Save
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

PATHO TEST 2

QuestionAnswer
Consists of the brain and spinal cord Central Nervous System (CNS)
Consists of 12 pairs of cranial nerves & 31 pairs of spinal nerves Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
Neurons that carry signal towards the CNS Afferent neurons
Neurons that carry signal away from the CNS Efferent neurons
System that supplies striated skeletal muscles Somatic
System that supplies smooth, cardiac, and glandular epithelial tissue Autonomic
Inner surface attaching to brain and spinal cord Pia mater
Delicate cobweb like membrane Arachnoid membrane
Tough outermost covering Dura Mater
what is the basic unit of the nervous system neuron
What is the axon insulated by? Myelin sheath
what is the conduction route? reflex arch
What is a synapse? how impulses travel through
Best modality to evaluate the nervous system? MRI
the loss of the ability to speak, write, and/or comprehend the written or spoken word aphasia
lowered level of consciousness lethargy
painful condition of the nerves neuropathy
paralysis on one side of the body hemiplegia
weakness on one side of the body hemiparesis
difficulty speaking dysarthria
altered state of consciousness after an epileptic seizure postictal
protective membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord meninges
nerve cells neurons
a concentration of nerve cell bodies gray matter
axons connecting different parts of gray white matter
Acute inflammation of the pia mater & arachnoid; bacterial and viral, treated with immediate broad-spectrum antibiotics followed by specific antibiotics based of culture results Meningitis
Which meningitis is more common and more dangerous? bacterial
Viral inflammation of the brain & meninges (30% happen in children) that produce HA, fever, seizures, and even coma; treated with brain biopsy Encephalitis
Most common primary malignant brain tumor, consists of glial cells (supportive connective tissue); is spread by direct extension & can cross hemispheres; peak age of 30+ Glioma
Type of glioma that is the most common (70%); also is slow growing Astrocyte
Type of glioma that arises from the 4th ventricle in children & lateral ventricles in adults which originates from ventricle or spine cord lining Ependymomas
Type of glioma that is a slow growing lesion that arise in the cerebrum; originates from cells that produce myelin Oligodendrocytes
A common type of a rapidly growing pineal tumors include germinomas and ______ which is a hypodense mass with internal calcifications; occurs in males younger than 25 Teratoma
Caused by acute ARTERIAL bleeding and most commonly form over the parieto-temporal convexity (blood between dura mater and skull) epidural hematoma
Reflect VENOUS bleeding; most commonly from ruptured veins between dura and meninges subdural hematoma
Injury to surface veins or cortical arteries bleeding into the ventricles beneath the arachnoid layer of meninges subarachnoid hemorrhage
The sudden & dramatic development of a focal neurologic deficit; most commonly involves the circulation of the internal carotid arteries stroke syndrome
What is the time frame to administer fibrinolytic agents to effectively decrease risk of permanent neurologic deficit after a stroke? 2-3 hours
Embolic stroke originating from arteriosclerotic ulcerated plaque; focal neurological deficits completely resolve within 24 hours Transient Ischemic Stroke (TIA)
What is a major cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage? rupture of a berry aneurysm
A diffuse form of progressive cerebral atrophy that develops at an earlier age (before 60) then the senile period (60 & older) Alzheimer's Disease
Atrophy of caudate nucleus and putamen; inherited condition that predominately involves men & appears in the early to middle adult years as dementia & continuous involuntary rapid, jerky movements Huntington's Disease
A progressive degenerative disease (of basal ganglia) characterized by stooped posture, stiffness, & slowness, fixed facial expression & involuntary rhythmic tremor of the limbs that disappears with voluntary movement; usually occur in those 40 and older Parkinson's Disease
Which 2 famous people had Parkinson's? Muhammad Ali & Michael J. Fox
Degeneration of cerebellum; may represent an inherited disorder, a degenerative disease or the toxic effect of prolonged use of alcohol and phenytoin cerebellar atrophy
A relentlessly progressive condition of unknown cause with widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerve cells leading to extensive paralysis & death from respiratory weakness or aspiration pneumonia Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
