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Rad162

Lower Limb Positioning

QuestionAnswer
How many bones are in the foot? How many tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges? 26 bones total 7 tarsal bones, 5 metatarsals, 14 phalanges
What are the two differences in the phalanges of the foot as compared with the phalanges of the hand? they are smaller and have less joint movement
Which tuberosity of the foot is palpable and a common site of foot trauma? Base of the 5th metatarsal
Where are the sesamoid bones of the foot most commonly located? Plantar surface of the foot near the first MTP joint
What is the largest and strongest tarsal bone? Calcaneus
What is the name of the joint found between the talus and calcaneus? Talocalcaneal or Subtalar Joint
List the three specific articular facets found in the talocalcaneal joint. Posterior Facet, Anterior Facet, Middle Facet
The small opening, or space, found in the middle of the subtalar joint is called the ___. Sinus Tarsi
Forms an aspect of the ankle joint Talus
The smallest of the cuneiforms Intermediate Cuneiform
Found on the medial side of the foot between the talus Navicular
The largest of the cuneiforms Medial Cuneiform
Articulates with the second, third, and fourth metatarsal Lateral Cuneiform
The most superior tarsal bone Talus
Articulates with the first metatarsal Medial Cuneiform
Common site for bone spurs Calcaneus
A tarsal found anterior to the calcaneus and lateral to the lateral cuneiform Cuboid
The second largest tarsal bone Talus
True/False: The cuboid articulates with the four bones of the foot. True
The calcaneus articulates with the talus and the ______. Cuboid
List the two arches of the foot. Transverse Arch and Longitudinal Arch
Which three bones make up the ankle joint? Talus, Tibia, and Fibula
The three bones of the ankle form a deep socket into which the talus fits. This socket is called the _______. Ankle Mortise
The distal tibia joint surface forming the roof of the distal ankle joint is called the : Tibial Plafond
True/False: THe medial malleolus is approximately 1/2 inch (1 cm) posterior to the lateral malleolus. False
The ankle joint is classified as a synovial joint with _______ type movement. Sellar
The _____ is the weight-bearing bone of the lower leg. Tibia
What is the name of the large prominence located on the midanterior surface of the proximal tibia that serves as a distal attachment for the patellar tendon? Tibial Tuberosity
What is the name of the small prominence located on the posterolateral aspect of the medial condyle of the femur that is an idenifying landmark to determine possible rotation of a lateral knee? Adductor Tubercle
A small, triangular depression located on the tibia that helps form the distal tibiofibular joint is called the ______. Fibular notch
The articular facets of the proximal tibia are also referred to as the _____. Tibial Plateau
The articular facets slope_____degrees posteriorly. 10 to 15*
The most proximal aspect of the fibula is the Apex
The extreme distal end of the fibula forms the Lateral Malleolus
What is the name of the largest sesamoid bone in the body? Patella
What are two other names for the patellar surface of the femur? Intercondylar sulcus and Trochlear groove
What is the name of the depression located on the posterior aspect of the distal femur? Intercondylar Fossa
Why must the central ray be angled 5 to 7 degrees cephalad for a lateral knee position? Because the medial condyle extends lower than the lateral condyle of the femur
The slightly raised area located on the posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is called the: Adductor Tubercle
What are the two palpable bony landmarks found on the distal femur? Lateral and Medial Epicondyle
The general region of the posterior knee is called the: Popliteal Region
True/False: Flexion of 20 degrees of the knee forces the patella firmly against the patellar surface of the femur. False
True/False: The patella acts like a pivot to increase the leverage of a large muscle found in the anterior thigh. True
True/False: The posterior surface of the patella is normally rough. False
For which large muscle does the patella serve as a pivot to increase the leverage? Quadriceps Femoris
What is the correct term for the joint between the patella and the distal femur? Patellofemoral Joint
What is the correct term for the joint between the two condyles of the femur and tibia? Femorotibial Joint
List the four major ligaments of the knee. Fibular (lateral) collateral, Tibial (medial) collateral, Anterior cruciate, Posterior cruciate
The crescent-shaped fibrocartilage disks that act as shock absorbers in the knee joint are called_____. Menisci
List the two bursae found in the knee joint. Suprapatellar and Infrapatellar
The following structures are located on which bone: Tibial plafond, Medial malleolus, Articular facets, Fibular notch, and intercondyloid eminence Tibia
The following structures are located on which bone: Styloid process, Neck Fibula
The following structures are located on which bone: Lateral epicondyle, Patellar surface Distal Femur
