)1m from surface D)2m from surface | C) The U.S.DOT defines the transport index of a package containing radioactive materials to be the dose rate measured at 1 meter from the surface of the package. |
| To comply with NRC regulations, personnel radiation exposure records must be maintained: A)3 years B)5 years C)10 years D)indefinitely | D) According to the NRC, personnel radiation exposure records must be retained indefinitely. |
| If a point source produces an exposure rate of 50mR/hr @ 1 foot,at what distance from the source will the exposure rate be reduced to 2mR/hr? | 5 feet. Use the inverse square law |
| An occupationally exposed worker who is required to wear a personal radiation monitor must wear it at work except when: A)the worker leaves the NM dept B)the worker is personally undergoing a radiographic procedure | B) Occupationally exposed workers should not wear a personal monitor when undergoing medical procedures that involve radiation. |
| According to NRC, a written directive for the administration of 15mCi of 131I-sodium iodide must include: A)dosage B)patient's thyroid uptake value C)patient's birth date D)lot number or Rpharmaceutical | A) A written directive for administration of 131I-sodium iodide in dosages greater than 30uCi must include the patient's name and the dosage to be administered. |
| According to the NRC, the annual radiation exposure to members of the general public must be limited to no more than: A)500mrem B)100mrem C)50mrem D)2mrem | B) According to NRC regulations, the annual radiation exposure to members of the general public is limited to 100mrem |
| Which of the following materials is the best choice for shielding 32P: A)lead B)plastic C)tungsten D)no shielding is required | B) 32P is a pure beta-emitting radionuclide. When it is placed in shielding material of a higher atomic number (Z), such as lead or tungsten, bremsstrahlung radiation is produced. |
| The tiny particles possessing a negative charge of 1.6 x 10^-19 coulomb that orbit the nucleus of an atom are termed: A)electrons B)neutrons C)protons | A) electrons |
| During a room survey, a tech identifies an area that exceeds the trigger level. What should the tech do next: A)determine the identity of radionuclide B)perform a wipe test to determine if the contamination is removable C)cover the area | B) A wipe test will determine if the contamination is removable. |
| In the case of a radioactive spill that involves contamination and life-threatening injuries, which action should be given priority: A)decontamination of the victim B)confinement of radioactive spill C)medical treatment of the the seriously injured | C) Medical treatment for life-threatening conditions always takes precedence over any other activity. |
| Nurses caring for 131I therapy patients who require isolation should be advised that the major sources of contamination include the patient's: A)feces, urine, and blood B)urine, saliva, and perspiration C)blood and urine D)sputum and blood | B) For up to about 1 week after administration of 131I-sodium iodide, iodine that is not bound to thyroid hormone is found in the urine, perspiration, sputum and saliva. |
| According to NRC regulations, a tech cannot use a diagnostic dosage that exceeds 20% of the dosage prescribed unless: A)no other Rpharmaceutical is available B)the patient weighs more than 20% over standard reference weight C)the authorized user approves | C) A dosage cannot be administered if the activity falls outside the range established by the authorized user or differs from the prescribed dosage by 20% or more, unless the authorized user directs the dosage to be administered. |
| If a woman who is breast-feeding needs 131I therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer, how long must she suspend breast-feeding: A)48hr B)1 week C)she may not resume it with this child D)suspension of breast-feeding is not necessary | C) According to the NRC, a woman who is breast-feeding should completely cease breast-feeding that child after she has received 131I-sodium iodide. |
| According to the NRC, wipe test results must be reported as: A)cpm B)dpm C)mR/hr D)mrem/hr | B) According to the NRC, wipe test results must be reported in dpm. |
| Fifteen mrem is equivalent to how many mSv: A)0.0015 B)0.015 C)0.15 D)1.5 | C) 1mrem = 0.01mSv, therefore 15 x 0.01mSv = 0.15mrem |
| A package containing radiopharmaceuticals is delivered before the NM department opens. According to the NRC, the package must be checked in and monitored: A)as soon as the dept opens B)w/i 3 hr after the dept opens C)w/i 6 hr after the dept opens | B) NRC regulations state that packages containing radioactive material must be monitored no later than 3 hr after delivery during regular working hours or within 3 hr of opening the department. |
