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Collaborative FInal in 108

1. The shoulder girdle consists of two bones: 1. Clavicle 2. Humerus 3. Scapula 4. Sternum c. 1 and 3 (Pg 173)
2. The joint where the acromion and the clavicle articulate is called the ________________. c. acromioclavicular joint ( Pg 173)
3. The __________ is the expanded distal end of the spine that extends superiorly and posteriorly to the glenoid cavity. d. Acromion (Pg 174)
4. The three borders of the scapula are:1. The lateral axillary border 2. Inferior border 3. Medial vertebral Border 4. Ventral Border 5. Superior b. 1, 3, and 5 (Pg 174)
5. The slightly constricted area directly below and lateral to the head of the Humerus is the ___________. c. Anatomic neck (pg 172)
6. What degree of angulation is used on the tube for an Inferosuperior Axial Projection (Lawrence Method) of the Shoulder? d. 25-30◦ (pg 187)
7. The female clavicle is usually ______ and ______ curved than the male clavicle. A. Shorter, less (pg 173)
8. To place the humerus in a true AP position, an AP radiograph of the shoulder is taken with __________ rotation. b. External (pg 185)
9. The sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular joints are classified as ______ joints. d. Plane (pg 217)
10. For an AP Shoulder with internal rotation you center ______ to the coracoid process. a. 2.54 cm inferior (pg 185)
11. For an AP projection of the Scapula the tube should be angled ______? d. 0◦ (pg 200)
12. What projection is preformed to see the glenoid process in profile? c. Grashey Method (pg 190)
13. What positioning error is present when the left iliac wing is elongated on an AP pelvis radiograph? b. Left rotation ( pg 267
14. The femurs are abducted _________ degrees from the vertical plane for a bilateral frog-leg projection. c. 40-45◦ (pg 276)
15. AP Axial "Inlet" projection requires what CR angulation? d. 40◦ caudad (pg 278)
16. What is another name for the "Frog-Leg" projection? a. Modified Cleaves Method (pg 276)
17. A male pelvis is generally _______ and _______ as compared to a female. c. Narrower, deeper (pg 264)
18. The hip bones can also be called ________? a. Pelvic girdle c. Innominate bones b. Ossa coxae d. All of the above ( pg 261)
19. The trochanters of the proximal femur are joined posteriorly by a thick ridge called the __________? a. Intertrochanteric Crest (pg 260)
20. What method would be performed to see the anterior/posterior rim and anterior/ posterior column of the pelvis? b. Judet method (pg 279)
1. The fourth and fifth metacarpals articulate with which carpal? Hamate- page 125
A. What is the large concave depression that articulates with the distal humerus (also known as semilunar notch)? Trochlear notch- page 128
2. What means “little head” and is located on the lateral aspect of the radius? Capitulum- page 129
3. Part of the elbow joint, the proximal radioulnar joint has which type of movement? A. Trochoidal- page 131
4. Absence or displacement of what fat stripe may be the only indicator of a fracture on the radial aspect of the wrist? A. Scaphoid fat stripe- page 133
A. Which form of rotation separates the radius and ulna? AP- lateral rotation- page 132
5. A small to medium plaster caster uses which increase in exposure? Increase kV 5-7- page 134
6. What modality demonstrates metastatic bone lesions, osteomyelitis, and stress fractures? Nuclear medicine- page 135
A. What is the hereditary disease marked by abnormally dense bone? Osteopetrosis- page 136
A. What is a slow-growing benign cartilaginous tumor most often found in small bones of the hands and feet of young adults? Enchondroma- page 137
A. A mediolateral projection is advised for which digit if the patient can assume this position? Second- page 141
7. A patient comes into the ER with a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament at the MCP joint of the first digit which resulted from hyperextension, which method would best demonstrate this condition? Folio- page 146
A. Which projection of the hand is ideal for locating foreign bodies? Lateral extension- page 150
8. How much is the CR angled for a PA axial scaphoid with ulnar deviation? 10-15 degrees- page 155
9. How much should the patient flex their wrist for a carpal bridge- tangential projection? 90 degrees- page 159
10. Which is not superimposed for a lateral forearm projection? Shafts of the radius and ulna- page 161
A. Which projection of the elbow best demonstrates the radial head and neck and the capitulum? Lateral (external rotation) oblique- page 164
