sur 103 final

Help!

Question

Answer

What term describes the % of blood pumped out of a filled ventricle with each heartbeat?

ejection fraction

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What diagnostic study combines computed tomography with isotope scanning to highlight chemical or metabolic activity?

PET

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Which study uses frequencies of 1-10 million hertz through human tissue for diagnostic purposes?

Ultrasonography

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What diagnostic study doesn’t expose the patient to ionizing radiation

MRI Scan

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What dye is used for staining tissue for diagnosis?

Crystal Violet

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What is a common component of many contrast media that may be a contraindication for use in allergic patients

iodine

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what diagnostic method requires use of an image intensifier

fluroscopy

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What diagnosis would a myelogram most likely is ordered

Nerve Root Compression

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An AP view on a radiograph is taken _______.

Front to back

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Cholangiography is the diagnostic study that images which structure?

Common Bile Duct

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Which device would be used on the sterile field to determine the patency of an arterial anastomosis

Doppler probe

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What is another term used for diagnostic isotope scanning?

Nuclear Medicine

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A neurologist might order an EEG for a patient with what diagnosis?

Seizure disorder

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What is stained in a gram stain test?

bacteria

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Thoracentesis is removal of fluid from the _______.

Pleural Space

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What is a display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle?

EMG

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What study assists a surgeon with determining the most effective antibiotic therapy for treatment of a SSI?

Culture and Sensitivity

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Which artery is most common accessed with the Seldinger technique during cardiac catherization?

Femoral

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Intra-op fluoroscopy for cholangiography would require ______.

Radiolucent OR Table

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Contrast media are routinely introduced _______.

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Roentgenography, named for the German physicist who discovered it, is known today as ________

Radiography

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Hypaque, Cystografin, and renografin are ______.

Contrast Media

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When a vessel cannot be accessed percutaneous for angiography, has else could it be done?

Cut-down

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Rapid serial film changes and pressure injectors are used in what diagnostic imaging study?

angiogram

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What is a flexible, atraumatic device used to facilitate proper placement of catheters into lumens of vessels, ducts, or ureters?

j-guidewire

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Ausculation involves use of a _______.

stethoscope

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A corneal abrasion would be assessed using a _______.

opthalmoscope

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TEP stands for ____ in surgery

Totally extra peritoneal patch

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Which anatomic area is ultrasonography ineffective?

Lungs

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What test involves a lumbar puncture for collection and analysis of CSF?

Spinal Tap

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Type of organism that dies quickly when exposed to air.

anaerobic

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Example of isotope that many show “hot spots” indicating possible pathology

bone scan

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In a gram stain study, bacteria that retains the blue coloration following stain, alcohol rinse and restaining is________.

Gram positive

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B-cells and T-cells are types of _________.

lymphocytes

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In normal blood gas ranges, arterial oxygen saturation should be at or near what % range of capacity?

96-100

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What condition of excess fluid is analyzed by thoracentesis

pleural effusion

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Name of 24 hour monitoring device for cardiac dysrhythmias.

holter monitor

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Symptom that a patient with myocardial ischemia would experience.

angina

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What wave of cardiac cycle in EEG indicates ventricular repolarization?

t-wave

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DVT can be diagnosed by __________.

phleborhelgraphy

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Which noninvasive study assesses the amount of CO2 in arterial system of a patient on mechanical ventilation?

capnography

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Vascular imaging technique that removes the background structures from view

digital subtraction

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Analysis of voided sample by either catherization or clean catch.

urinalysis

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Objective, observable evidence or manifestations of a pathological condition.

signs

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Type of urography in which contrast media is injected into bladder.

retrograde

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Noninvasive device that measures optical density of blood

pulse oximeter

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(T or F) EEG leads may be placed directly on surface of the brain during craniotomy.

true

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(T or F) Oxygen saturation is higher in venous system than in arterial system, making blood appear darker red

false

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(T or F) Basophils, eosinophil’s, and neutrophils are types of WBC’s.

true

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(T or F) hemoglobin is measured in grams per deciliter and hematocrit is measured in %.

true

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HBV, HCV and alcohol abuse are precursors of what disease?

diverticulitis

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During cholangiography, bubbles in contrast media would likely ________.

give appearance of a stone on x-ray

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Whipple procedure is done for treatment of a tumor in _________.

pancreas

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Another name for a thyroid tenaculum is _______.

