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Final Procedures 3 L
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The tubercle portion of the rib connects the anterior end of the rib to the sternum | False |
| The sternal angle is a palpable landmark at the level of: | T4-5 |
| The xiphoid process corresponds to the level of: | T9-T10 |
| Which of the following ribs is considered a false rib: | 9th |
| Which of the following is true about floating ribs? | They do not possess costocartilage |
| What aspect of the rib articulates with the thoracic vertebral body? | Head |
| The degree of rotation for the RAO projection of the sternum is dependent on the size of the thoracic cavity. | True |
| The LAO position of the sternum provides the best frontal image of the sternum with a minimal mount of distortion. | False |
| Which of the following techniques is MOST effective in preventing lung markings from obscuring the sternum on an oblique position? | Use a breathing technique |
| What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic type of patient? | 20 |
| Which position can replace an RAO of the sternum if the patient cannot lie prone? | LPO |
| Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the axillary portion of the left ribs? | LPO |
| which of the following may occur with trauma to the ribs? | Hemothorax |
| Which two projections SHOULD BE taken for an injury to the right anterior upper ribs? | PA and RAO |
| Which two projections SHOULD be taken for an injury to the left posterior lower ribs? | AP and LPO |
| Situation: A radiograph of an RAO sternum reveals that it is partially superimposed over the spine. What must be done to eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure? | Increase the rotation of the body |
| what are the minumim # of ribs that must be demonstrated for a unilateral rib study above the diaphragm? | 1-9 |
| Which of the following bones is part of the floor of the cranium? | Temporal |
| The slight depression above the eyebrow is called: | Supraorbital groove |
| Which of the following sutures separates the parietal from the occipital bone? | Lambdoidal |
| Which of the following terms describes the anterior fontal found in the adult skull? | Bregma |
| Which of the following factors is most critical for demonstrating air and/or fluid levels within the cranium? | Horizontal x-ray beam |
| For an AP Townes (skull), what is the tube angle? | 30 degrees caudal |
| What is the CR placement for the AP Townes? | 2.5" above the glabella |
| A Haas projection is also known as PA Caldwell | False |
| What is the tube angle for a PA Caldwell? | 15 caudal |
| The widest portion of the cranium is found at the level of the: | parietal tuberacles |
| Which cranial bone articulates with ALL of the other cranial bones? | Sphenoid |
| Which of the following landmarks corresponds with the level of the petrous ridge? | TEA (top of ear attachment) |
| Which cranial bone contains the cribiform plate? | Ethmoid |
| Which of the following terms describes the anterior fontanel in the adult skull? | Bregma |
| Which of the fontanels is the last to close at about 18 months? | Anterior |
| A radiograph of the lateral projection of the cranium reveals that the orbital plates are NOT superimposed, one is slightly superior to the other. What positioning error led to this radiographic outcome? | Tilt |
| Where is the CR entered for lateral projection of the skull? | 2 inches superior to the EAM |
| What cranial bone possesses the superior nasal conchae | Ethmoid |
| Which cranial bone possesses the zygomatic process? | Temporal |
| Which facial bone forms the majority of the hard palate? | Maxilla |
| Which of the following terms describes the junction of the two nasal bones? | Nasion |
| Which two bones form the bony nasal septum? | Ethmoid and vomer |
| How many facial bones help make up the bony orbit? | Four |
| List the bones of the cranium | Frontal, left and right parietal, left and right temporal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid |
| List the bones that make up the calvarium or "cap" of the cranium | Frontal, occipital, left and right parietal |
| List the bones the make up the floor of the cranium | Right and left temporal, sphenoid, and ethmoid |
| True/False: The PA axial projection of the mandible produces an elongated view of the condyloid processes. | True |
| Which projection of the mandible projects the opposite half of the mandible away from the side of interest? | Axiolateral oblique |