11. How much is the elbow flexed for the Coyle Method to visualize the coronoid process? 80- page 168
A. A patient comes in and cannot fully extend or partially flex their elbow, it only remains flexed at 90 degrees, how would the CR be angled for the AP projection of the elbow? 10-15 degrees- page 163
A. The lateral (lateromedial) projection of the wrist may demonstrate osteoarthritis in which carpal and the first CMC joint? Trapezium- page 154
1. individuals are able to judge the quality of the professional services they receive. Few p. 310
a. What law(s) have an impact on the legal aspects of medical records a Statutory b Civil c Common Both A and C p. 324
2. Part of the standards contains the mandatory rules B p.310
a. Professionals who are experts in health data collection, analysis, monitoring, maintenance, and reporting activities in accordance with established data-quality principles, legal and regulatory standards Registered health information technicians p. 318
a. The code of ethics adopted by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists is part of the ARRT Standards of ethics A p.310
a. The most challenging step in the problem solving process is Selecting the best solution p.311
a. Most professional codes of ethics are based primarily on the principle of Beneficence p.312
3. Health records can be stored as a. Hard copy or microfilm b. Computerized images c. Completely electronic All the above p. 319
a. The requires that medical staff of an institution have bylaws, rules, and regulations Joint commission p.321
A. In a paper record who is responsible for correcting an error Person who made the error p.321
a. is the most common claim made against health care providers and organization Negligence p. 330
4. The patients should always be considered when performing diagnostic or therapeutic procedures Autonomy p. 335
a. A consent form requires the signature of the patient and a witness; the witness should be Disinterested third party p. 335
a. If a radiographer performed a cervical spine examination on a patient that was supposed to have a KUB, the radiographer could be charged with Battery p. 332
a. What is the estimated amount of all medical negligence claims that are somehow related to diagnostic imaging 10% p. 331
a. A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort for which of the following a. Hard copy or microfilm b. Computerized images c. Completely electronic D All the above p.331 (answer)
a. The classification system is based on an inpatient classification scheme that categorizes patients who are medically related with respect to diagnosis and treatment and who are similar in lengths of stay DRG p.322
5. Hospitals have the right to a. Charge a fee to a patient for a copy of their medical record b. Get a completed and signed patient authorization Both of the above p. 326
a. The system of is controlled within the group Ethics p.310
6. Comprehensive listing of medical terms and codes for the uniform designation of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures CPT-4 p. 318
1. The hyoid bone considered part of the _______ a Pharynx b Larynx c Trachea d None of the above. Pg 72
2. The right primary bronchus is ______ and ______ than the left bronchus Wider: Shorter Pg 74
3. The lungs are made up of a light, spongy, but highly elastic substance called ¬¬¬____ Pleura Parenchyma Pg 75
4. A hypersthenic patient has a thorax is _____ and _____ but is shallow in the vertical dimension. Broad: Deep Pg 78
5. A good PA chest radiograph, should have a minimum of _____ ribs. 10 Pg 78
6. Which pathological condition, commonly called Hyaline membrane disease in infants, ..resulting in leakage of fluid and blood into the spaces between alveoli. Respiratory distress syndrome Pg 87
7. When centering for a PA chest, the CR should be centered to midsagittal plane at the level t7, _____ cm below the vertebral promimens 18 to 20 cm Pg 90
8. How far below the jugular notch should the CR be centered at for an AP chest. 8 to 10 cm Pg 94
9. Which oblique chest will provide best visualization of the left lung. A LPO b RPO c RAO d Both A and C Pg 97
10. Where should the CR be directed for an AP Lordotic? 3 to 4 inches below jugular notch, 15 to 20 degrees Cephalad Pg 96
11. The spleen is located in the _____ quadrant of the abdomen. LUQ Pg 110
12. The xiphoid process corresponds at level _____ T9-T10 Pg 111
13. The large folds of the peritoneum that holds the small intestine in place is the _____ Mesentery Pg 108
14. The pathological condition which Barium enema is strongly contraindicated is Ulcerative colitis Pg 113
