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Pharma. Final LTC

Which of the following should a patient undergoing dialysis NOT take? antacids multivitamins iron pills aspirin laxatives
What is the clinical syndrome resulting from renal dysfunction called? uremia dialysis acute renal failure interstitial nephritis
During what stage of renal failure does the patient require chronic dialysis? end-stage renal disease loss of renal reserve renal insufficiency chronic renal failure
What is a goal of renal therapy? all of the above reestablishing an appropriate intravascular volume restricting fluids in volume-overload patients treating underlying fluid, electrolyte, or PH problems
What hormone is diminished in patients with anemia due to renal failure? erythropoietin hematocrit pyridoxine renin
Which drug below causes immature red blood cells (reticulocytes) to be released from bone marrow into the bloodstream? epoetin alfa(Epogen, Procrit) pyridoxine (vitamin B-6) levocarnitine (Carnitor) cinacalcet (Sensipar)
What drug is an amino acid derivative and is a cofactor needed for the trandformation of long-chain fatty acids? levocarnitine (Carnitor) ergocalciferol epoetin alfa(Epogen, Procrit) sevelamer(Renagel)
Which of the following drugs used for renal disease may be given by mouth? cincalcet(Sensispar) epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit) iron sucrose (Venofer) darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp) all of the above
Which of the following drugs may be used to prevent rejection in kidney transplant patients? cyclosporine (Sandimmune) epoetin alfa(Epogen,Procrit) oxybutynin(Ditropan) tolterodine(Detrol)
What is the first oral therapy for interstitial cystitis? pentosan polysulfate sodium(Elmiron) bethanechol (Urecholine) methenamine (Cystex,Hiprex,Urex) mycophenolic acid(Myfortic)
Which of the following agents for urinary tract problems is available OTC? phenazopyridine (Azo-Standard, Uristat) flavoxate(Urispas) oxybutynin (Ditropan) tolterodine(Detrol) all of the above
What antibiotic (or combination) may be used to treat urinary tract infections(UTIs)? all of the above amoxicillin (Amoxil,Trimox) amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) ciprofloxacin(Cipro) nitrofurantoin (Macobid,Macrodantin)
When taking which of the following antibiotics (or combinations)should sunscreen be used? sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim,Cotrim,Septra) amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) amoxicillin (Trimox) finasteride (Proscar) all of the above
What class of drugs is commonly used to treat benign prostratic hyperplasia(BPH)? alpha-adrenergic blockers beta-1 adrenergic agonists histamine (H-1) blockers penicillins all of the above
What drug is often given in combination with flutamide (Eulexin) to treat BPH? leuprolide (Eligard,Lupron,Depot,Viadur) nilutamide(Nilandron) alfuzosin(Uroxatral) Flutamide should never be used in combination with other drugs
Who should never handle crushed tablets of finasteride(Propecia,Proscar)? pregnant women adolescents men with BPH children
What is the only osmotic diuretic on the market? mannitol (Osmitrol) furosemide (Lasix) hydrochlorothiazide(Esidrix) spironolactone(Aldactone)
What is an example of a "loop" diuretic? furosemide(Lasix) triamterene(Dyrenium) goserelin(Zoladex) methenamine(Cystex,Hiprex,Urex)
What pacemaker cells of the heart generate a normal cardiac rhythm? sinoatrial (SA) node bundle of HIS (AV bundle) left ventricle chorae tendineae
What term describes an abnormal, hyper-exitable site within the heart that becomes the dominant pacemaker? ectopic pacemaker atrial flutter infact atrioventricular (AV) pacemaker
Which of the following is a class I or membrane stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug? all of the above lidocaine (Xylocaine) procainamide(Pronestyl) quinidine flecainide (Tambocor)
Which antiarrhythmic drug also has anticonvulsant properties? phenytoin (Dilantin) lidocaine(Xylocaine) propranolol (Inderal) diltiazem (Cardizem, Dilacor XR) all of the above
What term describes a thickening of the heart muscle in an enlarged heart? myocardial hypertrophy cardioversion cardiomegaly myocardial infarction (MI)
Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of angiotensin-converting enzyme and is used to treat congestive heart failure and hypertension? lisinopril(Prinivil, Zestril) digoxin (Lanoxin) atropine(Atropin) clonidine (Catapres)
Beta blockers may be used in combination with what other drug to reduce the risk of death or reoccurence following a myocardial infacrtion? aspirin digoxin (Lanoxin) atenolol (Tenormin) bismuth subsalicylate
What form of angina is characterized by coronary artery spasm? variant angina stable angina unstable angina coronospasm
Which of the following drug classes is not used to treat angina? angiotensin II-receptor antogonists nitrates beta blockers clacium channel blockers
What drug below is a phosphodieterase inhibitor used for IV therapy of congestive heart failure and calcium channel blocker intoxication? nitroprusside (Nitropress) digoxin immune FAB (Digibind) nesiritide (Natrecor) milrinone (Primacor)
What does the systolic blood pressure reading represent? cardiac output pressure during the filling of the heart pressure after the heart has emptied total peripheral resistance
Which of the following is a selective aldosterone antagonist used to treat hypertension? eplerenon (Inspra) losartan (Cozaar) minoxidil (loniten) doxazosin (Cardura)
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is also available in a topical form that can be used to treat baldness? minoxidil (Loniten, Rogaine) epeprostenol (Flolan) terazosin (Hytrin) propranolol (Inderal) none of the above
Which of the following antihypertensive drigs binds to angiotensin II-receptors and rarely causes coughing as an adverse effect? valsartan(Diovan) benazepril (Lotensin) prazosin (Minipress) propranolol (Inderal)
Which of the following anticoagulant drugs is avialable in tablet form? warfarin (Coumadin) heparin buvalirudin (Angiomax) dalteparin (Fragmin)
Which of the antiplatelet drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody? abciximab (ReoPro) eptifibatide(Integrillin) tirofiban (Aggrastat) clopidogrel (Plavix) all of the above
What class of drugs are used to dissolve clots that have already formed? fibrinolytic agents anticoagulants antiplatelets all of the above
Which fibrinolytic agent below binds to fibrin, converts plasminogen to plasmin, and is incompatibile with dextrose? tenecteplase(TNKase) streptokinase (Streptase) alteplase (Activase) urokinase(Abbokinase)
Which of the following drugs used for TIAs and stroke prevention blocks ADP receptors, reducing platelet adhesion and aggregation? clopidogrel (Plavix) aspirin pentoxifylline (Trental) dipyridamole (Persantine)
Diurectics help to lower blood pressure by reducing preload increasing preload reducing afterload increasing afterload
What is the effect of preventing acetylcholine (ACh) on skeletal muscle? paralysis by fatigue pain neuromuscular anesthesia involuntary muscle contractions
Which of the following muscle relaxant acts on benzodiazepine receptors? diazepam (Valium) dantrolene (Dantrium) methocarbamol (Robaxin) orphenadrine (Norflex)
Which of the following muscle relaxants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance? diazepam (Valium) cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) metaxalone(Skelaxin) baclofen(Lioresal)
What substances reduce pain, fever, and inflamation? salicylates synovia tophi acetaminophen
What effect of nonnarcotic analegesics most commonly limits their use? gastrointestinal disturbances fever allergic reactions visceral pain water retention
What is the prototype NSAID? aspirin (or indomethacin, Indocin for comparison) acetaminophen (Tylenol) ibuprophen (Motrin) naproxen (Aleve, Naprosyn)
How do salicylates reduce fever? increasing blood flow to skin decreasing blood flow to skin increasing blood flow to hypothalamus decreasing blood flow to hypothalamus
Wha dose of aspirin(per day) may be fatal? 10g 650mg 1g 3.5g
What patient should not take misoprostol (Cytotec), a drug sometimes used to counter the gastric irritating effects of NSAIDs? pregnant women young children adolescent males senior citizens all of the above
Why should aspirin not be given to children? Reye's syndrome can develop in children who have been exposed to chicken pox. It may cause salicyism. It increases the risk of developing chicken pox. It can cause irreversible bleeding problems.
