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QM Review Ques.
QM Registry Review Questions
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What government agency mandates a policy on exposure to blood-borne pathogens? | OSHA |
| What describes information or knowledge necessary to achieve a desired outcome? | input |
| How many basic steps are involved in creation of a TPM? | 5 |
| A procedure to identify potential failure within a system is | FMEA |
| What describes a person, department, or organization that needs or wants a desired outcome? | customer |
| Who is considered to be the "Father of Scientific Management"? | Frederick Winslow Taylor |
| What group is usually responsible for implementing solutions that the focus groups have determined will improve a particular process? | quality improvement team |
| What describes a valid and reliable quantitative process or outcome measure related to one or more dimensions of performance? | indicator |
| The highest quality of care delivered in the shortest amount of time with the least amount of expense and a positive outcome is termed ______ of care. | efficiency |
| What describes the entire set or group of items being measured? | population |
| What describes the average set of observations? | mean |
| What describes variables that have only two values or choices? | dichotomous variables |
| A cause-and-effect diagram is AKA ___. | fishbone chart |
| What best describes a chart that pictorially demonstrates whether key indicators are moving up or down over a given period of time? | trend chart |
| The distribution of continuous data can best be demonstrated by ___. | histograms |
| The unit of measure used to express the dose equivalent to occupational workers is ____. | rad equivalent, man |
| What describes the square of standard deviation? | variance |
| What is the main reason to prohibit food and drink in a film darkroom? | prevent artifacts |
| What describes the amount of light that is emitted from or scattered by a surface? | luminance |
| What names a device that can be used to measure darkroom humidity levels? | psychrometer |
| Proper darkroom ventilation should include ____ room changes of air per hour. | 8 to 10 |
| What refers to the amount of light emitted by a screen for a given amount of x-ray exposure? | speed |
| What describes the ability of a screen material to convert x-ray energy into light energy? | conversion |
| Why should boxes of film and containers of developer solution not be stored near each other? | developer contains naturally occurring radioactive material |
| Photometric readings from each quadrant of a single view box panel should not vary by more than ± ____%. | 10 |
| What is the unit most commonly used to measure luminance? | nit |
| What describes the ability of an imaging system to create separate images of closely spaced high-contrast objects? | spatial resolution |
| When mixing developer solution from concentrate, which part should be placed into the tank first? | water |
| What would cause an ammonia-like odor in a darkroom? | oxidation of the developer |
| According to ANSI standards, the maximum amount of hyporetention allowed is ____ μg/cm3 | 2 |
| If the developer temperature is set at 96 deg F, then the wash water temperature should be set at _____ deg F. | 91 |
| Which processing chemical is responsible for creating the optical density above 1.2 on a diagnostic image? | hydroquinone |
| Which system of the automatic processor consumes the greatest amount of electrical power? | dryer |
| What is located at the bottom of each processing tank? | turnaround rack |
| What material is used in construction of an entrance roller? | rubberized plastic |
| Hydrogen ions (H+) that constitute 1/10,000 of a molar of a liquid would have what pH value? | 4 |
| What is the margin or error for specific gravity of processing solutions? | 0.004 |
| What type of films does the presence of bromide drag produce? | underdeveloped |
| When is the best time to process sensitometric films? | morning, after the processor is warmed up |
| What describes a device designed to give precise, reproducible, and graded light exposures to a film? | sensitometer |
| What value is the maximum variation allowed for the contrast indicator in daily sensitometric films? | ± 0.15 |
| What characteristic explains why daily QC activities are normally required for film processing systems? | high degree of variability |
| What is the principal purpose of washing process? | removal of fixer solution |
| Temperature variations in older models of automatic processors are often related to changes in what variable? | incoming water supply |
