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Exposures Tests


The acronym PACS stands for _______ system. Picture archival and communication
A PACS consists of the following: 1. Storage Device 2. Display workstation 3. imaging modality 1,2 and 3
A universally accepted standard for exchanging medical imaging via a networked set of display workstations, archive and imaging modalities is_______. DICOM
Reading images on a computer scree is known as _______ reporting. Soft copy
Any computer that a health care worker uses to view a digital image is a(n) _________. Display
Which part of the PACS houses all of the historic digital image data along with the current digital data being generated by the modalitites? Archive
The acronym RIS stands for _______ system. Radiology Information.
Which of the following are considered PACS architectures? 1. Distributed system 2. Client/ server-based system 3. Web-based system 1,2 and 3
In which system architecture do the images and application software reside on a central server? Web-based system
What term is used to describe the reading of images outside of the hospital walls, generally at home or in remote locations? Teleradiology
which is he most interactive part of a PACS? Display workstation
The number of pixels contained on a display is determines the _________. Resolution
Which workstation is used to review images after acquisition but before being sent off for reporting? Technologist QC workstation
Which of the following would be considered categories of workstation functions? 1. Navigation functions 2. Image manipulation and enhancement functions 3. Image management functions 1,2 and 3
Which function determines how images are displayed on the monitor(s)? Hanging protocol
Digital annotations may be used to indicate the right or left side of the patient. T/F False
Which function increases the size of an area on the image? Pan/Zoom
Incorrect patient demographic information is not a big deal in a PACS. T/F False
Which advanced function allow the used to put multiple images together into one single image, such as scoliosis series? Stitching
The place where records or documents are preserved for historic purposes is the _______. Archive
Which of the following are true regarding the image manager? 1. Contains the master database of all on the archive 2. Controls the receipt of all images 3. Stores images in its database 2. 1 and 2
What term is used to describe a database that is running tow identical databases simultaneously? Mirrored
Which PACS component interfaces with the radiology information system and hospital information system? Image manager
Which of the following information might be found in the DICOM header of an image? 1. Patient Name 2. Lab Results 3. Ordering Physician 1 and 3
The acronym for RAID is redundant ________. Array of inexpensive disks. and Array of independent disks.
Which term is used to describe when data are broken up into pieces and each disk receives a "piece" of the data? Striping
Striping of data decreases the reliability and performance of the archive. T/F False
Which of the following are commonly used as long-term storage for DICOM images? 1. Digital Linear tape 2. Optical disks 3. Film 1 and 2
The greatest disadvantage of using tape as a long-term archive solution is its unreliability over multiple uses throughout the years. T/F True
What term describes a company that provides outsourcing of archiving and management functions for a pay-per-use charge? Application service provider
which term describes the act of keeping a complete copy of the archive in another remote location? Disaster Recovery
Which device scans an analog film and produces numeric signals based on the appearance of the the film? Film Digitizer
Any supplemental device connected to a PACS that performs a specific function is known as a(n)_______. Peripheral
Film Digitizers use which of the following technologies to acquire digital images? 1. TFT 2. CCD 3. Laser 2 and 3
Which film digitizer uses fluorescent bulbs to aid in converting the analog film image into a digital image? 1. Laser film digitizer 2. CCD film digitizer 3. TFT film digitizer 2 only
Wet Imagers use chemicals to process the films. T/F True
What do dry imagers use to develop the image on the film? heat
Dry imager film is more sensitive to what in comparison to conventional film? 1. Heat 2. Cold 3. Humidity 1 and 3
Which of the following are common uses of imagers? 1. Backup 2. Legal Cases 3. Outside of physicians 1,2 and 3
Other than printing films, another alternative would be to ___________. Burn images to an optical disk
Radioactive materials that are introduced into the body and concentrate in specific organs are termed: radionuclide tracers
The radioactive materials identified in question 1 are introduced into the body: via inhalation, orally, via injection
One of the most common radioactive materials used in nuclear medicine procedures is: technetium 99m