| On the basis of this data: Wipe test count=375cpm; Background count=120cpm; and a well-counter efficiency of 45%, the results of the wipe test in dpm are? | 567dpm) wipe test in dpm = (gross cpm - bkgd cpm) / efficiency as decimal: 375cpm-120cpm/0.45=567dpm |
| Which of the following measure the amount of red cells in circulating blood: A)red cell volume B)hemoglobin C)hematocrit D)A and C | D) red cell volume and hematocrit |
| 89Sr-chloride is used to treat: A)malignant ascites B)polycythemia vera C)bone pain caused by metastases D)Grave's disease E)A and C | C) bone pain caused by metastases |
| An energy resolution test is performed on a scintillation spectrometer using 137Cs. If the FWHM is determined to be 53keV and the photopeak energy is 662keV, what is the % energy resolution of the instrument? | % energy resolution = FWHM / Energy of RN in keV 53keV/662keVx100=8% |
| If a dose calibrator linearity test begins by assaying 50mCi of 99mTc-pertechnetate, for how long should the test be carried out: A)24hr B)48hr C)66hr D)72hr | C) The standard of practice calls for a dose calibrator linearity test to be carried out until the original activity is decayed to 30uCi or less. If the test begins with 50mCi it will take 11half-lives or 66hr for the original activity to decay to 30uCi. |
| If a PLES transmission phantom is used, how many images must be acquired to assess linearity over the entire FOV of a scintillation camera: A)one B)two C)three D)four | B) A PLES phantom contains lead bars that have the same width and spacing. Two images taken 90deg to one another can be used to assess linearity over the entire FOV. |
| According to the NRC, all dose calibrator quality control results must be retained for: A)1 year B)3 years C)the life of the instrument D)as long as the facility's license is in effect | B) All dose calibrator quality control records must be retained for 3 years |
| What is the effect of changing the order of a Butterworth filter from 3 to 5: A)image will be smoother B)image will be sharper C)image will appear unchanged D)star artifact will be eliminated | B) As the order of a Butterworth filter is increased, more high frequencies are retained in the image. High frequencies add sharpness to the image, so the overall image will be sharper. |
| A 256 x 256 matrix requires how much more computer memory than a 64 x 64 matrix? | 16 times more memory. 256x256=65,536pixels 64x64=4,096pixels |
| Which statement is TRUE about an image acquired with zoom: A)background counts are increased B)image resolution is increased C)more memory is required D)contrast is decreased | B) When zoom mode is engaged before acquisition, the image is magnified because a small region of interest is represented by a large number of pixels. This increases resolution. Background is decreased. |
| If a 99mTc-medronate bone image and a 111In-tagged white blood cell image are acquired simultaneously with a 128 x 128 word-mode matrix, how much computer memory is required to store the images? | 64kB) Each image needs to be stored in a separate matrix. One 128 x 128 word mode matrix contains 16384 words (128^2) or, because there are 2 bytes per word, 32768 bytes. 2 such matrices requires 65536 bytes. A kB contains 1024 bytes. 65,536 x 1/1024=64kB |
| An uptake probe would be used for which of the following studies: A)plasma volume B)red cell mass C)red cell survival D)splenic sequestration | D) Splenic sequestration study requires external counting over the spleen, liver, and precordium. By using the uptake probe with a flat-field collimator, counts from surrounding tissue and background are minimized. |
| How much memory will be needed for a gated-equilibrium cardiac function exam that is acquired in 30 frames with a 128 x 128 byte mode matrix? | 491,520bytes. The total memory requires equals the matrix height in pixels x matrix width in pixels x number frames: 128x128x30=491,520bytes |
| What energies will be accepted by a 15% window placed around a centerline of 159keV: A)135-183keV B)144-174keV C)147-171keV D)151-167keV | C) Half of the percentage window is above and half is below the centerline. 159keVx.15=24keV 159(+-)12keV |
| A SPECT study is acquired using 60 projections over a 360deg rotation. Each projection is acquired for .5min. If the counting rate is 144,000cpm, how many counts will be collected for the total acquisition? | 4,320,000 counts. 60projections x .5min=30min 30minx144,000cpm=4,320,000counts |
| Using a 125uCi source, 30,500cpm were collected during a camera sensitivity determination. If the background count is 1,200cpm, what is the sensitivity of the instrument: A)234cpm/uCi B)244cpm/uCi C)29,300cpm D)3,662,500cpm | A)234cpm/uCi. 30,500cpm-1,200cpm/125uCi=234cpm/uCi |
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