| What defines the relationship between intensity of radiation absorbed by the film and optical density produced? | sensitometry |
| What unit is used for measurement of previous metals such as silver? | troy ounce |
| What is the largest worldwide consumer of silver? | electronics industry |
| The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1987 limits liquid waste to a toxic level of no more than ____ ppm. | 5 |
| What component do most silver recovery systems reclaim the silver? | fixer solution |
| What is the simplest and least expensive method of silver reclamation? | metallic replacement method |
| Problems with steel wool metallic replacement cartridges include (1) channeling, (2) rusting, and (3) drain stoppage: | 1, 2, and 3 |
| When electrolytic silver recovery units are used, the silver is deposited on what? | cathode |
| The oldest form of silver recovery is the ____ method. | chemical precipitation |
| What percentage of silver is normally dissolved in the fixer solution during film processing? | 50% |
| The indicated level of tomographic section and the actual level of the section must correspond to within ± ____ mm. | 5 |
| A three-phase x-ray generator can operate at a maximum of 100 kVp and 500 mA at 100 ms. What is the kilowatt rating of this generator? | 35 kW |
| The backup timer for an AEC system should terminate the exposure at ____ second(s) or _____ mAs, whichever comes first. | 3; 300 |
| How large of an arc appears during a spinning top test of a three-phase x-ray generator at 50 ms? | 18 degrees |
| The minimum HVL for x-ray units operating at 80 kVp is ____ mm of aluminum. | 2.3 |
| The maximum variability allowed for the reproducibility of exposure is ± ____ %. | 5 |
| Any variations between stated kVp on the control panel and the measured kVP must be ± ____ %. | 5 |
| The variability allowed for timer accuracy in exposures less than 10 ms is ± ____ %. | 20 |
| The variability allowed for mA and time linearity is ± ____ %. | 10 |
| What material is most often used in the input phosphor of an image intensifier? | cesium iodide |
| What describes the increase in image brightness resulting from the difference in size between the input and output phosphors? | minification gain |
| What increases the brightness of a fluoroscopic image? | increase in kVp, increase in mA, and increase in pulse width |
| What is the main advantage of using a multifield image intensifier? | magnification option is available |
| What describes the type of image intensifier artifact that results from projecting an image onto a flat surface? | pincushion distortion |
| The primary beam should be restricted to the diameter of the input phosphor to within ± ____ % of the SID? | 3 |
| The video monitor of a fluoroscopic system should be evaluated with a test pattern created by which organization? | SMPTE |
| The intensity of the x-ray beam at tabletop should not exceed ____ R/min for units that are equipped with ABS. | 10 |
| What is found inside the image receptor used for a CR system? | imaging plate |
| What identifies the fluoroscopic scan mode by which the x-ray tube delivers radiation in short, high-intensity pulses? | pulsed, interlaced scan mode |
| The standard black-and-white TV monitor scans ____ horizontal lines per frame. | 525 |
| What device transfers a hard-copy image from a CRT onto hard-copy film? | multiformat camera |
| When the framing rate of a cine camera exceeds ____ frames per second, the human eye perceives the images as continuous. | 16 |
| The laser used in most CR reader units emits light in this portion of the color spectrum: | red |
| In departments with a QM program in place, the greatest number of repeat images is due to: | positioning error |
| Any repeat rate exceeding ____ should be seriously examined. | 10% to 12% |
| What processing artifact run in the same direction as film travel? | guide shoe marks |
| What artifact can occur in both CR and film/screen radiography? | Moire pattern |
| What describes the likelihood of obtaining a positive diagnosis in a patient with the disease actually present? | sensitivity |
| Data for determining repeat rates should include at least ____ patients to obtain a statistical sample large enough for valid results. | 250 |
| What is also referred to as the TP fraction? | sensitivity |
| What artifact occurs as a result of patient motion during exposure? | exposure artifact |
| What kVp range should be used during film/screen mammography? | 20 to 28 kVp |
| What range is the correct focal spot size for most mammographic x-ray tubes? | 0.1 to 0.6 mm |
| What type of filter material should be used with a molybdenum target x-ray tube? | molybdenum |
| What does not change the shape of the x-ray emission spectrum? | exposure time |
