Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
NMT Review Exam 4
Steve's Review Exam 4 Part 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| How does 201Tl decay: A)by positron emission B)by electron capture C)by beta emission D)none of the above | B) 201Tl decays by electron capture |
| In performing a bone image, which view would best demonstrate an abnormality in the calcaneus: A)lateral views of the patella B)post-void image of the pelvis C)plantar view of the feet D)anterior view of the distal humerus and radius | C) The calcaneus, the heel of the foot, would be best imaged by placing the sole of the patient's foot on the detector. Both feet may be imaged at the same time. |
| All of the following are true about 4 phase bone imaging EXCEPT: A)study includes both dynamic and static imaging B)study may be performed with any blood pool agent C)patient is positioned under camera before tracer administration | B) Because the 2nd through 4th phases are performed to determine the presence of increased, persistent tracer uptake in the bone, the study must be performed with a bone agent. |
| Which patient should receive fewer particles than typically administered for lung perfusion imaging: A)80-yr old woman with suspected PE B)65-yr old man with COPD C)45-yr old man with right-to-left cardiac shunt D)25-yr old woman with asthma | C) Patients with left-to-right cardiac shunts should be given a reduced number of particles because the particles pass through to the left side of the heart and into the systemic circulation. |
| Which statement about the wash-in/washout method for performing xenon ventilation study is TRUE: A)patient rebreathes a mixture of oxygen and xenon during the wash-in phase B)patient can be disconnected from the gas trap apparatus after the wash-in phase | A) In the wash-in/wash-out method, the patient breathes a mixture of xenon and oxygen for several minutes while a wash-in image is acquired. |
| After the administration of 99mTc-pentetate aerosol with a face mask, radioactive contamination is likely to be found in all the following areas EXCEPT: A)floor B)patient's mouth C)patient's chest D)technologist's hands | D) There is leakage at the exhaust of the delivery system. The filter is unable to trap the exhausted aerosol sufficiently to prevent the escape of airborne tracer from the delivery system. |
| Thyroid imaging may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals: A)99mTc-pertechnetate B)123I-sodium iodide C)99mTc-sestamibi D)99mTc-pertechnetate or 123I-sodium iodide | D) For routine thyroid imaging, either 99mTc-pertechnetate or 123I-sodium iodide may be used. |
| When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake, nonthyroidal (body) background measurements may be taken over the: A)lateral skull B)mediastinum C)abdomen D)thigh | D) Non-thyroidal background measurements may be collected over the thigh. |
| Pulse rates may be determined by all the following methods EXCEPT: A)multiplying the respiration rate by 4 B)using a pulse oximeter C)listening to the heart with a stethoscope D)analyzing the electrocardiogram | A) In addition to the routine finger method of determining the radial pulse, pulse rates can be determined from the ECG or pulse oximeter. Listening to the heart with a stethoscope will give a pulse rate known as the apical pulse. |
| Which statement about the administration of oxygen is FALSE: A)oxygen is a drug B)oxygen therapy may be ordered by a physician, nurse, athletic trainer, or respiratory therapist C)with the consent of a physician or nurse an oxygen appliance may be removed | B) Because oxygen is a drug, it must be prescribed by a physician who specifies the amount to be received, the device to be used, and time interval. |
| Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the administration of: A)adenosine B)aminophylline C)acetazolamide D)nitroglycerin | B) Adverse effects of dipyridamole, a vasodilator, include hypotension, headache, and nausea. These effects may be reversed by administering aminophylline intravenously. |
| Which of the following must be discontinued for at least 24-36 hours before the administration of dipyridamole: A)water B)aspirin C)insulin D)theophylline | D) Caffeine and medications containing caffeine should not be consumed for at least 12hr before testing. The use of xanthine derivatives (theophylline, aminophylline) should be discontinued 24-36hr before the NM procedure. |
| In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur a maximum of how long after tracer administration: A)5-10min B)20-30min C)45-60min D)1-2hr | B) In a normal hepatobiliary study, the duodenum and proximal jejunum are visualized by 30 min after tracer administration. |
| Which agents would be used to perform a gallbladder ejection fraction: A)sincalide and 99mTc-disofenin B)sincalide and 99mTc-sulfer colloid C)morphine and 99mTc-lidofenin D)morphine and 99mTc-mertiatide | A) In cases of delayed gallbladder visualization, sincalide is administered when the gallbladder is full. Pre-and post contraction images are used to calculate an ejection fraction. |
| For which of the procedures is the radiopharmaceutical administered orally: A)gastric emptying B)GI bleed C)salivary gland imaging D)vesicoureteral reflux imaging | A) For the determination of gastric emptying, the patient ingests the radiopharmaceutical. |