15. Where should the CR be directed for a KUB Iliac crests Pg 115
16. How long should a patient be in a Lateral Decubitus position before taking the exposure 10 to 20 minutes Pg 117
17. Where should the CR be directed for a Lateral Position: Abdomen Approximately 5 cm above iliac crests Pg 120
18. Which position replaces an AP erect abdomen if the patient is too ill to stand Left Lateral Decubitus position Pg 121
19. Which should be visible on a diagnostic abdominal radiograph Psoas Major Pg 104
20. Which is part of the small intestines a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d All the above Pg 105
1. The most inferior portion of the sternum is the d) xiphoid process p.352
a) The anterior ribs unite directly with the COSTOCARTILAGE P.353
a) The first sternoclavicular joint is classified as which type of joint? CARTILAGENOUS P.354
a) A patient with a large, barrel-chested thorax with a greater anteroposterior measurement requires ___ than a thin chested patient? LESS ROTATION P.355
2. Low KV is used on above diaphragm radiographs of the ribs, unless the site of injury is over the heart area. In this case a higher KV is used to obtain what type of contrast to visualize the ribs through both the heart shadow and the lung fields? LONG-SCALE P.356
3. Rib fractures are most commonly caused by which of the following: 1.Trauma 2.Underlying pathology 3.Infection 1 AND 2 P.358
a) Patient obliquity for RAO position of the sternum is how many degrees? 15-20 p. 360
a) What is recommended to reduce magnification of the sternum caused by increased OID for the lateral sternum position? SID OF 60-72 INCHES P.361
a) For a PA projection of SC joints the CR is centered to the level of which palpable landmark? JUGULAR NOTCH p.362
a) For the anterior oblique positions of the SC joints, which of the following radiographic criteria demonstrates proper positioning? A. SC joint on upside is foreshortened b. Downside of SC joint is visualized with no superimposition of the vertebral column c. Visualization of the SC joints through over lying ribs and lungs d ALL OF THE ABOVE P. 363 (answer)
4. Which of the following projections/positions of the ribs may be taken with the CR above or below the diaphragm? 1. AP 2. PA 3. Posterior or anterior oblique 4. Unilateral rib study 1,3, AND 4 P. 364,365,366,367
5. Which ribs are included for the unilateral rib study a. True ribs (1-7) b. False ribs (8-12) c. Floating ribs (11-12) d. All of the above e.NONE OF THE ABOVE P.366
1. Rotate the patient into a 45 degree posterior or anterior oblique position for which of the following 1. RAO-sternum 2. RAO-SC joints 3. RAO-Axillary ribs 3 ONLY P. 360,363,367
6. Approximately 65-70 KV is recommended for what type of patient to achieve acceptable contrast on the image? ADULT, STHENIC P.355
7. If a breathing technique is not possible due to the patient’s condition for RAO of the sternum, the technologist should have the patient SUSPEND RESPIRATIONON EXPIRATION P. 360
8. The inside margin, which contains the blood vessels and nerves, of a rib is termed the COSTAL GROOVE P.353
9. Which of the following is widest at the lateral margins of the 8th and 9th ribs? BONY THORAX P.354
10. The vertebral end of a typical rib is 3-5 inches __ than the sternal end? HIGHER P.353
10. Bacterial infection is the most common cause of OSTEOMYELITIS P. 358
1. For below the diaphragm radiographs the technologist should 1. Take with patient recumbent 2. Suspend respiration and expose on expiration 3. Select a medium KV (70-80) a. 1,2, AND 3 P.356
• mAs is 48, mA is 260. What is your time? .185 sec
• Given the following set of exposure factors (54kVp, 200mA, 0.20s, 8:1 grid, 72” SID) calculate the change in exposure that would be required to maintain a constant radiographic density if you were to change to a 16:1 grid. 300mAs
• You take a radiograph of a chest using a 6:1 grid with a technical factor of 110kVp and 10mAs. You are asked to repeat and use a 1-0:1 grid. What will your new mAs need to be to maintain a consistent density as the first image. 13.33mAs
• A radiograph of the pelvis is produced using 40mAs and 78kVp. What kVp would be needed to double the exposure? 89.7kVp
1) How much kVp do you change per cm of part size? 7 kVp for a 12cm part = how much kVp for a 18cm part? 2kvp 90kvp
• If your mAs is 10 and your distance is 64 inches, what will your mAs be at 42 inches? 4.307mAs
• Your mAs is 300, and your time is 0.20s, What is your mAs? 60mAs