What prostaglandin molecule, which facilitates platelet aggregation, is inhibited by low dose (81mg-325mg) aspirin? thromboxane A-2 prostacyclin PGE-2 cyclooxygenase
What clinical effect of aspirin is also produced by acetaminophen (Tylenol)? fever reduction GI irritation altered platelet adhesion and bleeding inflamation reduction
What is the most serious adverse effect associated with acetaminophen? liver damage kidney damage anaphylaxsis GI bleeding
What form of enzyme cyclooxygenase is associated with inflamatory pain, but not with protection of the GI lining? COX-2 COX-1 COX-3 COX-4
What is a laboratory test rheumatoid arthritis? ESR CBC Hct WBC with diffeential
NSAIDS can interact with hich of the following drug classes? all of the above other NSAIDs, including aspirin diurectics oral hypoglycemics digoxin
When injected, a 30mg dose of which of the following NSAIDs is as effective as 12mg of morphine in relieving pain? ketorolac (Toradol) ibuprophen (Motrin) indomethacin (Toradol) piroxicam
Which of the following drugs is least likely to produce GI irritation at analgesic doses? celecoxib (Celebrex) naproxen( Aleve) sulindac (Clinoril) aspirin
Which of the following is an example of a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? all of the above adalimunab (Humira) anakinra (Kineret) methotrexate (Rheumatrex) azathioprine (Imuran)
Which of the following drugs used to treat gout interferes with leucocytes, reducing their mobility and joint phagocytosis? colchicine indomethacin (Indocin) allpurinol (Zylonprim) sulfinpyrazone (Anturane)
What large molecule is broken down by thyroid cells to produce thyroid hormones? thyroglobulin triliodothyronine thyroxine thyroid-stimulating hormone
Which hormone listed below is not released by the pituitary gland? thyroxine (T-4) growth hormone (GH) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) prolactin (PRL)
When a patient has had the thyroid surgically removed, due to cancer, for example, what is the drug of choice for chronic therapy? levothyroxine (Levothroid, Synthroid) liotrix (Thyrolar) methimazole (Tapazole) propylthiouracil all of the above
Which of the following drugs or drug classes may cause male impotence? all of the above alcohol corticosteroids haloperidol (Haldol) opiates
Which of the following drugs used to treat male impotence does not act by inhibiting the enzyme phosphdiesterase? alprostadil (Caverject, Edex, Muse) sildenafil (Viagra) vardenafil (Levitra) tadalafil (Cialis)
What is a danger of using nicotine in combination with estrogen? increased risk of blood clots birth defects ineffective birth control increased risk of breast cancer all of the above
What is a potential use of progestins in women? all of the above birth control prevention of uterine cancer in post-menopausal women taking hormone replacement therapy treatment of menstrual dysfunctions reducing the incodence of endometrial hyperplasia
Which of the following drugs is used for emergency contraception? levonorgestrel (Plan B) ethinyl stradiol-drospirenone (Yasmin) estradiol cypionate-medroxyprogesterone (Lunelle) estradiol (Estrace,Vivelle)
Which of the following drugs may interact adversely with oral contraceptives? all of the above erythromycin carbamazepine prednisolone clofibrate
What is needed to get clacium into the bone? vitamin D vitamin A vitamin B vitamin C vitamin E
Which of the following drugs act to prevent bone loss by modulating estrogen receptors? raloxifene (Evista) alendronate (Fosamax) risedronate (Actonel) zoledronic acid (Zometa)
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseasees is caused by a fungus? candidiasis syphilis gonorrhea nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
Which of the following drugs is used to treat genital herpes? acyclvir (Zorirax) doxycycline (Vibramycin) penicillin G benzathine(Bicillin L-A) clotrimazole (GyneLotrimin, Mycelex)
Which of the following antibiotics is often the drug of choice for treating syphili? penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin L-A) ketoconazole (Nizoral) valacyclovir(Valtrex) azithromycin (Zithromax)