Lahey

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(T or F) MRI scans require shielding of thyroid/gonads because of radiation emissions.

false

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Specialized radiographic machine that produces computer generated images of body in “slices”.

CAT scan

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Potential life-threatening disease can result from untreated thyrotoxicosis.

Thyroid storm

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Tenteny is a serious post-op complication of what surgery?

thryoidectomy

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Term describes a benign condition of breast enlargement in men.

gynecomastia

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Stage of breast cancer is chacterized by evidence of distal metastasis

stage 4

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Largest mass of lymphatic tissue in body.

spleen

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NOT a region of pancreas

capsule

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Triangle of calot is space bounded by structures in _____ procedure.

cholecystectomy

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_____ is achieved by insufflation of CO2 into abdominal cavity.

pneumoperitoneum

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Where is gallbladder located in relation to liver?

inferior surface if right lobe

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Fibrous and serous capsule that covers the liver.

glisson

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Surgery that Buie forceps are used

hemorrhoidectomy

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End-to-end bowel anastomosis is accomplished with _____ suturing technique

2-layer, interrupted technique for seromuscular approx. with silk; continuous for mucosa with absorbable suture

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Abdominal incision would linea Alba be open down to peritoneum

median vertical

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Incision used for open appendectomy.

McBurney

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Maloney dilator is used in ______.

espohagus

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Difference of optical density in a radiograph that results from a difference in radiolucency or penetrability.

contrast

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Real time radiographic imaging that allows actions of joint/organ to be viewed directly.

fluroscopy

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Part of exam in which touch is used externally/internally to determine size, shape or abnormality.

palpation

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Standard unit of measurement for the absorption of ionizing energy.

rad

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Doyen, Kocher and Allen are names of _______.

intestinal clamp

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Surgical opening of abdominal or peritoneal cavity.

laparotomy

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Another way of saying “cephlad to caudad”.

heat o tail

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Another name for acquired ventral hernia through linea semilunaris.

spigelian

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Gastrotomy can be created by all methods except _____.

endovascular

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Suturing technique used for open appendectomy.

purse-string

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Type of hernia that occurs below abdominal crease, frequent in females.

femoral

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Fascial sheet that is attached to iliac crest, linea Alba and pubis

scarpa's

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Great care is taken to identify and preserve the long thoracic and thoracodorsal nerves in ____ procedure

modified radical mastectomy

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Where are parathyroid glands located in relation to the thyroid?

dorsal, superior, and inferior

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What do parathyroid glands regulate in body

blood calcium concentration

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Skin incision for a thyroidectomy will follow

langers

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Handheld retractor commonly used to retract tissue in thyroidectomy

green

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Name of gastric mass of indigestive veg. fiber and hair that may require surg. Incision.

bezoar

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Hernia that protrudes through transversalis fascia in area of hasselbach’s triangle

direct

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Hernia that results from failure of deep internal ring to close during fetal development and allows intestinal protrusion of scrotnum.

indirect

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Name of hernia in which indirect and direct defects are present.

pantaloons

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Hernia repair that a penrose drain be used as method of gentle traction of spermatic cord

McVay inguinal herniorraphy

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Vagotomy is surgical treatment option of _______.

gastric ulcers

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Type of intestinal obstruction involves a telescoping portion of intestine into another part

intussisception

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Type of surg. Procedure used to release abnormal tissue connection in the abdominal viscera and layers.

lysis of adhesions

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End-to-end, end-to-side, side-to-side, Roux-en-Y are examples of ________.

bowel anastomosis

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In laparoscopic appendectomy, what is NOT a method of dissection of appendix?

intraluminal circular stapler

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What is correct regarding polyps and diverticula in colon?

polyps protrude inward, diverticula protrude outward from intestine

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Hepatic & splenic flexures are located proximally and distally in which part of intestine?

transverse

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Bowel technique refers to steps used by surgical team to prevent post-op _________.