• A radiographer receives 150mRem of exposure standing 6 feet from the radiation source. If the radiographer wants to decrease their distance to 48”, how much exposure is the radiographer getting? 337.5mRem
• A radiographer receives 200mRem of exposure standing 4 feet from the radiation source. If the radiographer wants to decrease his exposure to 80mRem, How far from the radiation source should he stand? 40 feet
a. You are performing an UGI fluoroscopic exam and are standing 14 feet from the tube. With that distance you receive 12R/h. You move back 144” and you are in the room for 45 minutes. 3.479R/h 2.609R
• Exposure factors of 96kVp and 4mAs are used for a particular non-grid exposure. What should be the mAs value if a 8:1 grid is added? 16mAs
• An x-ray exposure of 240mR is recorded at a distance of 40”. If the same technical factors are used, what will the exposure be if the distance is increased 36”? 866.4mR
• An acceptable radiograph of the abdomen is taken usinf 35mAs and 96kVp at a distance of 40”. A second radiograph is requested to be taken at 56”. What mAs should be used to produce an acceptable x-ray if the distance is increased to 56’? 17.744mAs
• A radiograph of the pelvis is produced using 60mAs and 97kVp. What kVp would be needed to double the exposure? 111.55kVp
• Given the following set of exposure factors (76kVp, 200mA, 0.15s, 10:1 grid, 60” SID) calculate the change in exposure that would be required to maintain a constant radiographic density if you were to change to a 12:1 grid. 37.5mAs
• If your mAs is 25 and your distance is 75 inches, what will your mAs be at 40 inches? 87.891mAs
• Exposure factors of 61kVp and 6mAs are used for a 5:1 grid exposure. What should be the mAs value if a 16:1 grid is added? 12mAs
• If your mAs is 12 and your distance is 40”, what will your mAs be at 72”? 38.88mAs
• 56 kVp for a 14cm part = how much kVp for a 10cm part? 48kVp
• You use 80kVp at 4mAs, if you had to decrease kV by 15% and maintain density what would your new kV and mAs be? 68kV 8mAs
a. A fracture of adjacent ribs in two or more places caused by blunt trauma can lead to instability of the chest wall. Flail Chest pg. 358
b. This disease occurs in 5-10 year old boys. It is the most common type of aseptic or ischemic necrosis. A limp is usually the first clinical sign. Legg- Calvé-Perthes pg. 270
c. Fracture most commonly seen in the fifth metacarpal Boxer’s Fracture p. 136
d. When radiographing a suspected Pneumoperitoneum what is the best position to use to avoid confusion with the gastric bubble? Left Lateral Decubitus p. 117
e. Another name for Black Lung is: Anthracosis p.87
f. Pleural Effusion is best demonstrated: Affected Side Down p. 86
g. A telescoping of the bowel into a loop which creates an obstruction , usually in the ileus, usually in children: Intussusception p. 113
h. A Smith’s fracture is a fracture of the distal radius with displacement Anteriorly p. 136
i. Compression Fracture and possible anterior dislocation of humeral head: Hill-Sachs Defect p. 179
j. AP and Lateral weight bearing foot projections are necessary to demonstrate Lisfranc Joint Injury p. 221
k. Funnel Chest, characterized by a depressed sternum, is another name Pectus Excavatum p.358
l. Malignant tumor of the cartilage usually occurring in men over the age of 45. Chondrosarcoma p 270
m. Softening of the cartilage under the patella, also known as Runner’s Knee is called Chondromalacia Patellae p. 221
n. Also known as DJD, this is a non-inflammatory joint disease considered to be a normal part of aging. Osteoarthritis p 179
o. A common primary malignant bone tumor in children and young adults giving an onion peel appearance on radiographs Ewing’s Sarcoma p.137
p. A chronic inflammation of the intestinal wall that often results in bowel obstruction most common in young adults. Crohn’s Disease p 113
q. Would you/How would you change technique for a person with Emphysema Significantly decrease, dependent on severity p. 88
r. Another name for collapsed lung Atelctasis p85
s. What position is commonly used to evaluate Rheumatoid Arthritis? Ball-Catcher’s Position p. 151
t. This disease is caused by deficiency of calcium, phosphorus, and/or Vit. D which causes soft bones also called Osteomalacia Rickets p 221
1. How many bones are in the foot? Pg 206 26
2. How much is the CR angled for an AP projection of the foot? Pg 228 10
3. True or False: For stress views of the ankle stress is applied with the leg and ankle in position for a true lateral Pg 239
a. For an AP projection of the knee how much would you angle the CR for a patient that measured about 10 inches?
