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pharm lecture-exam 2
fall AG pharm
| The cephalosporins are xxx drugs with mechanism like that of the xxx | 1-bacteriacidal 2- similar to penicillin structure |
| Progressing from first-generation to fourth generation agents, the following characteristics are seen: 1, 2, 3, | 1-increase activity against gram- 2 more resistance to beta lactamase 3-increase csf penatratase |
| Rapid infusion of vancomycin can cause flushing, rah, pruritus, urticaria, tachycardia, and hypotension, which are collectively known as xxx | Red Man Syndrome |
| Mamalian vs bacterial cells | Bacterial have cells wall |
| The 3 major groups of antimicrobials | antibacterial, anti fungus |
| xxx are directly lethal to bacteria at clinically achievable concentration. | bactericidal |
| xxx slow microbial growth but do not cause cell death | bacteriostatic |
| When a pt receive ABX and develops a new infection during the course of treatment it is referred as | Suprainfection |
| How do penicillins affect the cell wall | weaken the cell wall --> bacteria take up excess H2O and rupture |
| Patients with penicillin allergy demonstrate cross-sensitivity to xxxx | Cephalosporin |
| Augmentin is a combination of XXX and XXXX | clavulanic acid and Amoxicillin |
| Cephalosporin are xxx drug that have mechanism like that of xxx | bacteriacidal, penicillin |
| Progressing form first generation to fourth generation to fourth generation agents the following charactics are seen: 1, 2, 3, | increase against gram - more resistance to beta lactamase increase CSF penatration |
| The tetracyclines suppress bacterial growth by xxx | Inhibiting protein synthesis |
| All tetracyclines can cause sensitivity of the skin to ultraviolet light. This sensitivity is called xxxx. | photosensitivity |
| The three blood-related adverse effects associated with use of chloramphenicol are xxx, xxx,and xxx | Gray Syndrome, Fatal aplastic anemia, and reversible bone marrow depression |
| What is the best treatment for treating VRE and MRSA? | Linezolid (Zyvox) |
| The aminoglycosides can cause serious injury to the XXX and the XXX. | Inner Ear and Kidney |
| With ototoxicity, the first sign of impending cochlear damage is XXXX and the first sign of impending vestibular damage is XXXX | High pitched tinnitus massive, Headache |
| Neuromuscular blockage from the use of aminoglycosides is reversed with xxxx | IV infusion of Ca Salt |
| Inhaled tobramycin is used for pt with xxx | ... |
| The sulfonamides and trimethoprim all disrupt syntesis of xxx | inhibitng tetrahydrofolic acid |
| The most sever hypersensitive response to sulfonamide is xxx | ???? A. Shock???? |
| xxx is the only intermediate-acting sulfonamide | Sulfamehox |
| xxx/xxx is the drug of choice for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia infections in pt with AIDS and other immunodeficiency states | TMP/SMZ |
| The most common infections encountered in the US today are xxxx | UTI |
| The majority of uncomplicated community-acquired UTI's are caused by xxxx | E. coli |
| For community-acquired urinary infections, three types of oral therapy can be used | single dose short course (3 day) conventional (7 days) |
| Prophylazis can be achieved with low daily dose of several agents xxx,xxx, & xxx | Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole, Trimethoprim or Nitrofurintoin |
| 2 main reasons for the resurgence of TB are xxxand xxxx | AIDS/HIV and emerging multidrug-resistant mycobacterium |
| A definitive diagnosis of TB is made by xxx and xxx | chest x-ray and sputum culture |
| What two drugs are almost always included in the treatment regimen of TB? | Isoniazid(INH) (latent) and Rifampin (active) |
| xxxx is the treatment of choice for latent TB | Isoniazid(INH) |
| The adverse effect of ethanbutol is xxx | optic neuritis |
| Because of the risk of XXX, Ciprofloxacin is not recommended for children younger than 18 years of age | tendon rupture |
| Cipro is a xxx (class) | fluoroquinolones. |
| Fluoroquinolones pose a risk of xxx that may be moderate or severe. A/E*** not on exam but good info to know*** | photo sensitive |
| XXX is used for protozoal infection and infection caused by obligate anaerobic bacteria and also STD. | Metronidazole (Flagyl) not alcohol with drug*** disulfiram (Anatabuse)-like effects |
| Metronidazole education*** (not on exam) | no alcohol 24 hours before treatment begins and 24 hours after treatment has stopped |
| Much of the toxicity of amphotericin is attributable to presence of xxx, principally xxx in mammalian cell membranes | sterol, cholesterols |
| xxx is the drug of choice for most systmeic mycoses | Amphotericin B |
| the durgs used most often for oral therapy of onychomycosis are xxx and xxx | lamisil, itraconazole |
| xxx needs to be taken with a fatty meal. | Griseofulvin |
| xxx is the treatment of choice for varicella-zoster infection in the immunocompromised host. | Acyclovir |
| Indication for the use of ganciclovir include xxx | CMV |
| xxx is an intravenous IV drug with joust 1 indication, the treatment of CMV retinitis in pt with AIDSs. | Valganciclovir |
| When must oseltamivir be initiated for treatment of influenza | 48 hrs |
| types of HIV | HIV-1 & HIV-2 |
| What are the top 5 types of antiretroviral drugs? | reverse transcriptase inhibitors, integrase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, Fusion inhibitors CCR5 antaganists |
| The principal toxic effects of zidovudine (AZT) are xxxand xxx | severe anemia and neutorpenia |
| xxxx is the treatment of choice for Pneumocystitis jiroveci | TMP/SMZ |
| How is the emergence of resistance decreased for the patient receiving drug therapy for HIV? | by using multiples/combinations of antiretroviral drugs |
| xxx is the only 4 generation cephalosporin | Cefepime (Maxipime) |
| xxx is the major toxicity of vancomycin. | Renal failure |