SSI

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MOST common permanent colostomy.

sigmoid

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Intestinal stoma is created at a point below the costal margin, above the belt line and at the lateral edge of which muscle?

rectus abdominus

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Surgical position used exclusively for anorectal surgical procedure

kraske

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Type of viewing instrument would be used for surgical treatment of hemorrhoids.

anoscope

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Due to vascular and friable tissue, surgeon may use a _______ need on liver.

blunt

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What incision is routinely used for open cholecystectomy?

right subcostal

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Handheld retractor designed for open cholecystectomy to elevate the liver?

harrington

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T-tube or wound drain left in place following laparoscopic cholecystectomy would MOST likely exit through __________.

one of the 5mm right port side to incision

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Endocrine-secreting glands of pancreas that make up only 1% of organ

islet of Langerhans

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Pancreaticoduodenectomy is also known as ___________ procedure.

whipple

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Needle-localization procedure may be performed in radiology for assistance in locating discrete masses in _______.

breast

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Type of incision made for excisional biopsy of an antrally located breast mass involving the lactiferous ducts

circumaretor

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Name of first lymph node in axillary chain that is frequently biopsied in conjunction with breast biopsy, lumpectomy or mastectomy.

sentinel

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Irrigation used in aid to destroy any residual tumor cells after dissection.

sterile water

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Surgical removal of entire breast without any lymph nodes is __________.

simple mastectomy

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If mastectomy is scheduled to follow a breast biopsy and frozen section results indicate carcinoma, what is done?

Re-prep, re-drape patient; team changes gloves and gowns; use new instruments

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Bifurcated drains and fluffy pressure dressing are used following mastectomy to ________.

Prevent formation of hematoma and seroma

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Dilation of submucosal and subcutaneous venous plexus that lines the anal canal is ______.

Hemorrhoid

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Difficulty swallowing or feeling of food sticking in esophagus

dysphagia

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Discomfort/tenderness that occurs with sudden release of pressure, sign of appendicitis.

rebound pain

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Type of hernia in which tissues are caught within a fascial defect; may become strangulated if not reduced.

strangulated

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Broad sheet of fibrous tissue or expanded tendon that holds muscles together or connects bone to bone.

aponeurosis

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Being on or affecting the same side of the body.

ipsilateral

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Antrectomy; removal of distal stomach and pylorus with anastomosis to duodenum; preferred approach for treatment of neoplasm/ulcer.

billroth 1

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2-layer membrane of peritoneum attached to back wall of abdominal cavity that supports small intestine.

mesentery

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Inflammatory bowel disease that cause erosions in lining of large intestine.

ulcerative colitis

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Yellowing of skin and eyes due to buildup of bilirubin; visible sign of certain cancers and diseases of organs or biliary system.

jaundice

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Noninvasive electro-generated shock waves to break up calculi in urinary or biliary system

lithrotripsy

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(T or F) Hasson technique for establishing pneumoperitoneum requires the use of a verres needle.

false

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T or F) upper hand and Thompson retractors are complex self-retaining retractors frequently used in major abdominal procedures

true

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(T or F) conversion from laparoscopic procedure to an open procedure is always a possibility that the ST should be prepared for.

true

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(T or F) ST may ‘run” or operate the laparoscopic camera during minimally invasive procedures to free up hands of surgeon and surgical FA.

true

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(T or F) surgical skin preps for breast procedures for carcinoma should be performed vigorously and thoroughly to prevent post-op SSI in immunocompromised patients

false

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What procedure corrects a hiatal hernia by wrapping stomach around esophagus?

Laparoscopic Nissen Fundoplication

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Telescoping of intestines within itself

intussception

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Twisting of bowel.

volvum

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Congenital outpunching located in ileum.

Meckel diverticulum

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Mucosal growth considered a precursor to dysplasia.

polyp

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How many stages of labor and delivery does patient go through?