b. What tunnel method would a patient be kneeling with their knees flex 60-70? Pg249 Holmblad method
c. How much is the knee flexed for a lateral projection? Pg 245 20-30
d. What is another name for the hip bone? Pg 261 Innominate
e. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the female pelvis? Pg 264 Acute angle of the pubic arch
f. On an AP pelvis what needs to be corrected if the lesser trochanters are visible on the image? Pg 268 Internally rotate feet and legs in
g. How much should the CR be angle on a male patient for Taylor Method? Pg277 20-35
h. For clements-nakayama method how should the cassette be place? Pg 284 Sitting in the bucky tilted 15 degrees
4. True or false Osteoid osteoma usually occurs in teens or young adults. Pg221 b T
5. True or False: Enchondroma is a fast-growing benign cartilaginous tumor Pg221 F
6. What is the opening in the middle of the subtalar joint called? Pg 208 Sinus tarsi
a. What projection of the knee is indicated to detect “joint mice”? Tutoring quiz Tunnel
b. Why is the CR angled 5-7 for a lateral knee? Pg245 To make the condyles perpendicular
c. What bones make up the mortise? Pg 210 Talus, tibia, and fibula
d. What is the incomplete separation or avulsion of the tibial tuberosity? Pg 221 Osgood-Schlatter Disease
e. For an AP projection of the knee the patella is located Pg 242 Laterally
f. Where should the CR be centered for Beclere Method? Pg 251 ½” distal to apex of patella
a. X-rays were discovered on_________ by __________. November 8, 1895; Wilhelm Conrad Rontgen PAGE 6
a. Who is considered the Father of Western medicine? Hippocrates PAGE 5
1. The first Essentials document was published in_____. 1944 PAGE 17
a. Professional certification is accomplished through______? Certification Registration Examination All of the above PAGE 17
a. What is the purpose of the ARRT? Encourage the study and elevating the standards of radiologic technology. Examining and certifying eligible candidates. Periodically publishing a listing of registrants. All of the above. PAGE 17
2. Who is the most prominent national professional voice for radiologic technologists? ASRT PAGE 19
3. ______ is time and energy spent concerned for things over which we have little control. Worry PAGE 23
4. TRUE or FALSE: Stress tends to be contagious. TRUE PAGE 25
a. Which of the following is a buffer? Cramming the night before a test Exercise Eating wholesome meals II. and III. Only PAGE 27-28
a. What are the four steps in critical thinking and problem solving? Identify the problem, Investigate the problem, form possible solutions, and choose the best solution. PAGE 35 Chart
a. Psycho motor refers to______. Doing PAGE 35
a. Cognitive refers to _____. Thinking PAGE 35
a. Does our program have a mission statement? Yes HANDBOOK
5. A voluntary peer review process through which an agency grants recognition to an institution for a program of study that meets specified criteria is ____________. Accreditation PAGE 15
a. ____________ is a government legislation granting permission for someone to practice their profession. Licensure PAGE 16
6. What does JRCERT stand for? Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic TechnologyPAGE 17
a. Approximately how many radiography programs does the JRCERT accredit? 680 PAGE 17
a. A creative action based on professional knowledge and experience is_______. Critical Thinking PAGE 33
a. In critical thinking and problem solving, students have the hardest time doing what step? Identifying the problem PAGE 35
A. The basic structural and functional unit of all living tissue Cell pg.2
A. Which of the following exams would require only two routine or basic projections Femur pg. 33
A. The alimentary canal is made up of the following except: Salivary glands pg.3
A. Which body system assists in regulating the acid-base balance of the blood? Respiratory pg.4
1. Which body system includes the largest organ of the body Integumentary pg.6
2. How many bones does the axial skeleton consist of 80 pg.6
A. The rib bones are classified as Flat pg.8
A. Red blood cells are produced by the red bone marrow in the following bones except Humerus pg.9
A. The primary center of ossification in growing bones is the Diaphysis pg.9
