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QM Review Ques.

QM Registry Review Questions

QuestionAnswer
What government agency mandates a policy on exposure to blood-borne pathogens? OSHA
What describes information or knowledge necessary to achieve a desired outcome? input
How many basic steps are involved in creation of a TPM? 5
A procedure to identify potential failure within a system is FMEA
What describes a person, department, or organization that needs or wants a desired outcome? customer
Who is considered to be the "Father of Scientific Management"? Frederick Winslow Taylor
What group is usually responsible for implementing solutions that the focus groups have determined will improve a particular process? quality improvement team
What describes a valid and reliable quantitative process or outcome measure related to one or more dimensions of performance? indicator
The highest quality of care delivered in the shortest amount of time with the least amount of expense and a positive outcome is termed ______ of care. efficiency
What describes the entire set or group of items being measured? population
What describes the average set of observations? mean
What describes variables that have only two values or choices? dichotomous variables
A cause-and-effect diagram is AKA ___. fishbone chart
What best describes a chart that pictorially demonstrates whether key indicators are moving up or down over a given period of time? trend chart
The distribution of continuous data can best be demonstrated by ___. histograms
The unit of measure used to express the dose equivalent to occupational workers is ____. rad equivalent, man
What describes the square of standard deviation? variance
What is the main reason to prohibit food and drink in a film darkroom? prevent artifacts
What describes the amount of light that is emitted from or scattered by a surface? luminance
What names a device that can be used to measure darkroom humidity levels? psychrometer
Proper darkroom ventilation should include ____ room changes of air per hour. 8 to 10
What refers to the amount of light emitted by a screen for a given amount of x-ray exposure? speed
What describes the ability of a screen material to convert x-ray energy into light energy? conversion
Why should boxes of film and containers of developer solution not be stored near each other? developer contains naturally occurring radioactive material
Photometric readings from each quadrant of a single view box panel should not vary by more than ± ____%. 10
What is the unit most commonly used to measure luminance? nit
What describes the ability of an imaging system to create separate images of closely spaced high-contrast objects? spatial resolution
When mixing developer solution from concentrate, which part should be placed into the tank first? water
What would cause an ammonia-like odor in a darkroom? oxidation of the developer
According to ANSI standards, the maximum amount of hyporetention allowed is ____ μg/cm3 2
If the developer temperature is set at 96 deg F, then the wash water temperature should be set at _____ deg F. 91
Which processing chemical is responsible for creating the optical density above 1.2 on a diagnostic image? hydroquinone
Which system of the automatic processor consumes the greatest amount of electrical power? dryer
What is located at the bottom of each processing tank? turnaround rack
What material is used in construction of an entrance roller? rubberized plastic
Hydrogen ions (H+) that constitute 1/10,000 of a molar of a liquid would have what pH value? 4
What is the margin or error for specific gravity of processing solutions? 0.004
What type of films does the presence of bromide drag produce? underdeveloped
When is the best time to process sensitometric films? morning, after the processor is warmed up
What describes a device designed to give precise, reproducible, and graded light exposures to a film? sensitometer
What value is the maximum variation allowed for the contrast indicator in daily sensitometric films? ± 0.15
What characteristic explains why daily QC activities are normally required for film processing systems? high degree of variability
What is the principal purpose of washing process? removal of fixer solution
Temperature variations in older models of automatic processors are often related to changes in what variable? incoming water supply
What defines the relationship between intensity of radiation absorbed by the film and optical density produced? sensitometry
What unit is used for measurement of previous metals such as silver? troy ounce
What is the largest worldwide consumer of silver? electronics industry
The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1987 limits liquid waste to a toxic level of no more than ____ ppm. 5
What component do most silver recovery systems reclaim the silver? fixer solution
What is the simplest and least expensive method of silver reclamation? metallic replacement method
Problems with steel wool metallic replacement cartridges include (1) channeling, (2) rusting, and (3) drain stoppage: 1, 2, and 3
When electrolytic silver recovery units are used, the silver is deposited on what? cathode
The oldest form of silver recovery is the ____ method. chemical precipitation
What percentage of silver is normally dissolved in the fixer solution during film processing? 50%
The indicated level of tomographic section and the actual level of the section must correspond to within ± ____ mm. 5
A three-phase x-ray generator can operate at a maximum of 100 kVp and 500 mA at 100 ms. What is the kilowatt rating of this generator? 35 kW
The backup timer for an AEC system should terminate the exposure at ____ second(s) or _____ mAs, whichever comes first. 3; 300
How large of an arc appears during a spinning top test of a three-phase x-ray generator at 50 ms? 18 degrees
The minimum HVL for x-ray units operating at 80 kVp is ____ mm of aluminum. 2.3
The maximum variability allowed for the reproducibility of exposure is ± ____ %. 5
Any variations between stated kVp on the control panel and the measured kVP must be ± ____ %. 5
The variability allowed for timer accuracy in exposures less than 10 ms is ± ____ %. 20
The variability allowed for mA and time linearity is ± ____ %. 10
What material is most often used in the input phosphor of an image intensifier? cesium iodide
What describes the increase in image brightness resulting from the difference in size between the input and output phosphors? minification gain
What increases the brightness of a fluoroscopic image? increase in kVp, increase in mA, and increase in pulse width