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What procedure would surgeon request an 8-0 or 9-0 suture?

tuboplasty

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Name of routine surgical treatment of infected Bartholin’s gland cyst.

marsupialization

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For a D&C, what order of instruments is correct for endometrial biopsy?

weighted vaginal speculum, tenaculum, uterine sound, cervical dilators, curettes

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What color is abnormal tissue after staining with lugols solution in cervical biopsy?

no color change

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What color is abnormal tissue after staining with acetic acid in a cervical biopsy?

white

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Procedure name for removal of fibroid tumors of uterus with preservation of fertility.

myomectomy

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Structure NOT part of anatomy of vulva

cervix

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Incision MOST frequently used for C-Section.

pfannensteil

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Main purpose of putting a bolster/roll under right hip of patient prior to C-section is ________.

reduce pressure of gravid uterus on the vena canva

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What maneuver might be performed by ST during C-section to aid in delivery as surgeon gently manipulates head of fetus out of uterus?

application of external pressure over fundus of uterus

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Most common surgical intervention for vaginal delivery.

episotomy

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All are paired ligaments that support the uterus in lower abdomen and attach it to the pelvis except _________.

coopers

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Cervical cerclage is performed to _______.

prevent spontaneous abortion

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Cephalopelvic disproportion is an indication of ______ in a C-section delivery.

dystocia

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What med may by injected into the uterus for hemostasis, before close of uterus in C-section?

oxytocin

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Name of fingerlike projections of terminal end of fallopian tube that guides oocytes into lumen

fimbira

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Method of tubal ligation is less frequently performed and requires long instruments, but may pose a higher risk of post-op SSI due to approach.

colpotomy

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What radiological study may be ordered pre-op of patient scheduled for tuboplasty?

hystersalpingogram

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Piece of OR furniture likely is unnecessary for many vaginal surgical procedures?

mayo stand

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Delivery of placenta is conclusion of _____ stage of labor

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Self-retaining retractor with shape of an 8 in closed position

O'Conner O'Sullivan

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Name of bivalve speculum frequently found in vaginal procedure tray.

graves

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_______ is weighted vaginal speculum.

auvard

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Name of heavy, right-angle scissors frequently used to dissect around cervix during hysterectomy.

jorgenson

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Term means # of times a woman has been pregnant.

gravida

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Preferred method of anesthesia for C-section delivery.

epidural

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When is first closing count performed in C-section?

when 1st suture is given for closure of uterus

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Bulb syringes are used in obstetrical delivery procedures is _______.

suction mouth and nares of neonates

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Name of anatomical area where fallopian tubes are attached and enter uterus?

cornu

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Gynecologic procedure performed to treat urinary incontinence or cystocele

anterior colporrhapy

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Procedure in which a patient would be left without vagina, reproductive organ permanent colostomy & ileostomy.

exentration

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Procedure that ST be sure to have adequate # of Allis/Allis-Adair.

A&P repair

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Routinely done 1st in basic GYN laparoscopy that require small setup and glove change

insertion of manipulator

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GYN procedure used for visualization of endometrium & used to treat polyps/myoma

hysteroscopy

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Procedure likely classified as class ¾ and may require aerobic & anaerobic culture tubes.

marsupialization of bartholins cyst

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Anatomical structure located anterior to symphysis pubis and superior to vaginal opening.

urethral opening

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Anatomical area located between posterior vaginal opening and anus

perineum

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General term for treatment method that destroys genital conylomata with Co2 laser.

ablation

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Pistol-type grip of instrument might be found in D&C tray for cervical biopsy.

tischler

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Another name for ovarian suspensory ligament.

infundibulopelvic

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Largest-supporting ligament in female pelvis that has anterior and posterior leaves.

broad

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Needle holder that is curved and frequently used for hysterectomy procedures.

heaney

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Instruments used for closure of vaginal cuff in total abdominal hysterectomy are _______.

Isolated as contaminated

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Total abdominal hysterectomy is assigned _____ wound classification.

class 2

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Paired ligaments encountered and ligate last in abdominal hysterectomy and 1st in vaginal hysterectomy.

uterosacral

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Fallopian tubes are located bilaterally in mesosalpinx of _______ uterine-pelvic ligaments.

broad

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Adnexa refer to______ GYN anatomical structures

fallopian tubes, ovaries, and infundibulum

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Procedure that doesn’t require incision, use of trocars or distention with gas or fluid.

colposcopy

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______ is used for creating pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopy

CO2

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Type of stirrups used in laparoscopic assisted vaginal hysterectomy.

allen low lithotomy

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Radionuclide seeds are used to treat _______.