What is Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis commonly known as? Lou Gehrig's Disease
Dilation of the ventricular system that is usually associated with increased intracranial pressure Hydrocephalus
What is commonly used to treat hydrocephalus? shunt placement
What 2 famous people had ALS? Stephen Hawking & Lou Gehrig
The main difference between transient ischemic attacks and a stroke are: lasting neurologic deficits
mucosal thickening most commonly in the paranasal sinuses (maxillary) Sinusitis
Complications of sinusitis can lead to all of the following pathological conditions, except pituitary adenomas
T/F Craniopharyngiomas are benign tumors that contain both cystic and solid components and usually occur in patients younger that 30 years of age. false, younger than 20
T/F The most common location of surgically treatable arteriosclerotic disease causing TIAs is the region of the carotid bifurcation in the neck true
a collection of glands that produce/secrete hormones that regulate metabolism, growth & development, tissue function, sexual function, reproduction, and sleep endocrine system
low or inadequate amount hypoactive
high or excess amount hyperactive
enlargement of an organ or tissue caused by increase in the reproduction rate of its cells hyperplasia
excess of growth hormone after the growth plates have closed acromegaly
excess growth or height in children gigantism
high blood sugar levels hyperglycemia
What does the adrenal cortex produce? cortisol, aldosterone, & androgens
Helps regulate metabolism & respond to stress cortisol
Helps control BP aldosterone
sex hormones androgens
What does the adrenal medulla produce? epinephrine & norepinephrine
aka adrenaline; regulates cardiac and glucose epinephrine
regulates cardiac, glucose, & muscle contraction norepinephrine
Occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of the hormone cortisol for a long time Cushing's syndrome
What are symptoms of Cushing syndrome? obesity, moon-shaped face, buffalo hump, fatigue, bone loss, & increased urination (usually 20+)
Abnormal secretion of adrenocortical hormones characterized by masculinization of women; causes ambiguous genital's in women, enlarged penis in men, & accelerates skeletal maturation = dwarfism Adrenogenital Syndrome
A rare tumor that produces an excess of vasopressor substances (epinephrine & norepinephrine causing HTN; round, oval mass (meatball); are BENIGN Pheochromocytoma
Cancer that starts in early forms of nerve cells found in an embryo or fetus (1:3 starts in adrenal gland); the 2nd most common malignancy in child (0-5), highly malignant Neuroblastoma
What gland is known as the master gland? pituitary gland
Hormones secreted by this gland control the level of most glandular activity throughout the body pituitary gland
Which lobe of the pituitary gland secretes ACTH, FSH, GH, LH, Prolactin (milk production), TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) anterior lobe
Which lobe of the pituitary gland secretes ADH & oxytocin (for muscle contractions? posterior lobe
A condition due to the primary hypersecretion of pituitary hormones causing gigantism & acromegaly Hyperpituitarism
Occurs when the body can’t regulate how it handles fluid due to low levels of ADH; Increase in thirst and dilution of urine Diabetes Insipidus
Large ductless gland in the neck that secretes hormones regulating growth & development through the rate of metabolism (produces T3 & T4) Thyroid gland
Commonly develops as a result of iodine deficiency or inflammation of the thyroid gland; not all cause symptoms such as swelling and cough Goiter
Encapsulated tumors that vary greatly in size & usually compress adjacent tissue; cause deviation or compression of the trachea, & may extend into superior mediastinum Thyroid Adenoma
These glands secrete PTH = responsible for regulating the blood levels of calcium & phosphate Parathyroid glands
Common endocrine disorder in which the pancreas fails to secrete insulin or target cells fail to respond to this hormone Diabetes Mellitus
Onset of diabetes mellitus that develops in children & requires daily insulin injections Juvenile
Develops later in life & can be controlled by diet alone Non-insulin dependent
T/F The pituitary gland secretes several different types of steroid hormones including: mineralocorticoids, androgens, glucocorticoids. false
Is the 2nd most common malignancy in children neuroblastoma