A. Epiphyseal fusion of the long bones occurs from puberty to about what age? 25 pg.9
A. A freely moviable joint is classified as Diarthrodial pg.10
3. Which of the following synovial joints permits the least movement Plane pg.11
A. Which joint is also referred to as a ball and socket joint Spheroidal pg.13
4. What type of joint is the knee joint? Bicondylar pg. 13
A. Which plane divides the body into equal right and left parts Midsagittal pg. 15
A. In the Trendelenburg position, the patients’ Head is lower than feet pg. 18
A. Which position is used for insertion of a rectal tube Sims’ pg. 18
A. A tangential projection would be used for which of the following A and C pg. 21
A. To decrease the angle of a joint is Flexion pg 24
A. Which term means to move around in the form of a circle Circumduction pg 27
a. What year were the baby boomers born? P.117 1946-1964
a. The process by which a person gives up their culture and tries to merge into another culture? P.118 Assimilation
b. The category of 6 on the Kinsey Scale is exclusively heterosexual. P.121 F
c. Members of the U.S. mainstream culture are said to value competition. P.118 T
d. The belief that one race or culture is superior is racism. P.118 T
e. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 provides protection for people with physical disabilities only. P. 121 F
f. What requires society to support and maintain the freedom of individuals? Solidarity
a. Paralanguage is often considered a form of verbal communication .P.131 F
b. Palpation is the use of touch for emotional support. P.132 F
c. What category would a 4 year old fall under? P.136 Preschooler
d. Gerontology is the study of aging and diseases of older adults. P.137 F
e. A 74 year old man is considered to be old-old. P. 138 F
f. What is the initial reaction of death? P.138 Denial
g. Instead of picking up a child, you should get down on their level. P. 135 T
1. A patient has a temperature when they come in the doctor’s office. This is subjective data. P.142 F
a. Open-ended questions are not effective questioning techniques. P. 143 F
b. How should you verify the patient? P.142 Mr. or Ms.
c. The time element of the history is the onset. P.145 F
d. Touching is not commonly used in gathering a clinical history. P.144 F
e. The use of leading questions should be avoided because they introduce biases. P.143 T
1. 1. Which of the requirements for the production of x-rays is the filament? Page 66 B. Source of electrons
2. When X-ray photons are produced how much is x-rays? How much is heat?: page 66 A. Less than 1% is actually x-rays B. The remaining 99% is heat C. Less than 2% is actually x rays; remaining 98% is heat
3. The x-ray beam after it leaves the tube and before it reaches the object is called? Page 66 C. Primary radiation
4. The overall blacking of the film is? Page 71 A. Density
5. Photons are absorbed by the coating material and immediately converted into an electrical signal is called? Page 71 B. Direct capture
6. When the computers adjust for inadequate exposure it is called? Page 79 nC. Automatic rescaling
7. If you have a short scale of contrast you have? Page 79-80 D. High contrast
8. What are the factors of recorded detail? Page 81 A. Motion B. Focal spot size C. SID D. All the above
1. The x-ray tube is made of? Page 87 B. Pyrex glass
2. Which table can tilt from horizontal position to a complete vertical position in either direction? Page 88 A. 90-90
3. For the control console the power range in kilowatts range from? Page 89 D. 30kW-100kW
4. For Photostimulable Phosphor Technology (PSP) the image fading can occur as fast as¬___ after exposure? Page 95 C. 10 minutes
5. Electrical wire connection between a digital detector and the x-ray generator and computer is called? Page 86 C. Tether
6. The x-ray tubes primary components are? Page 87 A. Anode and cathode
1. An x-ray photon strikes an atom and is absorbed, causing the atom to become excited. Then the atom releases the excess energy in form of another photon but proceeding in a different direction. Which x-ray interaction is this? Page 102 C. Classic coherent scattering
2. The annual whole-body effective dose limit for the occupational worker is? Page 106 C. 5 rem