What is not a potential adverse effect of corticosteroids? hypotension de to increased sodium excretion cataracts increased suceptibility to infections osteoporosis
What is the most common form of diabetes? type II type I gestational secondary
Which drug listed below has been shown to speed the healing of lower extremity diabetic ulcers? becaplermin gel(Regranex) nateglinide (Starlix) rosiglitazone(Avandia) repaglinide (Prandin) all of the above
Which synthetic insulin is the longest acting? glargine (Lantus) lispro(Humalog) aspart(Novolog) NPH (Humalin N)
Which of the following oral hypoglycemic agents acts by interferring with carbohydrate metabolism and glucose absorption? acarbose (Precose) pioglitazone(Actos) glipizide (Glucotrol) metformin (Glucophage)
Which of the following synthetic human growth hormones is recommended for use in children of families of short stature? Growth hormone treatment is not recommended in this population somatrem (Protropin) samatropin (Humatope) Both drugs are equally effective in boys but somtrem is more effective in girls.
Which of the following is a type of sweat gland? eccrine endocrine epocrine sebaceous
What is the top layer of skin known as? epidermis ectoderm endoderm none of the above
What term is used to describe the excessive response of the skin to sun in the presence of a sensitizing agent? phototoxicity photoreactivity photoconductivity acne
Which of the following drugs is used to treat acne vulgaris? tretinoin (Retin-A) botulinum toxin type A (Botox) alefacept (Amevive) nystatin (Mycostatin)
Which of the following drugs is a neurotoxin used to treat facial wrinkles? botulinum toxin type A (Botox) pimecrolimus (Elidel) azelaic acid (Azelex) tretinoin (Retin-A)
What skin condition is methotrexate, an inhibitor of normal bone marrow tissue cell growth, used to treaat? psoriasis dandruff acne unwanted facial hair all of the above
What drug is used to treat cold sores? docosanol (Abreva) imiquimod (Aldara) diethyl ether (Wartner) miconazole (Monistat)
Which of the following drugs is not used to treat fungal infections? fluororacil(Efudex) butenafine (Lotrimin Ultra, Mentax) clotrimazole (Lotrimin) tolnaftate (Tinactin)
Which of the following antibiotics is availble in a topical form? all of the above clindamyc (CleocinT) metronidazole (MetroGel) mupirocin (Bactroban)
In general, what is the maximum dosage and the number of consecutive weeks that superptent steroids are given? 45 to 50g per week; 2 weeks 1 to 2g per week;10 weeks 10 to 20g per week;5 weeks 100g per week;1 week
Which of the following drugs, derived from chrysanthemums, is available OTC and is used for treating head lice? pyrethrins (Rid Mousse) lindane permethrin (Elimite, Nix) betamethasone dipropionate (Diprosone)
What term defines chemicals that free objects from pathogenic organisms or render them inert? disinfectant germicide preservative sanitizer
What chemical was traditionally used in the eyes of newborns to prevent gonococcal infection? silver nitrate benzalkonium chloride (Zephiran) benzocaine (Hurricaine) povidone-iodine(Betadine)
What drug applied topically for wound healing is also used as an anticonvulsant? phenytoin (Dilantin) carbamazepine (Tegretol) chlorhexidine gluconate (Hibclens) carbamide peroxide (Gly-Oxide Oral)
What causes age-related macular degeneration (AMD)? unknown excessive sun exposure adverse reaction to antibiotics infection
What drug is used to treat chronic ketatococonjunctivitis (dry eye)? cyclosporine (Restasis) loteprednol (Alrex, Lotemax) ketotifen (Zaditor) olopatadine (Patanol) all of the above
What is the most commonly occuring eye disease? glaucoma keratoconjunctivititis (dry eye) cataracts otalgia
Which of the following is given orally to treat glaucoma? acetazolemide iodide (Diamox) apracionidine (Iodipine) betaxolol (Betoptic) echothiophate iodide (Phospholine Iodide) all of the above
Which drug used to treat glaucoma may cause light-colored eyes to turn brown? latanoprost(Xalatan) dorzolamide (Trusopt) apraclonidine (Iopidine) ketofine (Zaditor)
Which of te following otic agents contains an antibiotic to fight infection and a steroid to reduce inflamation? ciprofloxacin-dexamethasone (Ciprodex) triethanolamine polypeptide-oleate condensate (Cerumenex) sulfacetamide-prednisone (Blephamide) antipyrine-benzocaine (Augalgan)
What technique is defined by the FDA as using living organisms or parts of organisms for specific purposes? recombinant DNA complementary DNA (cDNA) biologic-response modification transcription
What determines protein activity? Twisting and folding of amino acid chains into a three-dimensional shape is required for protein activity. A sequence of three amino acids is required for protein activity. Linear chains of amino acids convey protein activity. Continous folding and refolding (reshaping) of amino acid chains over time is necessary to maintain protein activity over an extended time frame.
What is the first step in creating a protein, based on a specific DNA sequence? replication transcription translation opsonization
Antitumor drugs are all of the above most efficient when tumor cells are dividing rapidly. extremely toxic. periodically stopped for two to six weeks.
Which of the following is NOT a drug used to prevent nausea and vomitting resulting from chemotherapy? meperidine (Demerol) ondansetron (Zofran) granisetron (Kytril) aprepritant (Emend) palonosetron (Aloxi)
Which of the following drugs is produced using recombinant DNA technology? aldesleukin (Proleukin) flutamide (Eulexin) cyclosporine (Sandimmune) taxmoxifen(Nolvadex) all of the above
Which of the following drugs may be given to suppress infection and increase the production of white blood cells in patients receiving chemotherapy? pegfilgrastim (Neulasta) interferon beta-1a(Avonex, Rebif) interferon beta-1b(Betaseron) dornase alfa (Pulmozyme)
Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is true? all of the above It is produced by the kidneys The recombinant DNA product is known as epoetin alfa. Erythropoietin increases the production of red blood cells. The drug should not be shaken, as this may denature the glycoprotein and inactivate it.
Which of the following interferons is used to treat multiple sclerosis? interferon beta-1b(Betaseron) interferon alfa-2a(Roferon A) interferon alf-2b (Intron A) all of the above
Which of the following drugs is a tissue plasminogen activator and is used to dissolve formed clots? altepase(Activase) dornase alfa(Pulmozyme) antihemophilic factor (Alphanate) filmagastim (Neopogen)
Which type of immune cells are involved in humoral immunity? B cells T cells small lymphocytes macrophages
What is the most common immunglobulin, making u about 80%: IgG IgA IgD IgE IgM
Which immunity process is mediated by lymphocytes and macrophages and is responsible for organ transplant rejection and hypersensitivity reactions? cellular humoral lymphatic opsonization
Which of the following drugs is used to treat symptoms of organ rejection, although the first dose may cause sever pulmonary edema? muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3) azathioprine (Imuran) mycophenolate (CellCept) tacrlimus (Prograf)
Which of the following hormones is incorrectly paired with the type of cancer it is used to treat? flutamide (Eulexin)--breast abarelix (Plenaxis)--prostate triptorelin (Trelstar)--prostate megestrol--breast
Which drug listed below is indicated for ovarian cancer, should not be used in pregnant patients, and almost always causes hair loss? paclitaxel (Taxol) fludarabine (Fludara) chlorambucil (Leukeran) cisplatin (Platinol)
Which of the following cytoprotective(rescue) drugs is used to reduce the side effects and toxicity of chemotherpay agents? all of the above amifostine (Ethyol) dexraoxane (Zinecard) leucovorin (folinic acid)
