A&P II Exam 1
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| Erythrocyte | Are removed from the circulation after about 120 days by macrophages
in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow
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| Platelet | function in the clotting mechanism by forming a temporary plug that helps seal breaks in blood vessels
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| Monocyte | They leave the circulation, enter tissue, and differentiate into macrophages
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| Lymphocyte | T cells function in the immune response. B cells give rise to plasma cells, which produce antibodies
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| Eosinophil | Lead the body’s counterattack against parasitic worms. Lessen the severity of allergies by phagocytizing immune complexes
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| Neutrophil | Take up both acidic and basic dyes. Give the cytoplasm a lilac color. Contain peroxidases, hydrolytic enzymes, and defensins (antibiotic-like proteins)
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| Basophil | Are functionally similar to mast cells
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| 3. List the major categories of plasma protein and state their function | Albumin: the most abundant plasma protein; contributes to the regulation of osmotic presure
Globulins: transport proteins that bind to lipids, metal ions, and fat soluble vitamins
clotting proteins:
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| Embolus | traveling clot in the bloodstream (Dangerous if it encounters narrow vessels)
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| anemia | Any condition in which the body has an abnormal oxygen carrying capacity
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| hemostasis | A series of reactions designed for stoppage of bleeding
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| clotting | blood transformed from a liquid to a gel
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| agglutination | clumping of (foreign) cells
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| spectrin | a large cytoskeletal protein that is found on the inner cell membrane of red blood cells and that functions especially in maintaining cell shape
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| thrombus | a clot that develops in an unbroken vessel (Can block circulation and kill viable tissues)
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| 5. Describe the components of whole blood and their relative proportions. | · It is composed of liquid plasma and formed element· Formed elements include:
F Erythrocytes, or red blood cells; erythrocytes are more than 97% hemoglobin
F Leukocytes, or white blood cells; Are less numerous than RBCs; Make 1% of the total blood v
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| 6. List the materials release from platelets. | Their granules contain serotonin, Ca2+, enzymes, ADP, and platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
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| 7. Describe erythropoiesis. Explain how it is controlled. | the production of erythrocytes. Erythropoiesis is hormonally controlled and depends on adequate supplies of iron, amino acids, and B vitamins
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| 8. What is heparin? | a polysaccharide produced in basophils (especially in the lung and liver) and that inhibits the activity of thrombin in coagulation of the blood
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| 9. What is the pivotal molecule associated with the external surfaces of aggregated platelets and involved in the intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms of blood clotting? | PF3
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| 10. What is the average normal pH of blood? | 7.4
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| 11. Which blood type is called the universal donor. | O
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| 12. Describe the fate of aging red blood cells. | membranes "wear out" and the cells become damaged.
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| 13. Describe the blood transfusion limitations for a person who is AB— | can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen.
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| 14. The most abundant plasma protein is _ | albumin
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| 16. What are blood volume expanders? List examples | 1dextran. 2saline solutions. 3albumin.
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| 17. What is the normal hemoglobin content of blood? | · Normal vlaalues for hemoglobin are 14-20(g/100ml) in infants
· 13-18(g/ml) in adult males
· 12-16 (g/100ml) in adult females
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| 18. Describe the symptoms of polycythemia. | 1 increased blood volume. 2 high hematocrit. 3 high blood pressure.
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| 19. Describe the phases of hemostasis | 1 platelet plug formation 2vascular spasm 3 coagulation
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| 20. Place the cell stages involved in erythropoisis in their correct developmental sequence. | 1proerythroblast 2 late erythroblast 3 normoblast 4 reticulocyte
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| 21. Describe the cause and symptoms of pernicious anemia. | A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes
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| 22. What is the slowest step in the clotting process? | formation of prothrombin activator.
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| 23. What are thromboembolytic disorders? | include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system.
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| 24. List the causes of bleeding disorders | 1 thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets 2vitamin K deficiency 3a defect in the clotting cascade
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| 26. Describe the general sequence of events in blood clotting | 1 formation of thromboplastin 2 prothrombin --> thrombin 3. fibrinogen --> fibrin 4 clot retraction
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| 27. Describe the leukocytes that come from myeloid stem cells. Which ones derive from myelocytes? | Lymphoid stem cells produce lymphocytes from the myeloid stem cell, eosinophils, neutrophils, and basophils are derived from myelocytes
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| 28. What circumstances may cause sickling of red blood cells in individuals with sickle-cell anemia. | travel at high altitude and vigorous exercise.
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| 29. What conditions may impair coagulation? | 1 severe hypocalcemia. 2 vitamin K deficiency. 3 liver disease.
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| 30. What are the complications of aplastic anemia? | 1 bleeding disorders. 2 impaired formation of all formed elements. 3 suppressed immunity.
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| 31. Erythroblastosis will not happen in the child of an Rh negative mother under what conditions? | if the father is Rh-
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| 32. The formed element ________ can kill parasitic worms. | eosinophyll
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| 33. A ________ is a committed granular leukocyte stem cell. | Proerythroblast
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| 34. The rarest leukocyte is the ________. | basophil
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| 35. The potent platelet aggregate that attracts more platelets to the site of an injury is ________. | ADP
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| 36. ________ is an antiprostaglandin drug that inhibits thromboxane A2 formation (platelet plug formation). | Aspirin
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| 37. The universal recipient blood type is ________. | AB
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| 38. When monocytes migrate into the interstitial spaces, they are called ________. | macrophages
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| 39. Destruction of the hematopoietic components of red marrow leads to a condition called ________. | Anemia
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| 40. ________ is the stage of development in the life of an erythrocyte during which the nucleus is ejected. | Normoblast
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| 41. Hemoglobin is composed of ________ polypeptide chains. | 4
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| 42. List the general factors that limit normal clot growth | swift removal of clotting factors
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| 43. When are whole blood transfusions routinely given | open Heart surgery and new born baby
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| 44. List the most common causes of bleeding disorders | 1 thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets 2vitamin K deficiency 3a defect in the clotting cascade
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| 45. List examples for each of the three functions of blood: distribution, regulation and protection. | protection: prevention of blood loss; regulation: maintenance of normal pH in body tissues; distribution:delivering oxygen from lungs, nutrients, transport hormomes and metabolic waste
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| 46. What are the granulocytes and what are their lifespans | spherical, lobed nuclei, phagocytes, few hours-5 days
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| 47. Why is iron not stored or transported in its free form? In what form(s) is it stored | iron can be toxic; protein-iron complexes
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| 48. Explain why blood is classified as a connective tissue | fibrous proteins form during clotting
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| 49. What determines whether blood is bright red or a dull, dark red | amount of oxygen
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| 50. Why is hemoglobin enclosed in erythrocytes rather than existing free in plasma? | binds to oxygen
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| 51. What is the buffy coat found in centrifuged whole blood | leukocytes & platelets
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| 52. Where and how is iron stored in the body? | 65% in Hemoglobin, stored in cells as a protein iron complexes
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| 53. Name the granulocytes and what percent they are found in whole blood | Neutrophil 50-70%, Eosinophil 2-4%, Basophil .5-1%
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| 54. Why would there be cause for concern if a young pregnant mother is Rh--, her husband is Rh+ and this is their second child? | erythroblastsosis fetrlis, antibodies will kill baby RBCs
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| 55. A total WBC count and a differential WBC count have been ordered for Mrs. Johnson. What information is obtained from the differential count that the total count does not provide? | amount of individual WBCs to determine status of hemostasis
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| 56. List three blood tests that might be ordered is anemia is suspected. | differential WBC count, platelet count, CBC
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| 59. Describe the body’s first, second and third lines of defense. | 1 First line of defense – intact skin and mucosae prevent entry of microorganisms 2 Second line of defense – antimicrobial proteins, phagocytes, and other cells Third line of defense – mounts attack against particular foreign substances
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| 60. Describe the function of the following immunoglobulins: IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM | IgA:limited in plasma; IgD: always attached to ext surface of a Bcell; IgE:secreted by plasma c cells; IgG: 75-85% of circ antibodies; IgM: exists in monomer and penatmeter forms
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| 63. How does one acquire passive immunity? | naturly acquired from mother to fetus via placenta
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| 64. List and describe the types of T cells | CD4 cells (T4 Cells), CD8 Cells (T8 cells), Supressor T cells, Memory T cells
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| 65. Describe the functions of the inflammatory response | clean area and prepare for healing
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| 66. The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by _________ | a flood of inflammatory chemicals released into the extracellular fluid
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| 67. The antibody molecule is held together by what kind of bonds? | disulfide
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| 68. In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned. | Antigen
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| 69. The system that recognizes foreign molecules and act to immobilize, neutralize, or destroy them is the ___ | active immune system
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| 70. The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called | phagocytosis
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| 71. Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________ | complement fixation
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| 72. The cheap antibodies mediated mechanism used against cellular antigens, such as bacteria is | lymphocytes
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| 73. The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the _____________ | cytotoxic cells
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| 74. Which WBC predominates at the site of chronic infections? | lymphocytes
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| 75. Describe the role of interferons. | stimulates the high boring cells to activate genes genes for PKR which is an anti-viral protein
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| 77. Describe the role of suppressor T cells | dampen the immune response, suppress self reactive lymphocytes in the periphery
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| 80. Describe the components of the second line of defense against microorganisms. | fever, natural killer cells, phagocytes
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| 81. What is a complete antigen? | many large polysaccharides, some lipids, nucleic acids
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| 83. Graft rejection may be caused by ____________ | not genetically identical grafts
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| 84. Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of the immune system by _______ | natural killer cells
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| 85. Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and roughen its surface, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This is called _____________ | opsonization
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| 87. Give examples of the use of monoclonal antibodies. | diagnose pregnancies, STDs, cancer, hepatitis, and rabies
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| 90. Describe the cause and benefits of fever. | response to microorganisms; make nutrient less available & increase metabolism
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| 92. Describe the role of natural killer cells | kill cancer cells & virus infected body cells
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| 94. What is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection? | WhyDescribe the time course of the primary immune response?
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| 95. Give some examples of autoimmune diseases | Lupis, AIDS
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| 96. How do autoimmune disorders develop? |
1 exposure of previously "hidden" self-antigens to the adaptive immune system
2 cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self-antigens 3 mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously presen
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| 97. Describe the functions of antibody. | neutralization
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| 99. What factors control the proliferation of T cells? | Helper T Cells
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| 101. Which interleukin inhibits the immune response? | 10
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| 102. ________ are grafts taken from another animal species. | Xenografts
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| 103. Pure antibody preparations specific for a single antigenic determinant are called ________ antibodies. | monoclonal
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| 104. ________ is the most common type of immediate hypersensitivity. | the adaptive immune system type 1 IgE
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| 105. ________ cells can lyse and kill cancer cells and virus-infected body cells before the immune system is activated. | natural killer cells
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| 106. Harmful or disease-causing microorganisms are called ________. | pathogens
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| 107. ________ refers to a group of at least 20 plasma proteins that normally circulate in an inactive state and are a major mechanism for destroying foreign substances in the body. | compliment proteins
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| 108. ________ becomes bound to mast cells and basophils and causes the cells to release histamine and other chemicals. | IgE
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| 109. A ________ is a cell hybrid formed from the fusion of tumor cells and B lymphocytes. | IgE
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| 110. ________ cells are the only T lymphocytes that can directly attack and kill other cells. | cytotoxic cells
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| 111. ________ is an autoimmune disease that severely impairs renal function. | glomerulo nephrrtrs
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| 112. List and briefly discuss innate body defenses to disease | fever, phagocytes, Natural killer cells, inflammation fusin tumor cells, lymphocytes
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| 113. What are monoclonal antibodies? How are they produced, and what are some of their clinical uses? | pure antibody preparations specific for a single antigenic determinant
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| 114. What is the antigen challenge, and where does it usually take place? | 1st encounter of an immunocompetent & an invadining antigen spken lymph node
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| 115. Why are suppressor T cells important to the immune process? | prevent autoimmune responses
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| 116. What are the signs of inflammation and how does inflammation serve as a protective function? | heat, redness, pain, swelling; prevents spread, repair, disposes of debris
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| 117. Tom gets a cut on his hand. After several days he notes swelling, pain, heat, and redness. Upon opening the wound to relieve the pressure, the presence of pus is noted. What has happened to the wound? | it has become infected
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| 118. What are some of the drawbacks of passive humoral immunity? | not made by your plasma cells & are harvested from the serum of an immune human or animal donor
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| immunocompetence | each lymphocyte must be able to recognize its one specific antigen by binding to it
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| delayed hypersensitivity | slower to appear (1-3 days), cell-mediated immune response which depends on Th cells & Tc cells
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| innate immune system defenses | 1st and 2nd line of defense, mechanical barriera that cover body surfaces & the cells & chemicals that act on the initial internal battle fronts
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| immediate hypersensitivites | allergies, begin w/in seconds after contact w/ the allergen & last about half an hour
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