uterine/cervical carcinoma

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orrect statement regarding anatomical changes following pelvic exentration

colostomy with exit on left ileostomy on right side of abdomen

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Procedure involves en bloc removal of uterus, bilateral ovaries and fallopian tubes, supporting ligaments, upper third of vagina and pelvic lymph nodes?

radical hysterectomy

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What instrument should ST have ready to provide exposure during C-section when uterine incision is made?

gelpi

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Retinal structure allows for perception of general shapes and shades of gray in dim light.

rods

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What kind of anesthetic block is used for vitrectomy procedure?

retrobulbar

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Perfluoropropane and sulfur hexafluoride are used to ______.

keep pressure on retina

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Pharmacologic agent that constricts pupil of eye

acetycholine

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Trephine is used in _______.

keratoplasty

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Sterile irrigation fluid used for ophthalmic procedures.

BSS

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Normal condition of lens of eye.

transparent and biconvex

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Another name for traction suture used to manipulate globe of eye.

bridle

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_____ represents the replacement device for cataract lens in eye

IOL

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Where is lacrimal gland located?

upper lid, outer angle of orbit

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Into what structures do lacrimal ducts drain tears?

nasal cavity

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What procedure done on the eye with internal malfunction or loss of contacts and no possible recovery of sight provides better mobility and cosmetic result with prosthetic eye?

evisceration

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What procedure surgically treats glaucoma?

iridectomy

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Portion of eye between the cornea and iris in which aqueous fluid flows and nourishes tissues?

anterior chamber

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Another name for cystic structure caused by inflammatory response to material trapped in a melbomian gland.

chalazion

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Inward turning of eyelid with resulting corneal irritation.

entropia

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What instrument is used to remove cataract lens in preparation for IOL placement?

phacoemulisification hand piece

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Name of locking/nonlocking needle holders frequently used in ophthalmology.

castrovijo

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Scissors NOT used in eye procedures

jorgenson

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What passes thru canal of schlemm

aqueous humor

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Misalignment or deviation from coordinated movement of eyes is ______.

strabismus

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If looking at eye of pt. and assigning clock positions at 12,3,6,9 to rectus eye muscles, what would be correct?

12-superior, 3-medial, 6-inferior, 9-lateral

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Term for ‘crossed eyes’.

estropia

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Structure for eye is closed and its muscles constrict or relax to control the amount of light entering pupil

iris

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How many tunics compare the structure of the globe of the eye?

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What 2 structures form the outer tunic of globe of eye?

cornea and sclera

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What procedure involves adjusting sutures after pt. has recovered completely from anesthesia, but within 24 hours?

reseccion/resection

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Structure of eye that’s thin, transparent lining of inner surface of eyelid & covers sclera. NOT used for visualization in eye procedures.

colposcope

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______ represents eye speculum that resembles an uncoiled metal paper clip.

barraquer

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NOT a method of IOL insertion.

fan folded through small incision

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How would a definitive diagnosis of detached retina be obtained if hemorrhage is present in the eye?

surgical vitrectomy

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Name of gelatin-like fluid that fills the posterior cavity of eye.

vitreous humor

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What surgical procedure would an ocutome is used?

vitrectomy

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Substance used following vitrectomy for long-term support of retina with fewer restrictions on position

silicone oil

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Membrane that encloses/contains vitreous humor in posterior cavity.

hyaloid

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Where would a Veirs rod be placed to relieve or prevent obstruction?

canaliculus

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Condition of lens that’s treated by cataract extraction

opacified

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What procedure would suture most likely NOT be necessary?

Extracapsular cataract extraction

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Name of opening created in outer tunic for insertion of infusion cannula for excision of vitreous?

sclerotomy

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Name of structure that’s small depression containing only canes and has the highest visual acuity.

central fovea

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Tetracaine drops are used in eye procedures to _____.

numb the surface of eye and surrounding structures

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_____ Techniques use a laser to treat retinal tears of proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

endophotocoagulation

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Procedure may be done in conjunction with virectomy if surgeon is unable to gain visualization of posterior cavity of eye.

lensectomy

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Term for 6 muscles that provide movement of eye.

extrinsic

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_____ is an intraocular procedure

vitrectomy

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Structure is avascular, external and its function is to refract light rays.

cornea

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Structure has 4 layers: epithelial cells, substantia propria, elastic lamina and endothelial cells

cornea

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Type of needle is frequently used in eye procedures.