| Where should the CR exit for a PA axial projection of the mandible? | acanthion |
| Which cranial positioning line is placed perpendicular to the IR for a PA or PA Axial projection of the mandible? | OML |
| True/False: The CR should be angled 20-25 degrees caudad for the PA axial projection of the mandible. | False |
| Which projection of the mandible demonstrates the entire mandible, including the coronoid and condyloid processes? | SMV |
| List the routine positioning (protocol) for mandible? | SMV, PA, Both axiolateral obliques, Townes (AP axial) |
| Axiolateral oblique mandible: Any combo of head tilt and tube angle must equal ___ degrees cephalic | 25 |
| Axiolateral oblique mandible: CR is downside of | Mandibular body |
| Axiolateral oblique mandible: Place patient in a posterior oblique position with head lateral and chin extended. Rotate head___-____ degrees towards IR for general survey of mandible | 10-15 |
| What is the tube angle for the Towne's projection of the mandible? | 35 degrees caudal |
| What is another name for the TMJ Axiolateral projection? | Schuller method |
| What is another name for the Axiolateral Oblique projection of the TMJ? | Law method |
| How much of a tube angle and in what direction for an Axiolateral Projection of the TMJ? | 25-30 degrees caudal |
| What is the CR for an Axiolateral Projection of the TMJ? | 1/2" anterior and 2" superior to upside EAM |
| What is the tube angle for an Axiolateral Oblique Projection of the TMJ? | 15 degrees caudal |
| What is the CR for an Axiolateral Oblique Projection of the TMJ? | 1.5" superior to upside EAM |
| Which projection best demonstrates the floor of the orbits? | Modified parietoacanthial (modified waters) |
| Which of the following methods will demonstrate the optic canal? | Rhese |
| Which line is placed perpendicular to the IR for the Rhese projection of the optic canal? | Acanthiomeatal line |
| How many degrees is the head rotated for the Rhese projection of the optic canal? | 37 |
| How much skull rotation (from the lateral skull position) toward the IR is required with an axiolateral oblique projection for the demonstrating each of the following: Body of the mandible | 30 |
| How much skull rotation (from the lateral skull position) toward the IR is required with an axiolateral oblique projection for the demonstrating each of the following: Mentum | 45 |
| How much skull rotation (from the lateral skull position) toward the IR is required with an axiolateral oblique projection for the demonstrating each of the following: Ramus | 0 |
| How much skull rotation (from the lateral skull position) toward the IR is required with an axiolateral oblique projection for the demonstrating each of the following: General survey | 10-15 |
| What must be done to prevent the ramus of the mandible from being superimposed over the cervical spine with an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible? | Extend the chin and increase the tube angle |
| How does the ARRT define trauma? | A serious injury or shock to the body, often requiring modifications that may include variations in positioning, minimal movement of the body part, and so on |
| Define subluxation | A partial dislocation, in which a vertebra is displaced posteriorly |
| Define sprain | A forced wrenching or twisting of a joint resulting in a partial rupture or tearing of supporting ligaments, without dislocation |
| Define contusion | A bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture |
| Define fracture | A disruption of bone caused by mechanical forces applied either directly to the bone or transmitted along the shaft of the bone |
| What is a Boxer fracture? | Usually involves the distal fifth metacarpal, with an apex posterior angulation best demonstrated on the lateral view. It results from punching someone or something |
| What is a Hutchinson fracture? | Also known as Chauffeur, this is an intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process |
| What is a Blowout/Tripod Fracture? | Result from a direct blow to the orbit and/or maxilla and zygoma, create fractures to the orbital floor and lateral orbital margins |
| What is a compression fracture? | Vertebral fracture is caused by compression-type injury. The vertebral body collapses or is compressed. Generally, it is the most evident radiographically by a decreased vertical dimension of the anterior vertebral body |
| What are the FOUR things to consider when it comes to Digital Imaging? | Four-sided collimation Accurate centering Exposure factors Post-processing evaluation of exposure indicator |