| Patient preparation for functional renal imaging should include which of the following: A)hydration of the patient B)discontinuation of all medications C)fasting for at least 2 hr before imaging D)administration of furosemide 1hr before imaging | A) Renal function imaging should be performed with the patient in a normal state of hydration. To ensure hydration, the patient should drink 0.5L of water 30-60min before the study. |
| Static renal imaging is performed about how long after the administration of 99mTc-succimer: A)immediately B)30min C)2hr D)8hr | C) 99mTc-succimer (DMSA) is used for static renal cortical imaging. Imaging is performed about 2 hours after tracer administration. |
| Patient prep for 67Ga-citrate imaging may include administration of which of the following: A)diuretics B)potassium perchlorate C)Lugol's solution D)laxatives | D) 67Ga-citrate is excreted in the feces. The activity in the bowl may interfere with the interpretation of the study. Therefore, a bowel prep may be prescribed at the same time the tracer is administered. |
| A normal biodistribution of 111In-labeled leukocytes will demonstrate the greatest tracer uptake at 24hr after injection in which of the following sites: A)bone marrow B)liver C)lung D)spleen | D) At 24hr after injection, a normal biodistribution of 111In-labeled leukocytes demonstrates tracer uptake only in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow. The greatest uptake is in the spleen, followed by the liver and the bone marrow. |
| A patient with diabetes who becomes hypoglycemic may exhibit all of the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT: A)weakness and shakiness B)confusion C)irritability D)nausea and vomiting | D) Hypoglycemic patients may exhibit an intense hunger, may be weak, shaky, and sweat excessively. They may become confused and irritable. Most patients will recognize symptoms before they become severe. |
| Which of the following tracers may be used to confirm brain death: A)99mTc-exametazime B)99mTc-oxidronate C)99mTc-mertiatide D)201Tl-thallous chloride | A) 99mTc-exametazime has been used to confirm brain death, because this tracer is normally concentrated in brain tissue in proportion to blood flow. It can visualize the degree of perfusion in the brain. |
| Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in a patient's nose after intrathecal tracer administration is most useful when which condition is suspected: A)rhinorrhea B)hydrocephalus C)CSF shunt patency D)blockage of CSF flow | A) In the case of cerebral spinal fluid leaks through the nose (rhinorrhea) or ears (otorrhea), placing cotton gauze in the patient's nose or ears is helpful in diagnosing such leaks. |
| Colloidal 32P-chromic phosphate is administered by which route: A)intraperitoneal B)intravenous C)subcutaneous D)inhalation | A) Colloidal 32P-chromic phosphate is used to treat pleural or peritoneal effusions resulting from a malignancy. The agent is introduced directly into the pleural or peritoneal cavity. |
| Which of the following radiation safety measures should be used when performing 89Sr therapy: A)use of lead vial and syringe shields B)urinary catheterization for incontinent patients C)use of absorbent paper in isolation room | B) It is recommended that incontinent patients receiving 89Sr-chloride be catheterized to minimize the spread of contamination. |
| On the basis of blood flow, which of the following is visualized as an area of high tracer concentration on a brain image performed with 99mTc-exametazime: A)gray matter B)white matter C)pineal body D)medulla oblongata | A) Uptake of a SPECT brain agent is primarily in the gray matter of the cerebrum, which has a higher blood flow than white matter. |
| A tech is performing a lung image on a patient known to have active TB. The most appropriate personal protective device the tech should utilize is: A)gloves B)gown C)lab coat D)mask | D) The mask is the most appropriate for airborne respiratory diseases. |
| The patency of a LeVeen shunt may be demonstrated with which radiopharmaceuticals: A)99mTc-disofenin or 99mTc-sulfur colloid B)99mTc-MAA or 99mTc-sulfur colloid C)99mTc-pentetate or 99mTc-pertechnetate D)99mTc-albumin or 99mTc-RBC's | B) A LeVeen shunt is used to treat ascites by draining the excess fluid that accumulates in the peritoneal cavity into the superior vena cava. Imaging may be performed with either 99mTc-MAA or 00mTc-sulfur colloid. |
| Which of the following is common to image gastroesophageal reflux in adults and children: A)99mTc-sulfur colloid tracer of choice B)patient must fast midnight before the test C)abdominal binder is used to increase pressure over the abdomen | A) 99mTc-sulfur colloid is the radiopharmaceutical used to image gastroesophageal reflux in both children and adults. |
| The following studies are ordered for a patient: ERPF determination; TB bone imaging; 111In-pentetreotide imaging. What order should the studies be performed? | ERPF determination; Total body bone imaging; 111In-pentetreotide imaging. |
| Historically, the function of intrinsic factor administered during a Schilling test was to: A)increase urine output B)facilitate absorption of B-12 C)saturate B-12 storage sites | B) Intrinsic factor is essential to the absorption of vitamin B-12. It binds to the vitamin and facilitates an active transport mechanism for B-12 absorption in the terminal ileum. |