3. The traditional unit Curie coincides with which SI unit? Page 105 B. Becquerel
4. Cells are approximately___water. Page 107 D. 80%
5. Three general stages of response exist for each acute radiation syndrome. List them in order from beginning to end. Page 108 B. Prodromal stage, latent period, manifest stage
6. Most of occupational workers exposure comes from which interaction? Page 103 1. Classic coherent scattering 2. Compton scattering 3. Pair production B. 2 only
7. When electric current is applied to the filament, it responds by boiling off electrons through what process? Page 102 C. Thermionic emission
8. Which radiation monitoring gives you an immediate reading? Page 113 C. Pocket dosimeters
Pathogens have the ability to ___. A. Secrete endotoxins. B. Cause tissue damage. D. Multiply in large numbers. E. B & C P201
a. True or False? Protozoa are unicellular organisms that are neither plants nor animals. True P202
b. The term that best describes a microorganism that is characterized by a lack of independent metabolism and by the ability to replicate only within living host cells. Virus P200
c. Who introduced the germ theory of disease in 1876? Robert Koch P204
d. Mary Mallon, Typhoid Mary, was a chronic carrier of what organism? Salmonella P205
e. When a person is bitten by a mosquito and develops an infection, this is an example of what type of transmission? Vector P200
f. A specified field that is considered free of viable microorganisms is called ____. Sterile P217
g. The first and most important step in providing care to a patient with a tracheostomy is to __. Establish communication. P225
h. True or false? The sleeves and the back of a surgical gown are considered sterile. False P224
i. What type of catheter is used to measure the pumping ability of the heart and other heart parameters? Swan-Ganz P229
j. In portable radiography the C-Arm is surgically draped by who? surgical team p231
k. The urine collection bag of a catheter should be kept below the level of the bladder to prevent what? Reflux of urine back into the bladder. P228
l. The term subungual refers to the area beneath ___. A & B P217
m. True or false? An Enterostomal Therapist is a nurse with special training in the care of ostomies. True P234
n. The most common NG tube is the ____. Levin P235
2. What is used in examinations of the color or lower GI tract to diagnose pathologic conditions? a. Barium P242
b. Approximately what percentage of colostomy patients have a reoccurrence of cancer? 10% P246
c. The purpose of a low-residue diet as a bowel preparation is to _____. Reduce frequency and volume of stools. P241
d. All of these are types of cleansing enemas except: Glucose P239
e. In the Fowler’s position the patient’s head is raised ___ inches above the flat position with the knees also raised. 18 to 20 inches P234
1. The patellofemoral joint (knee joint) is considered: C p 217 Synovial & seller ( saddle)
2. What is the name of the largest seasmoid bone in the body? B pg 214 B. Patella
3. For an AP projection of the knee, the CR should be directed to a point: D p 242 D ½” distal to the apex of the patella
3. The knee is enclosed in an articular capsule or _________. C Pg 215 C. Bursa
5. For a true PA projection of the patella, the anterior knee should be rotated internally what degrees? B p 252 5˚
6. The Beclere Method (intercondylar fossa) projection of the knee The CR should be angled C p 251 40 – 45 degrees cephalad
7. The general region on the posterior knee is called the _________ region. A. pg 214 Poplietal
8. The Holmblad projection of the knee is done with leg flex at p 249 D. 60 – 70 degrees
9. For a knee series on a pt with Chondromalacia patellae, the technique should be: C. no change
10. The total knee joint if enclosed in an articular capsule or: B. Bursa B p 215
11. What is the recommended central ray angulation for an AP projection of the knee for a patient with thick thighs and buttocks the measurement is greater than 24 cm. C. 3-5 Cephalad
12. Where is the central ray centered for an AP projection of the knee? B. ½ Inch distal to apex of patella B pg 242
13. For a lateral recumbent projection of the knee, if should be flexed __________ degrees with the affected side down. 20- 30 p 245