Excess production of this hormones in Cushing's syndrome may be attributable to generalized bilateral hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex, or it may be the result of a functioning adrenal or even nonadrenal tumor. glucocorticoid
All of the following are diseases of the adrenal cortex: aldosteronism, hypoadrenalism, & adrenal carcinoma
Common treatments for endocrine system disease include all of the following surgical resection, hormone replacement therapy, & chemotherapy
The best imaging modality/ exam for demonstrating both functioning and nonfunctioning thyroid tissue is? radioactive iodine scanning
What is the name for an enlargement of the thyroid gland that does not result from an inflammatory or neoplastic process? goiter
What are the 5 functions of bones? 1. supporting framework of the body 2. protect vital organs 3. muscle contraction & joint movement 4. red bone marrow produce blood cells 5. maintain calcium levels
Disruption of bone caused by mechanical forces applied either directly to the bone or transmitted along the shaft of the bone fractures
What are 3 signs that a fracture has occurred? joint effusion, soft tissue swelling, & interruption of bony trabeculae
A fracture that results in discontinuity between 2 or more fragments complete Fx
Partial discontinuity with a portion of the cortex remaining incomplete Fx
the overlying skin is intact closed Fx
Overlying skin is disrupted compound/open fracture
Runs at a right angle to the long axis of the bone Transverse Fx
runs approximately 45 degrees to the long axis of the bone Oblique Fx
Encircles the shaft, generally longer than an oblique fracture; caused by a twisting motion Spiral Fx
Generally small fragments torn from bony prominences Avulsion Fx
Composed of more than 2 fragments Comminuted Fx
Elongated triangular fragment of cortical bone Butterfly Fx
Consists of a segment of the shaft isolated by proximal and distal lines of a fracture Segmental Fx
Results from compression forces that causes compaction of bone trabeculae Compression Fx
A portion of bone displaced inward on skull or tibial plateau Depressed Fx
Response of bone to repeated stresses (runners 2nd & 3rd metatarsals) Stressed/fatigue Fx
Occurs in bone weakened by some preexisting condition. Pathologic Fx
Incomplete fracture with the opposite cortex intact Greenstick Fx
One cortex is intact buckling or compaction of opposite Torus/Buckle
Plastic deformation caused by a stress that is too great to permit complete recovery of normal shape Bowing
Occurs when a plane of cleavage exists in the bone w/o angulation or separation Undisplaced/non-displaced
Separation of bone fragments Displacement
Angular deformity between the axes of the major fragments Angulation
Displacement of a bone that is no longer in contact with its normal articulation Dislocation
Only partial loss of continuity of the joint surfaces Subluxation
How many views are needed and at what degree difference for trauma? 2 views 90 degrees from each other
Healing of fracture fragments in a faulty position Malunion
any fracture that takes longer to heal than an average fracture (caused by diabetes/smoking) Delayed union
Fracture healing process has completely stopped, fragments remain ununited Nonunion
Best exam for battered child syndrome? skeletal survey
wrist fracture from fall on outstretched hand Colle's Fx
most common carpal bone fracture Navicular/Scaphoid Fx
fracture to 5th metacarpal usually from resulting blow of fist Boxer's Fx
transverse fracture at the base of the 5th metatarsal; caused by stepping off curb or falling while walking stairs Jone's Fx
T/F Most shoulder dislocations are anterior. True (95%)
T/F Most hip dislocations are posterior. True (80%-90%)
fracture & displacement of the ring of atlas, fracture of dens Jefferson Fx
anterior subluxation of C2 on C3 (MVC) Hangman's Fx
Is the major cause of severe acute or chronic of recurring low back and leg pain (with lumbar intervertebral disks) Protrusion/Herniation
Twisting & curvature in the lateral perspective of the spine (S curves, more than 20 degrees) Scoliosis
Problem with scoliosis outside the spine (leg lenght) functional scoliosis
vertebra fail to form completely or separate appropriately neuromuscular scoliosis
Cleft in the pars interarticular that is situated between the superior & inferior articular process Spondylosis & Spondylothesis
This position shows spondylolisthesis demonstrate the lucent cleft in the pars interarticularis lateral lumbar
This position demonstrates spondylolysis which appears as a fractured scotty dog neck oblique lumbar