a study of the skeletal system using radioactive materials is termed: bone scintigraphy
Nuclear medicine may be used in the evaluation of Alzheimer's disease. T/F True
A congenital defect of the wall of the ileum commonly assessed with nuclear medicine is termed: Meckel's Diverticulum
What radiopharmaceuticals is used for thyroid uptake studies? Sodium iodide ( iodine 131)
Which member of the nuclear medicine health team administers the radionuclide to the patient? Nuclear medicine physician
Ionizing radiation with characteristics of an electron but emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive atom is identified as a(n)? beta particle
The spontaneous transformation of a radionuclide resulting in decrease of the number of radioactive events in a sample is the definition for: Decay
PET is an Acronym for: Positron emission tomography
In many cases, PET can detect abnormal function before the onset of physical symptoms. T/F True
What is the product of a positron and electron combining the undergoing annihilation during the PET imaging process? Two 511 kEv photons are formed
What PET tracer compound is used to measure glucose metabolism within tissues? 18F-FDG
What is the name of the device required to produce positron-emitting elements? Cyclotron
Most PET tracers have a half-life of: 120 seconds to 110 minutes
Regions of metastatic disease in the body have a(n) ______ uptake of 18F-FDG. Increased
Which PET tracer is given to determine whether certain areas of the hear are receiving sufficient blood flow (perfusion)? 13N-ammonia
The process of combining PET and CT data sets into a hybrid image is the definition for: co-registraion
Glucose metabolism in the brain naturally increases as an individual grows older. T/F False
Another term for an internal type of radiation therapy is: brachytherapy
Which of the following are considered types of teletherapy? X-ray, Linear accelerator, Cobalt 60 All of the above
Cobalt 60 units emit gamma rays at the intensity of ______ MeV. 1.25
Which of the following is most effective in the treatment of deep-seated, cancerous tissue? cobalt 60
Which member of the radiation oncology team prescribes the treatment plan? Radiation oncologist
Which member of the radiation oncology team outlines a plan to deliver the desired dosage to the treatment area? Medical dosimetrist
medical ultrasound uses high frequency sound waves in the range of: 1-17MHz
Which type of ultrasound unit is used to examine the structure and behavior of flowing blood? Doppler
What is the name of the physical principle that is applied when the transducer produces a sound wave? Piezoelectric effect
A transducer serves as both a transmitter and receiver of echo waves. T/F true
According to current research, there are moderate adverse biologic effects associated with the use of medical ultrasound. T/F False
A longitudinal ultrasound scan produces a sagittal perspective. T/f True
Which of the following types of pathology is not well demonstrated with ultrasound: Bowel obstruction in newborn
During an ultrasound procedure, gel is applied to the skin to prevent loss of signal between transducer and skin, which would result in poor image. t/F true
What is the name of the ultrasound procedure in which amniotic fluid is withdrawn from the uterus for analysis? amniocentesis
A sonographer is expected to provide initial interpretation of the ultrasound images. T/F True
MRI provides a better functional assessment of joints compared with musculoskeletal ultrasound. T/F False
Doppler ultrasound is replacing conventional venography of the lower limbs. T/F True
Ultrasound of the eye may be performed to assess for: Retinal detachment
MRI uses a low-energy form of ionizing radiation. T/F False
MRI can produce axiall, sagittal, and coronal perspectives of the anatomy. T/f True
With modern MRI the re-emitted radio wave signals form the patient are captured by: receiver or antenna
which of the following nuclei found in the body is most often used in MRI? Hydrogen
The rate of precession decreases as the strength of the magnetic field increases. T/F false
the longer the radio wave is applied to the patient, the greater the angle of precession. T/F True
Matching o the frequency of a precessing nucleus with a radio wave frequency is termed: Resonance
Longitudinal or spin lattice relaxation when spins begin to precess at samller angles is termed: T1
Transverse of spin-spin relaxation when spins begin to precess out of phase with each other is termed: T2
the quantity of hydrogen protons within structures being imaged by MRI has no effect on MRI contrast. T/F false
what is another term for spin density? proton density
all high density or thick structure appear light on MR images. T/F False
one tesla equals: 10,000 gauss
Which of the following statements is true in comparing CT with MRI? CT is better in demonstrating gastrointestinal diseases.