14. Which sunrise projection of the knee uses an adjustable leg support and film holder? C. Merchant C p 254
15. For the Rosenberg Method the CR is angled _________? B. 10 Caudad B pg 247
16. The anterior surface of the patella is smooth and the Posterior surface of the patella is rough. True or False False p 214
17. The femorotibial ( knee) joint is D. Bicondylar D p 217
18. A true lateral position of the knee will demonstrate: A. The posterior borders of the femoral condyles, directly superimposed. B. The distal femur, proximal tibia and fibula shown in profile. C. The patella shown in profile. D. All of the above. D p 245
19. What is the recommend central ray placement for a lateral knee position on a tall slender male patient with a narrow pelvis? C. 5 Cephalad C pg 245
20. How much flexion of the knee is required for a lateral recumbent projection? B. 20-30 B pg 245
1. When someone is standing with their feet far apart, they are said to have a _________ base of support. Wide pg. 147
2. If you are moving a patient or any heavy object, should you keep it close to your ________ to keep stable and to avoid straining or injuring your body? Center of gravity pg. 148
a. Where can stability muscles be found and what purpose do they serve? Torso; to provide postural support pg. 149
a. Anytime you have to transfer patients, should you _______? Ask if they can help, let them do as much as possible, and only assist when needed pg. 149
1. To reduce patient motion from occurring in x-rays, it is common to use which type of device? 1. Sponges 2. Velcro straps 3. Sandbags 4. Sheets All the above pg. 161 and 162
3. Situation: A patient has a car wreck and injures their neck. They come into the x-ray department for some chest x-rays to rule of possible fractures as well as cervical spine x-rays. They have a cervical collar on..What would you do in this situation? Perform the exams with the cervical collar in place and leave it on until the physician has reviewed and evaluated the images. Pg. 164
a. What is it called when a patient has a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute? Tachycardia pg. 172
a. Situation: A patient comes into the radiography department with a fever of 99.8 degrees F, so you should know that they need to be treated for ______? Hyperthermia pg. 173
a. What should the blood pressure be for a normal, healthy adult? Systolic under 120 mm Hg and diastolic under 80 mm Hg
b. Which of the following is an indication that a patient needs to use an endotracheal tube?a. Aspiration b. Oxygen delivery because of inadequate ventilation c. Upper airway obstruction All the above pg. 185
4. Hypoxemia is a __________ oxygen concentration level in the blood. Decrease pg. 172
a. You notice that a patient is having difficulty breathing when they lay down for the exam but sitting up they can breathe better. Which of the following conditions would you say they have? Orthopnea pg. 172
b. An adult patient comes into the department and you get their vital signs and notice that they have 32 breaths per minute. This respiratory rate is described as _______? Tachypnea pg. 175
a. Another term for chest tubes that are used to drain the mediastinum and intrapleural space is called _________? Thoracostomy tubes pg. 186
a. Thermoregulation is ____________ a Used to describe the body’s maintenance of heat production b. Describes the body’s core temperature c. Describes the body’s maintenance of heat loss A & C pg. 173
a. Which of the following is the most accurate to determine the body’s core temperature? Rectal thermometry pg. 173
a. Which patient transfer would you be performing when having at least three people to assist with it? Cart to table pg. 155
a. Which of the following can cause a patient to become dizzy and lightheaded when they sit or stand up too quickly and why? Orthostatic hypotension; decrease in blood pressure pg. 150
b. When transferring patients which side should the move be started with? Strong side pg. 150
c. A patient can control which of the following types of motion by the radiographer giving slow, step by step breathing instructions? Voluntary pg. 160
Created by: pchel