| What is the average walking speed of a portable? And what is the maximum incline? | Average walking speed of a portable is 2 ½ to 3 mph and the maximum incline is 7° |
| List the THREE principles in performing trauma/mobile radiography: | Obtain 2 projections 90° apart from each other with true CR/part IR alignment Include the entire structure or trauma area on the IR Maintain the safety of the patient, health care workers, and the public |
| What are FOUR alternate modalities: | Computed tomography (CT) Sonography (medical ultrasound) Nuclear medicine (NM) Angiography and interventional procedure |
| Approximately _% of deaths from blunt force trauma arise from chest injuries. | 25% |
| What are FOUR attributes of the Radiologic Technologist in Surgical Radiography | Confidence Communication Problem-solving skills Mastery |
| The surgical team consists of these SIX members | Surgeon Anesthesiologist Surgical assistant Certified surgical technologist Circulator Scrub |
| What method on a C-arm is used in interventional procedures that require placement of catheters. It is similar to subtraction in that is removes stationary structures from the viewing screen | Roadmapping |
| What happens if a C-arm is tilted 30 degrees? | It will increase the dose to the face and neck region of an operator of average height who stands next to the C-arm by a factor of 4 |
| Why is a vertical AP projection CR not recommended on a Carm? | Because of the significant increase in exposure to the operator, up to 100 times higher dose to the eyes of the operator |
| Exposure rate/patient dose depends on FIVE factors: | Operational mode Field size Patient size Tissue composition ABC design |
| What are EIGHT items of surgical attire: | Scrubs Scrub cover Head cover Shoe covers Shoes Masks Protective eyewear Nonsterile gloves |
| Define ORIF | Open reduction with internal fixation |
| When are Intermedullary rods and nails used? And for what fractures? | Intramedullary rods and nails are inserted within the shaft of long bones to stabilize fractures. This technique is popular for reducing shaft fractures of the humerus, tibia, and femur |
| What are THREE types of hip fractures: | Femoral neck fractures Intertrochanteric fractures Subtrochanteric fractures |
| What is a laminectomy? What does it remove? What is it intended to | performed to alleviate pain caused by neural impingement. remove a small portion of the bone or herniated disk material impinging on the nerve root. intended to give the nerve root more space by removing the source of impingement or irritation |
| What is a spinal fusion? | An additional procedure from a laminectomy, which uses rods, plates, and screws to stabilize the surgically altered vertebrae |
| What are Interbody fusion cages? | Titanium cages filled with bone that are inserted between the vertebral bodies to maintain disk space height and fuse the joint, thereby eliminating abdominal movement |
| What is spinal stenosis? | A condition that primarily afflicts older patients; it is caused by degenerative changes that result in enlargement of the facet joints. The enlarged joints then place pressure on the nerves, which may be effectively relieved with a lumbar laminectomy |
| Define lithotripsy: | Crushing of calcification in the renal pelvis, ureter, or urinary bladder by mechanical force or sound waves |
| Define Cholecystectomy: | Surgical removal of gallbladder |
| Define Asepsis | A state of sterility; conduction in which living pathogens are absent |
| Define Shower curtain: | An isolation drape that separated the sterile fields from the nonsterile environment; often used to permit the use of C-arm fluoroscopy during a hip pinning procedure |
| Define Reduce: | To align two bone fragments in the correct position as treatment for a fracture, as applied in orthopedic medicine |
| Define Neural Impingement: | A condition in which bony changes or a herniated disk produced impingement of the spinal nerves that pass through the vertebral arch of the vertebra |
| Define Microdiskectomy: | Microsurgical procedure performed on the spine to remove bony fragments or disk material that may be causing neural impingement |
| What should the technologist do to compensate for this problem without creating excessive magnification of the occipital bone? | Use the IOML and increase the CR angulation by 7 degrees. |
Created by:
trinitydrew1
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