| What is the usual range of force for mammographic system compression devices? | 25 to 45 lb |
| The light field/x-ray field alignment for mammographic units must be accurate to within ± ____ % of the SID. | 2 |
| The B+F value of a mammographic sensitometry film should not vary by more than ± ____ from the initial control value. | 0.03 |
| The contrast indicator, or DD, of mammographic sensitometry films should not vary by more than ± ____ from the initial control value. | 0.15 |
| At a minimum, how often should phantom images with an ACR accreditation phantom be obtained? | monthly |
| What is used as reference material for CT number calibrations? | water |
| What is the expected result of CT number calibration test? | 0 ± 3 |
| What is the primary determination of slice thickness? | collimators |
| What describes the ability of a CT scanner to differentiate objects with minimal differences in attenuation coefficients? | contrast resolution |
| What factor can affect the accuracy of a density (HU) measurement in a CT image? | system calibration |
| Increasing what factor can improve spatial resolution? | matrix |
| What is the main limiting factor for contrast resolution? | noise |
| What is measured using the MTF method? | high-contrast spatial resolution |
| A contemporary CT system should be able to detect 3-mm objects with what density difference? | 0.5% |
| What is the tolerance limit for noise in a CT image? | ± 10 |
| Phantoms for MRI quality control tests are made with what material? | aluminum, copper, and manganese |
| Daily QC tests should be performed by which employee? | MR technologist |
| When the SNR test is performed, changing the imaging parameters does not affect the resulting SNR. True or False | false |
| Which equation is used to calculate the system's resonance frequency? | Larmor |
| Between what should image uniformity values range? | 80% to 100% |
| The phantom used for spatial linearity test can be the same as the phantom for the resonance frequency test. True or false. | false |
| What identifies the QC test performed to ensure that the landmarking location is at the isocenter? | slice position |
| An acquisition with a 20-cm FOV and a 1282 matrix yields a pixel of what size? | 1.56 mm2 |
| What describes the quality factor of the coil used to receive signals? | coil Q |
| What personnel are considered key to a good quality control MR program? | MR technologist |
| What describes routine tests done to determine that an ultrasound scanner is operating at its expected level of performance? | quality assurance |
| Material making up the body of a typical QA phantom is "tissuelike" in terms of its ____ properties. | sound speed and attenuation |
| To be used for tests of geometric accuracy, the ____ and ____ in a phantom must be precisely specified. | sound speed and attenuation |
| What is the percentage error in the caliper readout if the actual distance between two reflectors in a phantom is 4 cm but the digital caliper readout indicates it is 3.8 cm? | 5% |
| What test dose not need to be performed routinely as part of a QA program? | axial resolution |
| What is a string phantom useful for measuring? | velocity accuracy on a spectral Doppler display |
| What are Doppler flow phantoms useful for determining? | the maximum depth of Doppler signal detection |
| For echo signals to be produced that are of a similar magnitude as blood in the body, what two factors in a Doppler phantom must be comparable to human tissues? | phantom material attenuation and mimicking material blood echogenicity |
| The scintillation detector is based on the principle that certain crystals ____ after deposition of energy by some ionizing radiation. | emit |
| The crystal that is used in most planar and SPECT gamma cameras is the ____ crystal. | NaI(T1) |
| ____ testing involves performing a QC performance evaluation of the camera system without the collimator. | intrinsic |
| What are the two most important QC procedures that must be performed on a scintillation gamma camera? | flood field uniformity; spatial resolution |
| What value is the allowable (NRC) limit of molybdenum in the generator eluent of 99mTc pertechnetate? | 0.15 Ci/mCi |
| ____ is the gamma camera's ability to see detail in any image. | spatial resolution |
| The QC procedure COR aligns the COR projected onto the computer matrix with the center of the ____ used for reconstruction. | computer matrix |
| The sinogram of a selected tomographic slice is a summed image of all the projection data. It is useful in detecting ____ which can degrade the quality of the SPECT study. | patient motion |
Created by:
sspatel
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