A posterior defect of the spinal canal, resulting from failure of the posterior elements to fuse properly Spina Bifida
Mild/insignificant form of spina bifida; splitting of bony canal at L5-S1/tuft of hair) Spina Bifida Occulta
Type of spina bifida with large defects with herniation of meninges Meningocele
Type of spina bifida with large defects with herniation of meninges and a portion of spinal cord & nerve roots Myelomengicolee
aka marble bone; a rare hereditary bone dysplasia that prevents bone marrow from forming; bones become very brittle and stress fractures occur often Osteopetrosis
aka brittle bone; an inherited disorder of connective tissues, characterized by multiple fxs, & an unusual blue color sclera; Due to imperfectly formed or inadequate bone collagen (Adults generally wheelchair bound) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
What is seen when imaging osteogenesis imperfecta? bizarre deformities (may mimic child abuse) & lower kVp due to bone loss
How is Osteomalacia and rickets treated? doses of vitamin D with calcium supplements
This disease is the most common chronic metabolic disease of the skeleton & has a cotton wool appearance on radiograph Paget's Disease
Generally occurs in the end of a long bone in metaphysis (knee; between ages 10-25); usually given 5 year survival rate Osteogenic Sarcoma
Malignant tumor of cartilaginous origin a new or within a preexisting cartilaginous lesion; commonly occurs in long bones, often originates from ribs, scapula, or vertebrae (age 35-60) Chondrosarcoma
Primary malignant tumor arising in the bone marrow of long bones; tumor cells invade cortical bone & spread to soft tissue Ewing's Sarcoma
A widespread malignancy of plasma cells that may be associated with bone destruction, bone marrow failure, hypercalcemia, renal failure, & recurrent infections (ages 40-70) Multiple Myeloma
Image shows multiple punched out osteolytic lesions on lateral skull indicates? multiple myeloma
A radiograph of a tear drop on a coronal CT, AP skull or waters x-ray indicates? blowout fracture
Radiographic appearance of a snowman? pituitary adenoma
Infection causing a collection of pus between the dura & arachnoid subdural empyema
Microorganism infection of gray and white matter; risk factors include compromised immune systems (AIDs & cancer) brain abscess
Stages of a brain abscess: encephalitis, localization, enlargements, & rupture (terminal)
Infectious process above the dura & beneath the inner skull table epidural empyema
What is used to treat most CNS infections? craniotomy & broad spectrum antibiotics
An infection of the bone or bone marrow, typically caused by bacteria or sometimes fungus Osteomyelitis of the skull
T/F A hangman's fracture is the result of acute hyperextension of the head on the neck. True
To demonstrate a herniation of an intervertebral disk a ____________ study is recommended. CT myelogram
Fat pad sign is a radiographic finding of a _____________ fracture. Elbow
The most common injury to the foot is a transverse fracture at the base of the fifth metatarsal called a ___________ fracture Jones
The most common cause of osteoporosis is: hormone changes
T/F Multiple myeloma is an additive disease, and as such kVp and mAs should be increased False
Most common reason why we x-ray: trauma
Appendages that are designed to receive communications from other cells dendrites
Causes of such disease are poorly understood, is a combination of genetic & environmental factors thyroid carcinomas
What is the most common type of thyroid carcinoma, it is slow growing & localized? (75%-80%) Papillary
This thyroid carcinoma usually occurs in women over 50, early hematogenous spread (lungs & bone); 15% Follicular
This thyroid carcinoma is familial, most often appearing as a component of a syndrome in which there are multiple endocrine tumors Medullary
An example of a malignant bone tumor is: Osteogenic sarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, and chondrosarcoma
Bacterial meningitis is most commonly caused by ____ in children. Haemophilus
A CT head w/o done after a patient arrives with stroke symptoms is done to rule out? Intracranial hemorrhage
Thickening of heel pads is a radiographic finding in patients diagnosed with: Hyperpituitarism
Common stroke symptoms include: hemiplegia, hemiparesis, & dysarthria
The most common complication & leading cause of death in diabetic patients is: Renal disease
Created by: gnteumac
Popular Radiology sets

 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards