Chapter 9
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| 1. The extreme hazards associated with materials that could be used in terrorist attacks has prompted the U.S. Department of Homeland Security to: (423) A. regulate who can be a first responder at hazmat/WMD incidents. B. recommend that only APRs be used during hazmat/WMD incidents. C. adopt standards for respiratory equipment to protect responders at hazmat/WMD incidents. | show 🗑
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| show | D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
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| 3. When using SCBA, where does the air supply come from? (423) A. The ambient air B. The user carries it C. A stationary air cylinder D. A large stationary generator | show 🗑
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| show | C. positive-pressure
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| 5. Why are supplied-air respirators (SARs) not certified for use in fire fighting operations? (426) A. Excessive weight increases physical stress B. Cannot supply positive pressure to the face C. Potential damage to the hose from heat, fire, or debris D. Not enough air to escape from a hazardous environment | show 🗑
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| show | C. provide positive pressure to the facepiece.
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| show | A. The ambient air
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| 8. Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas? (426) A. APR B. CPC C. SCBA D. IDLH | show 🗑
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| 9. APRs must be used only in atmospheres that are NOT oxygen deficient or oxygen enriched and are not IDLH because: (427) A. the ambient air supplies the oxygen. B. the air generator may fail at any moment. C. the purifying canister may be expired or damaged. D. the responder may not properly use the equipment. | show 🗑
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| 10. Which type of filter is MOST likely to be used when biological hazards are known to be present? (428) A. Powered B. Ambient air C. Vapor reducing D. Particulate removing | show 🗑
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| show | A. asbestos.
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| 12. Why must powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs) be used in an atmosphere of at least 19.5% oxygen? (430) A. They do not supply oxygen, only filter the air. B. The power mechanism may fail in low oxygen atmospheres. C. The air hose is susceptible to damage from heat and debris. D. Their power supply is a potential ignition source in an IDLH environment. | show 🗑
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| show | D. Decreased ability to communicate
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| show | B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
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| 15. Which statement about structural firefighters’ protective clothing is accurate? (433) A. Gases and vapors can permeate the garments. B. It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals. C. Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist. D. Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate. | show 🗑
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| show | D. short-term exposures to high temperatures.
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| 17. What type of PPE allows a responder to work in total flame for a short period of time? (435) A. Body armor B. Type C suit C. Proximity suit D. Fire-entry suit | show 🗑
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| 18. Flame-resistant protective clothing is mostly used for: (436) A. wildland fires. B. explosive materials. C. everyday flame-resistant work apparel. D. long-term exposures to high temperatures. | show 🗑
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| 19. Which of the following statements about CPC is MOST accurate? (437) A. CPC protects against all types of chemicals. B. CPC is only made from one type of material. C. It is appropriate for flammable environments. D. No single type of CPC can protect against all hazards. | show 🗑
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| 20. Why/how can CPC contribute to heat disorders in hot environments? (437) A. It can degrade. B. It absorbs sunlight. C. It is designed to be impenetrable to moisture. D. It allows penetration of hot fluids from the outside. | show 🗑
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| 21. Which statement about nonencapsulating liquid splash protective clothing is MOST accurate? (438) A. It is resistant to heat and flame exposure. B. It often exposes part of the head and neck. C. It protects against chemical vapors and gases. D. It does not impair worker mobility, vision, or communication. | show 🗑
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| show | A. A
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| 23. All emergency response organizations that routinely use CPC must establish a: (440) A. design procedure for new CPC. B. written CPC management program. C. research program to develop new CPC. D. nationally certified CPC training program. | show 🗑
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| 24. When a chemical passes through a fabric on a molecular level, it is called: (441) A. permeation. B. penetration. C. degradation. D. contamination. | show 🗑
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| 25. What is it called when characteristics of a material are altered through contact with chemical substances? (442) A. Permeation B. Penetration C. Degradation D. Contamination | show 🗑
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| show | B. Always follow AHJ SOP/Gs and manufacturer’s specifications in
regards to serviceability.
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| 27. What organization has established a set of chemical-protective PPE ensembles providing certain protection levels that are commonly used by fire and emergency service organizations? (443) A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) C. International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF) D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) | show 🗑
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| show | D. It provides the highest level of protection against vapors,
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| 29. Which level of PPE is worn when the highest level of respiratory protection is necessary, but a lesser level of skin protection is needed? (445-446) A. Level A B. Level B C. Level C D. Level D | show 🗑
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| show | C. Level C
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| 31. Level D PPE consists of: (447) A. typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls. B. hooded chemical resistant clothing and full-face or half-mask APRs. C. typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls with the addition of a half-mask APR. D. hooded chemical resistant clothing and positive-pressure, full facepiece, SCBA, or positive-pressure respirator with escape SCBA. | show 🗑
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| show | A. associated risks.
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| show | C. Overprotection, as well as underprotection, can be hazardous
and should be avoided.
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| 34. When a hazardous material is a mixture of unknown chemicals, what type of PPE should be selected? (450) A. A level D ensemble should be selected. B. None, because the mission should be abandoned. C. If a level A ensemble is available, it should always be selected, no matter what the chemicals involved. D. An ensemble that demonstrates the best chemical resistance against the widest range of chemicals should be selected. | show 🗑
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| show | B. Size of incident
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| show | C. Law enforcement personnel will typically wear ballistic
protection.
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| show | D. EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier
protection.
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| 38. How does wearing PPE increase the risk of heat-related disorders? (455) A. Most PPE has no effect on body temperature. B. Most PPE provides automatic cooling technology. C. Most PPE increases the body’s ability to disperse heat and moisture. D. Most PPE inhibits the body’s ability to disperse heat and moisture. | show 🗑
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| 39. What is the most serious type of heat disorder? (455) A. Heat stroke B. Heat rashes C. Heat cramps D. Heat exhaustion | show 🗑
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| 40. Why should beverages that contain alcohol or caffeine be avoided prior to working? (457) A. These beverages do not need to be avoided. B. These beverages decrease dehydration and heat stress. C. These beverages may increase productivity and awareness. D. These beverages can contribute to dehydration and heat stress. | show 🗑
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| show | C. cold emergencies.
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| 42. Using chemical protective clothing can cause psychological stress because: (458) A. increased mobility may worry some users. B. increased oxygen levels can cause cognitive impairment. C. facepieces may cause some users to feel confined or claustrophobic. D. facepieces may cause some users to be over confident and unnecessarily expose themselves to contaminants. | show 🗑
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| 43. Which statement regarding medical monitoring or responders wearing PPE is MOST accurate? (459) A. Post-medical monitoring follow-up is also recommended. B. If vital signs are steady pre-entry, then they do not need to be taken again. C. Post-entry monitoring is not necessary if no exposure or contamination has occurred. D. If a facepiece makes a responder feel claustrophobic, they may take it off at their own discretion. | show 🗑
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| show | A. reduced stress.
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| 45. An operation check on PPE, communications equipment, and any equipment taken into the hot zone should be conducted: (460) A. pre-entry. B. post-entry. C. if a malfunction occurs. D. halfway through the incident. | show 🗑
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| 46. Incident status, identified hazards, and tasks to be performed should be communicated during the: (461) A. size-up. B. safety briefing. C. hazards assessment. D. post-incident briefing. | show 🗑
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| 47. Exposure means that: (462) A. you are radioactive. B. you may have had contact with a foreign substance. C. you must be immediately extracted from the hot zone. D. a hazardous material has entered or potentially entered your body. | show 🗑
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| 48. Which statement regarding PPE safety and emergency communication is MOST accurate? (462) A. Hand signals should be designated for loss of air supply or suit integrity. B. Radio communications should be designated as a backup system only. C. Communication capabilities are only required for responders wearing SARs or APRs. D. Providing direction via a PA system or bullhorn is the universal emergency evacuation signal. | show 🗑
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| 49. Where should PPE be donned? (464) A. Wherever is convenient B. In a preselected area in the hot zone C. In the apparatus on the way to the incident D. In a preselected area in the cold zone, as close to the entry point as possible | show 🗑
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| 50. When should PPE be donned? (464) A. Immediately upon arrival B. After the mission briefing C. Before the mission briefing D. Once entry is made into the hot zone | show 🗑
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| 51. When doffing PPE, what is the last item that should be removed? (466) A. Gloves B. Coverall C. Footwear D. Respirator facepiece | show 🗑
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| show | D. the organization’s
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| show | C. fill out any required reports or documentation.
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