Patients with cardiac pacemakers must not be allowed within the ________ gauss line. 5
Oxygen tanks and wheelchairs must not be allowed within the _______ gauss line. 50
What device is subject to torquing within the magnetic field? Ferromagnetic aneurysm clips
What occupational workers must have conventional radiographic images of the orbits before an MRI head scan? Machinist
Patient restraints should be used with claustrophobic patients to prevent movement during an MRI exam.t/f False
The loud "knocking" heard during an MRI study is due to the gradient coils. t/f True
Pregnancy is considered an absolute contraindication for an MRI procedure. T/F False
ON a T1- weighted image, fat appears as a _____ signal. bright
On a T2- weighted image, white brain matter appears as a ______ signal. Dark gray
CSF will appear as a bright signal on T1-weighted images. T/F false
What technique can help reduce cardiac motion artifacts? Gating
CT is recommended over MRI in the evaluation of sever spinal trauma.. T/f true
MRI is recommended for diagnosing_______ of the hip. avascular
Functional MRI is based on the : Increase in blood flow to the local vasculature that accompanies neural activity in the brain
Neural Activity in the brain during a functional MRI procedure is gauged by the: blood oxygen level dependent (bold) signal
Who is credited with the invention of the fluoroscope? Edison
What mA range does the X-ray tube operate in during fluorscopic mode? 0.5-5.0 mA
To see the best detail, humans must use _______ vision. Photopic
Maximum radiation intensity can be no more than_________ R/minute at the table top during fluoroscopy. 10
Minimum source to table top distance for a fixed fluorscopic unit is _____ inches. 15
What is the minification gain of an intensifier that has an input phosphor of 12 inches diameter, and an output phosphor of 1 inch diameter? 144
What is the brightness gain of an intensifier that has a flux gain of 200 and a minification gain of 30? 6000
What is the flux gain of an intensififer that has a brightness gain of 1440 and a minification of 36? 40
A method that brightness is automatically controlled in the image intensifier includes: Measuring the current flow between the photocathode and the anode of the intensifier tube.
Contrast during fluoroscopy is ____ over that of film radiography of the same structures. Decreased
Modern image intensifiers are capable of resolution of _____ line pairs per mm (non-mag mode) 4
During magnification mode in a dual filed image intensifier, resolution of the image: increases
quantum mottle in image systems is affected by: Eye integration time, video noise, the minimum number of remnant photons reaching the input phosphor
Input phosphor: emits light when struck by remnant X-rays, made of cesium iodide
Electrostatic lenses: focuses electrons in straight lines to e back of tube, determines the magnification capability of the image intensifier( changes the electron's focal point)
Output phosphor: produces bright light after interaction with electrons, made of zinc cadmium sulfide
Photocathode: made of cesium and/or antimony compounds that give off electrons when struck by light
105 mm spot film 3rd best resolution
conventional (non-intensified) fluroscopy best resolution
intensified fluroscopy 2nd best resolution
televised fluroscopy worse resolution
name the type of solid state TV pickup. CCD (Charge coupled device)
Two fields of 262.5 lines, when combining by mixing lines 1,3,5,... with lines 2,4,6... is referred to as : interlacing
Potentially, more radiation exposure to the technologist will take place with what type of radiographic spot film loading? Back loader
Where is the worst place to stand during a fluoroscopic procedure? at the top or bottom of the table
What is the minimum thickness in Pb/eq for aprons ad gloves as mentioned in the text? 0.25
What is coupled with portable fluoroscopic units ("c-arms) to produce static images? videodisk recorders
The frequency with which breast cancer occurs in American women is: one in eight
The chance of breast cancer occurring in men is about ____ of that for women. 1%
The American College of Radiology (ACS) recommends that women older than the age of 40 years should have a screening mammogram every: year
The United States Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA) of 1994 requires that: all sites(except VA facilities) meet quality standards and be certified by the DHHS
What is another term for the tail of the breast? Axillary prolongation
The 2 o'clock position in the left breast corresponds to the __________ position in the right breast. 10 o'clock
The amount of glandular tissue from one female to another is fairly consistent. T/F True
Another term for the Cooper's ligament is the suspensory ligament. T/F True
In most breasts, the craniocaudal diameter is greater than the mediolateral diameter. T/F False
The glandular tissue of the breast is divided into 15-20 : Lobes
Blood vessels, connective tissue, and other small structures seen on a mammogram are termed: trabeculae
Which of the following breast tissues is least dense? A.Glandular B. Adiopose C. Fibrous D. Connective Adipose
What is the breast classification of a 45-year-old woman with three of more pregnancies? Fibro-fatty
What is the breast classification of a 35-year-old woman without children? Fibroglandular
The portion of the the breast near the nipple is termed the: Apex