What two drugs should also prescribed for patients given alemtuzumab (Campath) for B-cell lymphocytic leukemia? diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) aspirin and erythromycin clopidogrel (Plavix) and carbamazepine (Tegretol) acyclovir (Zovirax) and azithromycin (Zithromax)
What drug combination, used for mucositis, is known as "Magic Swizzle"? lidocaine-diphenhydramine-Maalox phenol-sodium borate-sodium bicarbonate-glycerin chlorhexidine gluconate sodium hyaluronate-sodium thiosulfate
What drug has the National Cancer Institute recommended oncologists to prescribe to patients for no more than 5 years? tamoxifen (Nolvadex) anastrozle (Arimidex) fulvestrant (Faslodex) letrozole (Femara) all of the above
What organ maintains the largest stores of fat-soluble vitamins? liver small intestines kidneys spleen
What vitamin found in dairy products, liver, and fish oils is also known as retinol? vitamin A vitamin D vitamin E vitamin K
Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? vitamin C vitamin A vitamin D-3 vitamin E all of the above
What is another name for vitamin B-9? folic acid thiamine riboflavin nicotinic acid pyridoxine
In contrast to two-in-ones, three-in-one TPN solutions may crack or oil out are more stable and thus last longer. allow precipitants to be easily seen. can remain at room temperature for 48 hours.
What form of calcium is most commonly used in antacids? calcium carbonate calcium chloride calcium acetate calcium gluconate
Which of the following is the leading cause f fatal poisonings in children? iron tablets mouthwash antidepressants aspirin
What term describes a method in which the patient is fed through a vein? total parenteral nutrition enteral nutrition peroral nutrition none of the above
What characterizes beriberi? vitamin B1 deficiency vitamin C deficiency vitamin A deficiency vitamin D defieciency
What is a complication associated with total parenteral nutrition (TPN) all of the above acid-base imbalance high serum lipid concentrations electrolyte imbalance liver toxicity
Which of the following is a recommended or common addition to total parenteral nutrition mixtures? all of the above sodium vitamin B-6 copper insulin,regular
What herbal supplement , sometimes reerred to as "Nature's Prozac", is used for mild-to-moderate depression? St. John's Wart ginkgo feverfew saw palmetto
Which dietary supplement is incorrectly paired with its medicinal use? garlic-impotence echinacea-common cold chonroitin/glucosamine-arthritis melatonin-sleep
Which of the following drugs may cause tinnitus(ringing in the ear), nausea, and vomitting in children with doses greater than 150mg/kg? aspirin fluoxetine (Prozac) morphine acetaminophen (Tylenol)
What drug may be used to treat cholinergic agonist-induced bradycardia? atropine digoxin immune Fab (Digibind) naloxone (Narcan) penicillamine (Cuprimine)
What reversal agent may be used to treat respiratory depression caused by an opiod (narcotic)overdose? naloxone (Narcon) edetate calcium disodium (Calcium Disodium Versenate) phentolamine (Regitine) glucagon (GlucaGen)
What is the drug of choice for treatin an overdose of acetaminophen (Tylenol) acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) flumazenil (Romazicon) protamine sulfate sodium thiosulfate (Versiclear)
Which of the following is the fastest calcium salt to diffuse in the bloodstream? calcium chloride calcium acetate calcium gluconate calcium carbonate
What drug is recommended by ACLS guidelines for cardiac emergencies and Code Blue carts? all of the above atropine dopamine(Intropin) naloxone(Narcan) verapamil(Isoptin)
What bioterrorism agent is derived from castor beans, inhibits protein synthesis, and has no known treatment? ricin anthrax tularemia smallpox
What term is used to describe the working units of the kidneys? nephrons glomeruli renin filtrons
What do the kidneys regulate? all of the above blood plasma volume concentration of waste products in the blood plasma acid-base balance electrolyte concentrations
Created by: ASteinhaus



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