| The region of interest for detection of a left-to-right cardiac shunt is drawn around which structure: A)superior vena cava B)one or both lungs C)left ventricle D)right ventricle and great vessels | B) The region of interest for detection of a left-to-right cardiac shunt is drawn around one or both lungs to generate a pulmonary time-activity curve. |
| For an adult, what are the normal values for Pulse, BP, Respirations, and Temperature? | Pulse=60-100bpm BP:Diastolic=60-90mmHg; Systolic=95-140mmHg Respirations=12-20breaths/min Temperature=97.7-99.5 degrees F |
| A common antecubital vein used for intravenous administration of a radiopharmaceutical is the: A)cephalic B)radial C)brachial D)ulnar | A) A variety of antecubital veins can be used for drug administration, but the two most commonly used are the basilic and cephalic veins. |
| The 51Cr-red cell sequestration study is performed to identify abnormal destruction of RBC's by the: A)bone marrow B)heart C)liver D)spleen | D) The red cell sequestration study is performed to determine if the patient's anemia is the result of active splenic sequestration of normal red cells. |
| The difference in hematocrit values between the average whole-body hematocrit and the venous heatocrit is the result of: A)difference in vessel size B)variation in RBC diameter C)increased amount of blood in extremities D)plasma leakage | A) Hematocrits vary with vessel size. Smaller vessels yield a lower hematocrit value than larger vessels. |
| What is the % of uptake: Thyroid=2,876; Patient Bkgd=563; Standard=10,111; Room Bkgd=124 | 23%. (2876-563/10111-124)x100=23% |
| A tech is asked to check the flow rate on a drip infusion on a patient in the department. An acceptable flow rate is how many drops per min: A)1-5 B)10-20 C)40-60 D)75-100 | B) An acceptable flow rate for a drip infusion is 10-20 drops per minute. This rate may be adjusted by physician order. |
| The total blood volume may be calculated by dividing the measured red cell volume by the: A)hematocrit B)plasmacrit C)corrected hematocrit D)correctied plasmacrit | C) The formula for calculating the total blood volume, based on the red cell volume, uses the corrected hematocrit in the denominator. |
| The calculated plasma volume in milliliters is: Net Std counts-839,621cpm; Std dilution factor=15; Net plasma counts=2,528cpm/mL | PV= (net standard cpm)(dilution factor) / net plasma cpm/ml PV=(839621x15)/2528=4982mL |
| If the concentration of a 1:2,000 dilution is 0.05uCi/mL, what is the tracer concentration of the original solution? | 100uCi/mL) 1:2000 dilution means that the diluted solution is 0ne 2,000th of the original conc. 1/2000 (xCi/mL)=0.05uCi/mL; 1/2000=0.05uCi/mL/x; X=2000x0.05uCi/mL=100uCi/mL |
| A patient scheduled for 18F-FDG imaging has a blood glucose level of 100mg/dL. The tech should: A)reschedule the patient B)administer insulin to lower glucose level C)administer glucose to raise glucose level D)proceed with the exam | D) In an adult, a normal fasting blood glucose level is 70-115mg/dL. Because the patient's blood glucose level is within the normal range, the technologist can proceed with the examination. |
| What is the % gallbladder ejection fraction: Maximum gallbladder counts=185,623; Minimum gallbladder counts=77,203 | 58%. [(185632-77203)/185632]x100=58% |
| After a 99Mo/99mTc generator is eluted, it takes approximately how many hours for the 99mTc activity to build up to a maximum level: A)8hr B)12hr C)24hr D)the secular generator can be eluted only once | C) Maximum 99mTc activity is obtained about 24hr after the last elution of 99mTc. |
| What is the total activity of 8mL of 99mTc eluate that has a concentration of 2.0MBq/mL? | 16MBq. total activity=2.0MBq/mLx8mL=16MBq |
| A wet column generator is equipped with all the following parts EXCEPT: A)alumina column B)lead shield C)charging port D)collection port | C) A wet-column generator is not equipped with a charging port because the saline supply is contained within the generator itself. A dry-column generator, however, uses a charging port to add saline to the column. |
| According to the USP, the max allowable aluminum concentration in 99mTc eluate is not to exceed: A)0ug/mL B)10ug/mL C)20ug/mL D)10mg/mL | B) According to the USP, a 99mTc eluate should contain no more than 10ug/mL of Al(+3) in 1mL of eluate. |
| Which statement about determining 99Mo concentration in 99mTc eluate using the lead shield method is TRUE: A)eluate is assayed only for 99Mo B)eluate in the lead shield is measured with the dose calibrator set to assay 99Mo | B) The lead shield method of determining 99Mo contamination is based on the energy differences between 99mTc photons (140keV) and 99Mo photons (740,780keV). |
| The test kit to measure Al ion concentration in 99mTc eluate contains specially treated indicator paper and an Al solution with a concentration of appx: A)2ug/mL B)5ug/mL C)10ug/mL D)20ug/mL | C) The test kit contains an Al solution with a concentration of approximately 10ug/mL, the max Al ion concentration allowed in 99mTc eluate as established by the USP. |
| Which pair of radiopharmaceuticals may be used to perform lung perfusion and ventilation imaging: A)99mTc-SC and 99mTc-pentetate aerosol B)99mTc-albumin and 133Xe C)99mTc-MAA and 133Xe D)99mTc-bicisate and 99mTc-pentetate aerosol | C) |
| 15 rem is equal to how many mSv? | 15 rem/100 rem/Sv=0.15 Sv; 0.15 Sv x 1000 mSv/Sv=150 mSv |
Created by:
fhantom88
Popular Radiology sets