Using the anode-heel effect the cathode of the x-ray tube should be placed over the: Base
The anode-heel effect is less evident in mammography systems because of the anode configuration of the x-ray tube. T/F false
Digital mammography in all likelihood will become the method of choice for breast cancer screening exams because of its post-processing capability and other advantages. T/F true
What is the magnification factor with an SOD of 40"(100 cm) and an SID of 60" (150 cm)? 1.5x
What is the ACR standard for maximum repeat exposures taken during mammography? Less than 5%
Which of the following imaging modalities can best demonstrate a hematoma or a cyst in the breast? Ultrasound
Which imaging modality is most ideal for a breast with an implant? MRI
Computed radiography has a lower operating costs over film-screen mammography imaging. T/F True
Which of the following radionuclides is often used with mammoscintingraphy? Technetium-99m-sestamibi
Sentinel node studies will asses the spread of breast cancer to the surrounding bones of the thorax. T/F false
Which one of the following imaging modalities is best for detecting an intracapsular rupture of a breast implant? MRI
What abbreviation would apply to the ACR abbreviation SIO? Superolateral- inferomedial oblique
Where should the image receptor be placed for the craniocaudal projection? At the level of the inframammary crease
What kV range should be used for film-screen mammography? 25-28
Where should hte marker and patient identification be in regard to the anatomy? near axilla
how is thee breast positioned for the medio-lateral oblique projection? Drawn anterior and medial away from chest wall
How much CR angulation is required for the medio-lateral oblique position of an average-sized breast? 45 degrees
How much CR angulation is required for the medio-lateral oblique projection of a heavy and large-sized breast? 40-60 degrees
The most common projections performed as routine or basic projetions throughout the United State and Canada are: CC and MLO
Which projection best demonstrates inflammation or pathology in the deep lateral aspect of breast? Medio-lateral oblique
What is the average, mean glandular dose for most film-screen breast projections? 100-150mrad
Why can't AEC be used for mammography of a breast with an implant? The image will be overexposed
How should a breast implant be moved for a cranio-caudal projection? It is displaced posteriorly toward the chest wall
What CR angle ( in relationship to the IR) is required for the mediolateral (true lateral) projection? 90 degrees
Fibrocystic breast is considered to be a benign condition. T/F True
Firm compression should not be used on a breast with an implant. T/F True
The most common type of breast cancer is: infiltrating ductal carcinoma
A small growth inside the duct of the breast near the nipple is termed the: intra-ductal papilloma
Noninvasive cancers (DCIS and LCIS) comprise approximately ____% of al lbreast cancer diagnosis. 15%-20%
Fibrocystic condition: High density multiple benign-type cysts throughout the breasts
Fibroadenoma: benign breast tumor having smooth, well-defined margins
Breast carcinoma: Breast lesion with clustered calcifications with irregular margins.
Cysts: Masses within breasts of similar or only slightly higher density than surrounding areas.
For a film processor, monitoring should occur: Same time every day
JCAHO approval is linked to ________ reimbursement. Federal, State, insurance company
Which monitoring tests should be done on a daily basis? processor sensitometry
Test tools for focal spot size estimation include each of the following except a: A. Pinhole B. Star test pattern C. line pair resolution D. Motorized synchronous top D. Motorized synchronous top
Focal spots measuring 0.3 mm or less should be measured with a: Star test pattern
Which type of equipment is used to measure half-value layers? A. Sensitometer B. Aluminum Filters C. Dosimetry equipment D. More than one of the above D. more than one of the above
When testing collimator accuracy, an SID error of _______ is allowed. 2%
The centering mark should be within ______ of the light field central ray. 1%
Distance indicators are checked with a Tape measure
A generator must be recalibrated when the kVp drifts beyond ________kVp of the labeled setting. 5
The accuracy of single-phase generator time setting can be measured with a: Spinning top test
The accuracy of a 3-phase generator time settings can be measured with a motorized synchronous spinning top test
Exposure time settings should be maintained within _______ of the labeled setting. +/-5%
Most AECs utilize ______ ion chambers in various combinations. Three
The test instrument that best determines film screen contact is the. Wire mesh
If a department took 17,960 films, with 898 of those films being repeats, what is the repeat rate for the department? 5%
The people on a diagnostic imaging QC team include: A. Staff Radiographer B. Radiology administrators C. The radiologists D. All of the above D. All of the above
Quality control is the aspect of quality assurance that monitors technical equipment to maintain quality. T/F True
Kilovoltage settings remain stable over time. T/F False
Exposure time settings remain stable over time. T/F false
Quality Assurance(QA): A plan for the systematic observation and assessment of the different aspects of a project, service or facility.
Acceptance: The type of testing done before using a new piece of equipment.
Which of the following is not a step of daily monitor QC? a. Make sure that the monitor is dust-free. B. Retrieve a monitor test pattern. C. allow the monitor to warm up for 30 min D. Do not document the retrieval time for the test pattern. D. Do not document the retrieval time for the test pattern.
Which of the following are quality assurance activities in the Radiology department? A. Monitoring patient wait times after the patient has been checked in. B. Daily monitor testing C. processor speed testing D. all of the above A. Monitoring patient wait times after the patient has been checked in.
Why is it important to establish a repeat analysis database? Identify trends in exposure errors, detection of poor AEC calibration, Identification of chronic positioning errors by a technologist
The person who is the first line of defense in recognizing QC issues is: Radiologic Technologist
Which one is not responsibility of the radiation physicist? A. Repeat rate analysis B. Exposure Trends C. Spatial frequency response testing D. QC record Review Spatial frequency response testing
Why is it important to know how artifacts occur? identification of quality trends, reporting small artifacts to avoid long term problems
Which of the following are performed by a service technician? A. Reader erasure functions B. Verify digital interfaces C. Phospher accuracy testing D. All of the above D. All of the above.
Why are CT studies not as commonly performed for long bone measurement as compared with orthorentgenography? The cost and the specialized equipment required
A limb-shortening surgical procedure is termed: Epiphysiodeses
What is the name of the special metal ruler used in orthorentgenography? Bell-Thompson ruler
Which one of the following factors is critical when performing orthorentgenography? A. Patient does not move between exposures B. The use of short exposure time techniques C. a long SID must be used for less beam divergence Patient does not move between exposures
Long bone measurements of the lower limb require that the entire lower limb be included on the radiograph. T/F false
Gonadal shielding can not be used for long bone measurement of the lower limb. T/F false
What is generally true for an arthrogram of a knee? the physician injects local anesthetic using a 10cc syringe with a 21 or 25 gauge needle
What other imaging modality is frequently used to study the soft-tissue structures of the knee? MRI
Which one of the following instruments is not used during a knee arthrogram? A. Razor B. 10cc syringe C. 20 gauge needle D. arthroscope D. Arthroscope
Why is the joint exercised following injection of contrast media prior to filming during and arthrogram? Coat the soft tissue structures with contrast media
Why is the knee flexed laterally and medially during fluoroscopy spot filming or cross table radiography in knee arthrography? to open the menisci
which of the following is not an indication for knee arthrography? A. injury or tears to the rotator cuff B. to evaluate for Baker's cyst C. injury or tears to collateral or cruciate ligaments D. Injury or tears to menisci A. injury or tears to the rotator cuff
Which one of the following projections would not be commonly performed during a shoulder arthogram? A. AP external/internal rotations projections B. scapular Y projection C. Glenoid Fossa projection D. transaxillary B. Scapular Y projection
Where is the contrast media instilled during a myelogram? Subarachonoid space
What is the most common clinical indication for a myelogram? HNP
Myelography is often contraindicated if a lumbar puncture has been performed within the previous: 2 weeks
Which of the following is another contraindication for myelogrpahy? A. Archnoditis B. blood in CSF C. Increased intracranial pressure D. All of the above D. all of the above
What is the most common injection site for a myelogram? L3-4
Why is positioning block placed under the abdomen for the lumbar puncture during a myelogram? to widen the interspinous spaces
How is water-soluble contrast media eliminated following a myelogram? It is excreted by the kidneys
What is the most common type of contrast media given during a myelogram? nonionic, water soluble iodine
Why is the supine AP projection rarely taken during a thoracic spine myelogram? contrast media tends to pool near the mid-thoracic region
Which of the following conventional routines is suggested by the author for cervical myelography following fluroscopy and spot filming? 1. AP 2. cross table lateral 3. Swimmer's lateral(horizontal beam) 4. 45 degree obliqus 2 and 3
Which of the following is not a factor that directly controls or influences the amount of tomographic blurring? A. amplitude B. tube trajectory C. OID D. Exposure angle Amplitude
The pivot point along the connecting rod between the x-ray tube and film in a tomographic system is termed: Fulcrum
The amount of speed of tube movement during the tomographic process is termed: amplitude
Objects within the body that are farther from the focal plane will have: increased blurring
The least complex of tomographic directional movements is: linear
Objects within the objective plane will appear as: sharp and in focus
Which one of the following exposure angles will produce the thinnest objective plane? A. 10 degrees B. 20 Degrees C. 30 degrees D. 40 degrees D. 40 Degrees
In autotomography, the patient moves while the film and tube remain stationary. T/F true
Pantomogrpahy is ideal for tomography of the lungs. T/F False
Which of the following is not part of the rotator cuff? A. Suprasinatus B. infraspinatus C. Teres major D. subscapularis C. teres major
The rounded, upper portion of the uterus is called the: Fundus
The most common indication for performing hysterosalpingography is? non-patent tubes
Which position is used for hysterosalpingography? lithotomy
The duct from the parotid gland is referred to as the: Stensen's Duct
The best projection for visualizing the sublingual gland would be what? inferiorsuperior occlusal
What material locates a small, transparent lymph vessel in the foot required for canulation? blue dye
What material is used for radiographic examination of the lymphatics? oil soluble iodine contrast agent
What is the main vessel called that drains the lower part of the body of lymph and empties into the left subclavian vein? thoracic duct
Which element of blood promotes blood clotting? platelets
Which of the following is not a function of the cardiovascular system? A. Producing red blood cells B. transporting oxygen, nutrients, and hormones C. removing waste products D. Maintaining body temp A. producing red blood cells
Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle? mitral valve
Which of the following vessels is not a major branch of the aortic arch? A. Right common carotid artery B. left common carotid artery C. Brachiocephalic artery D. Left subclavian artery A> Right common carotid artery
The S-shaped portion of the internal carotid artery is termed the: Carotid siphon
Eventually, the internal jugular vein connects with ____________ to form the brachiocephalic vein. Subclavian Vein
Where do the openings for the coronary arteries orginate? Ascending aorta
Which vein drains and receives blood from the intercostal, bronchial, esophageal and phrenic veins? Azygos vein
The portal vein carries blood form the abdominal digestive track to the : liver
Which vein is commonly used to draw blood form the arm? median cubital
Which is the longest vein in the body? A. Great saphenous vein B. inferior vena cava C. Femoral vein D. popliteal vein A. great saphenous vein
Which vessel is the preferred site for arterial puncture for most angiography? Femoral artery
The contrast medium of choice for angiography is: nonionic water-soluble iodniated
Which of the following is not a contraindication for angiography? A. impaired renal function B. taking anticoagulant medication C. unstable cardiopulmonary status D. None of the above; all are contraindications D. All of the above; all are contraindications
What is the purpose of a heating device on an electromechanical injector? To reduce the viscosity of the contrast media by keeping it near body temperature
Injection flow rate in angiography is not affected by: body temperature
Which of the following conditions contraindicates the use of a femoral approach during cerebral angiography? lack of pulsation in the femoral artery
Which position is most useful in preventing super-imposition of the aortic arch and its branches with other structures during thoracic aortography? LAO
The most common reason or clinical indication for a percutaneous billary drainage is: palliative procedure for unresectable malignant disease
Uterine artery embolization is commonly performed to : control life-threatening postpartum bleeding
Embolization: Stopping blood flow to a site of pathology
Thrombolysis: a procedure wherein a clot or thrombus is disintegratd (lysed)
Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) Dilation of a stenosed vessel using a balloon catheter
Transjugular intrahepatic portosytemic shunt (TIPS) A procedure to treat variceal bleeding caused by portal hypertension
Inferior vena cava filter: A procedure for patients at high risk for developing pulmonary emboli
Stent Placement: Placement of a cage like metal device in the lumen of a vessel to improve blood flow
Percutaneous vertbroplasty: A procedure for vertebral pain due to instability and compression fractures caused by osteoporosis and/or other reasons by injecting cement into the vertebral body
Percutaneous biliary drainage: A procedure for billary stone removal, biopsy, dilation of obstructed bile duct, with internal or external drainage.
Kyphoplasty: A procedure to stablize compression fractures caused by osteoporosis and/or other reasons by injecting cement into the vertebral body AFTER placing a balloon device into the vertebral body to expand it.
Created by: Hebbuh
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