3/8 circle spatula

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Cryotherapy uses ______ to seal retinal tears and holes.

cold

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Type of drape with rounded fenestration and adhesive backing, used when procedure involves globe of eye.

aperture

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Type of drape w/ ‘u’ configuration and adhesive edged ‘legs’ used for procedures requiring broader access to extraocular areas.

split

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Think connective tissue structure that provides integrity to shape of eyelid, may be repositioned in entropian repair.

tarsal plate

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Angular junction of eyelid at either corner of eye.

canthus

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Porous, circumferential band of tiny canals through with aqueous humor drains

trabecular meshwork

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Name of line of miniscapel blades used in eye and ENT

beaver

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Visual defect in with 1 object is seen in duplicate treated w/ adjustable suture technique of strabismus correction

diplopia

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Variable-rate, reciporating and cutting tip hand piece attached to suction.

vitrector

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Unit of measurement of optical power of magnifying lens.

diopter

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Heredity, progressive, noninflammatory disease of anterior surface of eye, diagnostic indication for keratoplasty.

corneal dystrophy

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Name of wax that’s normally produced and found within ear canal.

cerumen

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Term for creating a surgical opening into tympanic membrane

myringotomy

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NOT an ossicle.

cochlea

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______ Cranial nerve may be damaged by growth of cholesteatoma.

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Walter, Caldwell, lateral and submental radiographic views are used to establish diagnosis for which anatomical area

sinus cavity

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Tissue type of palatine tonsils.

lymphoid

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NOT a category of tonsil tissue.

laryngeal

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Classified as tonsils but are routinely referred to as adenoids & tend to atrophy w/ age.

pharyngeal

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What procedure would ST need to have spreader and hook ready to use?

tracheotomy

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TMJ decompression is performed in ______ area.

lateral jaw

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Performed for treatment of sleep apnea.

UPPP

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Structure often blocked w/ stones is parotid glands, possibly necessitation surgical removal of gland.

steno's duct

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Name of double action, cupped forward-angled forceps used to resect portions of nasal septum

jansen-middleton

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Antrostomy rasps would be used in procedures involving _______.

facial sinus

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Description & classification of laryngeal cartilage pertains to epiglottis.

individual and elastic

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Laryngeal cartilage commonly known as “adams apple’

thyroid

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Procedure sometimes performed in ICU, ER and PACU is ________.

tracheotomy

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Name of long, thin, cupped pistol-type grip handled forceps in nasal cases.

takashi

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______ cranial nerve carrier info related to equilibrium to cerebal cortex.

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______ would require use of operating microscope.

stapedectomy

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How should micro ear instruments be cleaned intra-op.

wiped with microwipe sponge

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Baron, frazier, house & rosen are names of _______.

suction

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Gas that causes expansion of middle ear & therefore is contraindicated in tympanic graft cases.

nitrous oxide

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MOST commonly used autograft in otologic procedures

temporalis fascia

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Type of study used to diagnose sleep apnea.

polysomnography

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Surgical procedure for excision of cholesteatoma.

mastiodectomy

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Instrument to measure distance from incus to stapes footplate for selection of a prosthesis in stapedectomy.

depth gauge

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Name is common to knives, needles, picks and suction tip used in otologic procedures

rosen

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NOT a compartment of bony labyrinth of inner ear

sphenoid sinus

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Instrument tray would you find a Ballenger swivel knife, cottle elevator, knight scissors and takashi forceps

SMR

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Name of sharp-tipped, handheld retractor that can be either single/double and often found in nasal trays.

joseph

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Otorhinolaryngolist is commonly known as _______.

ENT

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Type of laser is useful in procedures involving stapes and middle ear.

argon

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Type of mechanical action of drill attachment is most common in otologic.

rotary

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Structure that separates outer & middle ear canals from one another.

tympanic membrane

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Part of tympanic membrane is fibrous, largest & where drainage tubes are inserted

pars tensa

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In myringotomy procedures, what does PE stand for?

pressure equalizing

🗑

Chronic occurring condition is often the reason for placement of myringotomy tubes in one or both ears.

otitis media

🗑

_____ is necessary for instrument setup for bilateral myringotomy tube placement

mayo stand

🗑

What acute info appears in bony air cells after approx. 10-14 days following an otitis media infection and if untreated, may result in meningitis or encephalitis?

mastioditis

🗑

Important step for ST to remember to perform when changing bars on pneumatic drill.

put hand piece on safety

🗑

Term for bony overgrowth on stapes.

otosclerosis

🗑

Epistaxis is more commonly known as an acute _______.

nose bleed

🗑

Diagnostic study is best at delineating between soft tissue and bony structures for diagnosing sinus conditions

CT scan

🗑

Why is a scapular/shoulder roll used in procedures involving the oropharynx?

tilt head to increase exposure

🗑

Term that describes a nasal septum that typically causes obstructed breathing in older patients?

deviated

🗑

What is the ST often asked to do for surgeon during septal procedures?

tap chisel with mallet lightly

🗑

Alternate name for bony nasal projections known as turbinates

conchae

🗑

All of the following are methods of performing a turbinectomy except ______.

percutaneous

🗑

Where is the soft palate located in relation to the nasal cavity?

posterior and inferior

🗑

Most common cause of nasal polyps.

allergic rhinitis

🗑

Which paranasal sinuses are numerous, small and located on either side of the bridge of the nose, between the eyes?

ethmoid

🗑

Which paranasal sinuses are most superior and can be singular or divided?

frontal

🗑

What procedure would require a 4mm of 5mm, 0 degree, or angled lenses and a navigation system for intra-op guidance?

FESS

🗑

Davis and mclevor are examples of _______.

mouth gags

🗑

______ is a curved, serrated tonsil knife

fisher

🗑

Which objective-power lens is most frequently used for microlarygnoscopy?

400mm

🗑

What statement comparing rigid bronchoscopes and eshagoscopes to rigid laryngoscope is correct?

Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes and the distal end is straight

🗑

_____ is frequently used as an autograft to replace the mandible in radical neck dissection.

fibula

🗑

What mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels?

calcium

🗑

What is a long bone that is longest in the human body?

femur

🗑

What bone is the largest, found in the foot and is commonly called the heel?

calcaneous

🗑

What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later?

osteomyletits

🗑

What is the hard, dense bone that surrounds the marrow cavity?

cortical

🗑

Where is the area of active bone growth

epiphyseal plate

🗑

What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid?

bursa

🗑

What type of bone is the patella?

seasmoid

🗑

What is the medical term for spongy bone?

cancellous

🗑

What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection?

Periosteum

🗑

Carpal and Tarsal bones are classified as ______

short

🗑

In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in _____ bone. Flat

Flat and Irregular

🗑

The elbow is categorized as what type of joint?

Diathrosis

🗑

Connections between large bones of the skull are categorized as _____ joint

Synarthrosis

🗑

What is an example of a condyloid joint?

Temporomandibular

🗑

The proximal ends of the radius and C1 and C2 vertebra are examples of ____ type of diathrosis.

Pivot

🗑

What is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

Femoroactabular

🗑

What hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase absorption of calcium where serum levels are low?

Parathyroid

🗑

What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain and locking up?

Joint Mice

🗑

In which joint, would a bucket handle tear be found?

knee

🗑

What condition is commonly known as “Bowlegged”?

genu varum

🗑

Hallux Valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the _____.

great toe

🗑

What means a partial separation of dislocation of a joint without any break in skin?

sublaxation

🗑

What is the most common cause of bone fractures?

trauma

🗑

What type of fracture is characterized as a partial and may result from activities such as jumping and jogging?

green stick

🗑

What describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture?

(*) asterisk

🗑

What medical term means moving a body part away from the midline?

abduction

🗑

Action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of what movement?

plantar flexion

🗑

What following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization?

hormonal

🗑

What is the medical name for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion?

exostasis

🗑

What pathology is related to specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body

rheumatoid arthritis

🗑

What is the term from the softening of bone is children that is commonly called rickets?

osteomalacia

🗑

Chondroma, Giant Cell and Osteoma are _______.

benign tumors

🗑

How many stages are involved in normal osteogensis?

🗑

Which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site and cartilage and immature bone provide support?

callus formation

🗑

What is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures?

compartmental syndrome

🗑

The term C-Arm refers to a __________.

fluoroscopic machine

🗑

What type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs?

spica

🗑

What would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow?

Bence Jones Protien

🗑

What diagnostic procedure does not use ionizing radiation?

MRI scan

🗑

What orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagles talon?

Lowman Bone holder

🗑

Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by what other name because of their shapes?

cobra

🗑

What device is frequently sued from femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-Arm?

fracture table

🗑

What is achieved by wrapping on an extremity with an esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet?

exsanguination

🗑

What is true regarding safe continuous tourniquet inflation time

lower extremity 1.5 hours upper extremity 1 hour

🗑

All of the following are examples of equipment used post-operatively on the patient for pain reduction or stimulation of healing factors except _____.

body exhaust suit

🗑

Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating and sterilizing orthopedic instruments should be followed?

manufacturer

🗑

Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to ortho and differs from most laparoscopic/MIS systems?

powered shaving system

🗑

Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implants?

FDA

🗑

Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone?

polyglactin910(vicryl)

🗑

What is polymethyl methylcryate used for in ortho procedures?

bone cement

🗑

What bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone?

clavical

🗑

Acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which bone?

scapula

🗑

Infrspinatus, Teres Minor, Subcapularis and Supraspinatus collectively make up _________.

rotator cuff

🗑

Which joint has greatest range of motion?

glenohumeral

🗑

What is the largest bone in the upper extremity?

humerus

🗑

What medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis?

lactated ringer's

🗑

What piece of equipment is not attached to the arthroscope?

powered shaver

🗑

What instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures?

blunt probe

🗑

Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure?

labrum

🗑

Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following except:

colles

🗑

Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo _________.

acromioplasty

🗑

What should the ST do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?

drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating

🗑

Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion is _______.

serious post-op complication of open acromioplasty

🗑

NOT an indication for total shoulder arthroplasty.

moderate impingement syndrome

🗑

What instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses

intramedullary reamer

🗑

Which bone is involved in a Colles fracture?

radius

🗑

Common approach for Colles fracture.

external fixation

🗑

Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for SSI?

ORIF for compound comminuted fracture

🗑

NOT a bone of the pelvis.

femur

🗑

What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?

acetabulum

🗑

Portion of femur that articulated with acetabulum.

head

🗑

Common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for

dynamic hip screw

🗑

Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture? Fracture

fracture table

🗑

Patients in which age group is most commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty?

over 65yrs

🗑

Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI?

space suit or body exhaust suit

🗑

Commonly used self-retaining retractor for total hip arthroplasty?

charnley

🗑

What tissue does acetabular reamer remove?

cartilage

🗑

What should the ST have ready to clean bone/tissue from rongeur

lap

🗑

Correct order of steps for femoral canal prep during total hip arthroplasty

reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial

🗑

Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard or titanium femoral

nails

🗑

Cannulated nails and screws are designed to follow the path created by a _______.

guide pin

🗑

Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on tibia and prevents hypertension of the knee?

anterior cruciate

🗑

Purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee

cushioning

🗑

What bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone?

tibia

🗑

Patellar tendons, Iliotibial band, Semitendinosus Tendon are examples of _______.

autografts for acl repair

🗑

NOT an example of device used to anchor both ends of ACL graft.

steinmann pin

🗑

Liston Knife, Gilgi Saw and Satterlee are examples of instruments used for ________.

amputation

🗑

Amputated Limbs may be placed in _______ to transport to pathology.

mayo stand cover

🗑

Total Knee Arthroplasty is categorized by all of the following except __________.

quadricompartmental

🗑

Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller and McBride are techniques for ________.

bunionectomy

🗑

Thickest and strongest tendon in body

achilles

🗑

(T or F) Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause break down of device and may cause wound infection.

true

🗑

(T or F) Arthroscopic procedures require 1 incision through which all instruments are passed.

false

🗑

(T or F) There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and complicated.

false

🗑

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