What is the main advantage of using a multifield image intensifier? magnification option is available
What describes the type of image intensifier artifact that results from projecting an image onto a flat surface? pincushion distortion
The primary beam should be restricted to the diameter of the input phosphor to within ± ____ % of the SID? 3
The video monitor of a fluoroscopic system should be evaluated with a test pattern created by which organization? SMPTE
The intensity of the x-ray beam at tabletop should not exceed ____ R/min for units that are equipped with ABS. 10
What is found inside the image receptor used for a CR system? imaging plate
What identifies the fluoroscopic scan mode by which the x-ray tube delivers radiation in short, high-intensity pulses? pulsed, interlaced scan mode
The standard black-and-white TV monitor scans ____ horizontal lines per frame. 525
What device transfers a hard-copy image from a CRT onto hard-copy film? multiformat camera
When the framing rate of a cine camera exceeds ____ frames per second, the human eye perceives the images as continuous. 16
The laser used in most CR reader units emits light in this portion of the color spectrum: red
In departments with a QM program in place, the greatest number of repeat images is due to: positioning error
Any repeat rate exceeding ____ should be seriously examined. 10% to 12%
What processing artifact run in the same direction as film travel? guide shoe marks
What artifact can occur in both CR and film/screen radiography? Moire pattern
What describes the likelihood of obtaining a positive diagnosis in a patient with the disease actually present? sensitivity
Data for determining repeat rates should include at least ____ patients to obtain a statistical sample large enough for valid results. 250
What is also referred to as the TP fraction? sensitivity
What artifact occurs as a result of patient motion during exposure? exposure artifact
What kVp range should be used during film/screen mammography? 20 to 28 kVp
What range is the correct focal spot size for most mammographic x-ray tubes? 0.1 to 0.6 mm
What type of filter material should be used with a molybdenum target x-ray tube? molybdenum
What does not change the shape of the x-ray emission spectrum? exposure time
What is the usual range of force for mammographic system compression devices? 25 to 45 lb
The light field/x-ray field alignment for mammographic units must be accurate to within ± ____ % of the SID. 2
The B+F value of a mammographic sensitometry film should not vary by more than ± ____ from the initial control value. 0.03
The contrast indicator, or DD, of mammographic sensitometry films should not vary by more than ± ____ from the initial control value. 0.15
At a minimum, how often should phantom images with an ACR accreditation phantom be obtained? monthly
What is used as reference material for CT number calibrations? water
What is the expected result of CT number calibration test? 0 ± 3
What is the primary determination of slice thickness? collimators
What describes the ability of a CT scanner to differentiate objects with minimal differences in attenuation coefficients? contrast resolution
What factor can affect the accuracy of a density (HU) measurement in a CT image? system calibration
Increasing what factor can improve spatial resolution? matrix
What is the main limiting factor for contrast resolution? noise
What is measured using the MTF method? high-contrast spatial resolution
A contemporary CT system should be able to detect 3-mm objects with what density difference? 0.5%
What is the tolerance limit for noise in a CT image? ± 10
Phantoms for MRI quality control tests are made with what material? aluminum, copper, and manganese
Daily QC tests should be performed by which employee? MR technologist
When the SNR test is performed, changing the imaging parameters does not affect the resulting SNR. True or False false
Which equation is used to calculate the system's resonance frequency? Larmor
Between what should image uniformity values range? 80% to 100%
The phantom used for spatial linearity test can be the same as the phantom for the resonance frequency test. True or false. false
What identifies the QC test performed to ensure that the landmarking location is at the isocenter? slice position
An acquisition with a 20-cm FOV and a 1282 matrix yields a pixel of what size? 1.56 mm2
What describes the quality factor of the coil used to receive signals? coil Q
What personnel are considered key to a good quality control MR program? MR technologist
What describes routine tests done to determine that an ultrasound scanner is operating at its expected level of performance? quality assurance
Material making up the body of a typical QA phantom is "tissuelike" in terms of its ____ properties. sound speed and attenuation
To be used for tests of geometric accuracy, the ____ and ____ in a phantom must be precisely specified. sound speed and attenuation
What is the percentage error in the caliper readout if the actual distance between two reflectors in a phantom is 4 cm but the digital caliper readout indicates it is 3.8 cm? 5%
What test dose not need to be performed routinely as part of a QA program? axial resolution
What is a string phantom useful for measuring? velocity accuracy on a spectral Doppler display
What are Doppler flow phantoms useful for determining? the maximum depth of Doppler signal detection
For echo signals to be produced that are of a similar magnitude as blood in the body, what two factors in a Doppler phantom must be comparable to human tissues? phantom material attenuation and mimicking material blood echogenicity
The scintillation detector is based on the principle that certain crystals ____ after deposition of energy by some ionizing radiation. emit
The crystal that is used in most planar and SPECT gamma cameras is the ____ crystal. NaI(T1)
____ testing involves performing a QC performance evaluation of the camera system without the collimator. intrinsic
What are the two most important QC procedures that must be performed on a scintillation gamma camera? flood field uniformity; spatial resolution
What value is the allowable (NRC) limit of molybdenum in the generator eluent of 99mTc pertechnetate? 0.15 Ci/mCi
____ is the gamma camera's ability to see detail in any image. spatial resolution
The QC procedure COR aligns the COR projected onto the computer matrix with the center of the ____ used for reconstruction. computer matrix
The sinogram of a selected tomographic slice is a summed image of all the projection data. It is useful in detecting ____ which can degrade the quality of the SPECT study. patient motion
Created by: sspatel