What joint classification or movement type is the ankle joint? Sellar (Saddle)
What joint classification or movement type is the patellofemoral joint? Sellar (Saddle)
What joint classification or movement type is the proximal tibiofibular joint? Plane (Gliding)
What joint classification or movement type is the tarsometatarsal joint? Plane (Gliding)
What joint classification or movement type is the knee joint? Bicondylar
What joint classification or movement typpe is the distal tibiofibular joint? Amphiarthrodial (Syndesmosis type)
Inversion (Varus) Inward turning or bending of ankle
Plantar Flexion Extending the ankle or pointing the foot and toe downward
Eversion (Valgus) Outward turning or bending of ankle
Dorsiflexion Decreasing the angle between the dorsum pedis and anterior lower leg
Exostosis Benign, neoplastic bone lesion cause by overproduction of bone at a joint
Lisfranc joint injury Injury to a large ligament located between the bases of the first and second metatarsal
Bone cyst Benign, neoplastic bone lesion filled with clear fluid
Reiter's syndrome Condition affecting the sacroiliac joints and lower limbs of young men, especially the posterosuperior margin of the calcaneus
Osteoid osteoma Benign bone lesion usually developing in teens or young adults
Ewing's sarcoma Most prevalent primary bone lesion filled with clear fluid
Gout Inherited type of arthritis that commonly affects males
Paget's disease Also known as osteitis deformans
Osgood-Schlatter disease An inflammatory condition involving the anterior, proximal tibia
Chondrosarcoma Malignant tumor of the cartilage
The formal name for "runner's knee" is _____. chondromalacia patellae
What is another term for osteomalacia? Rickets
Why is the central ray angled 10 to 15 degrees toward the calcaneus for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the toes? opens up the IP and MTP joint spaces
Where is the central ray centered for an AP oblique projection of the foot? Base of the 3rd metatarsal
Which projection is best for demonstrating the sesamoid bones of the foot? Tangential projection
The foot should be dorsiflexd so that the plantar surface of the foot is ____ for the sesamoid projection. 15 to 20 degrees
Why should the central ray be perpendicular to the metatarsals for an AP projection of the foot? opens up MTP joints and certain intertarsal joints
If a foreign body is lodged in the plantar surface of the foot, which type of central ray angle should be used for the AP projection? None. Use perpendicular CR
Rotation can be determined on a radiograph of an AP foot projection by the near-equal distance between the _____ metatarsals. Second to fifth
Which oblique projection of the foot best demonstrates the majority of the tarsal bones? AP oblique with medial rotation
Which oblique projection of the foot best demonstrates the navicular and the first and second cuneiforms with minimal superimposition? AP oblique with lateral rotation
Which projection tends to place the foot into a truer lateral position: meidolateral or lateromedial? Lateromedial
Which type of study should be performed to best evaluate the condition of the longitudinal arches of the foot? AP and weight-bearing projections
How should the central ray be angled from the long axis of the plantodorsal axial projection of the calcaneus? 40 degrees cephalad
Which calcaneal structure should appear medially on a well-positioned plantodorsal projection? Sustentaculum tali
Where is the central ray placed for a lateral projection of the calcaneus? 1 and 1/2 inches (4cm) inferior to the medial malleolus
Which joint surface of the ankle is not typically visualized with a correctly positioned AP projection of the ankle? Lateral surface of joint
Why should AP, 45 degree oblique, and lateral ankle radiographs include the proximal metatarsals? To demonstrate a possible fracture of the fifth metatarsal tuberosity
How much (if any) should the foot and ankle be rotated for an AP mortise projection of the ankle? 15 to 20 degrees medially
Which projection of the ankle best demonstrates a possible fracture of a lateral malleolus? 45 degree AP oblique with medial rotation
With a true lateral projectiion of the ankle the medial malleolus is: Projected over the posterior aspect of the distal tibia
Which projections of the ankle require forced inversion and eversion movements? AP stress projections
What is the basic positioning routine for a study of the tibia and fibula? AP and Lateral
Why is it important to include the knee joint for an initial study of tibia trauma, even if the patient's symptoms involve the middle and distal aspect? To rule out a break on the proximal end
To include both joints for a lateral projection of the tibia and fibula for an adult, the technologist may place the cassette ____ in relation to the part. Diagonally
What is the recommended CR angulation for an AP projection of the knee for a patient with thick thighs and buttocks? 3 to 5 degrees cephalad
Which basic projection of the knee best demonstrates the proximal fibula free from superimposition? AP oblique, 45 degree medial rotation
Created by: danielle89
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