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sur 103 final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What term describes the % of blood pumped out of a filled ventricle with each heartbeat? | ejection fraction |
| What diagnostic study combines computed tomography with isotope scanning to highlight chemical or metabolic activity? | PET |
| Which study uses frequencies of 1-10 million hertz through human tissue for diagnostic purposes? | Ultrasonography |
| What diagnostic study doesn’t expose the patient to ionizing radiation | MRI Scan |
| What dye is used for staining tissue for diagnosis? | Crystal Violet |
| What is a common component of many contrast media that may be a contraindication for use in allergic patients | iodine |
| what diagnostic method requires use of an image intensifier | fluroscopy |
| What diagnosis would a myelogram most likely is ordered | Nerve Root Compression |
| An AP view on a radiograph is taken _______. | Front to back |
| Cholangiography is the diagnostic study that images which structure? | Common Bile Duct |
| Which device would be used on the sterile field to determine the patency of an arterial anastomosis | Doppler probe |
| What is another term used for diagnostic isotope scanning? | Nuclear Medicine |
| A neurologist might order an EEG for a patient with what diagnosis? | Seizure disorder |
| What is stained in a gram stain test? | bacteria |
| Thoracentesis is removal of fluid from the _______. | Pleural Space |
| What is a display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle? | EMG |
| What study assists a surgeon with determining the most effective antibiotic therapy for treatment of a SSI? | Culture and Sensitivity |
| Which artery is most common accessed with the Seldinger technique during cardiac catherization? | Femoral |
| Intra-op fluoroscopy for cholangiography would require ______. | Radiolucent OR Table |
| Contrast media are routinely introduced _______. | IV |
| Roentgenography, named for the German physicist who discovered it, is known today as ________ | Radiography |
| Hypaque, Cystografin, and renografin are ______. | Contrast Media |
| When a vessel cannot be accessed percutaneous for angiography, has else could it be done? | Cut-down |
| Rapid serial film changes and pressure injectors are used in what diagnostic imaging study? | angiogram |
| What is a flexible, atraumatic device used to facilitate proper placement of catheters into lumens of vessels, ducts, or ureters? | j-guidewire |
| Ausculation involves use of a _______. | stethoscope |
| A corneal abrasion would be assessed using a _______. | opthalmoscope |
| TEP stands for ____ in surgery | Totally extra peritoneal patch |
| Which anatomic area is ultrasonography ineffective? | Lungs |
| What test involves a lumbar puncture for collection and analysis of CSF? | Spinal Tap |
| Type of organism that dies quickly when exposed to air. | anaerobic |
| Example of isotope that many show “hot spots” indicating possible pathology | bone scan |
| In a gram stain study, bacteria that retains the blue coloration following stain, alcohol rinse and restaining is________. | Gram positive |
| B-cells and T-cells are types of _________. | lymphocytes |
| In normal blood gas ranges, arterial oxygen saturation should be at or near what % range of capacity? | 96-100 |
| What condition of excess fluid is analyzed by thoracentesis | pleural effusion |
| Name of 24 hour monitoring device for cardiac dysrhythmias. | holter monitor |
| Symptom that a patient with myocardial ischemia would experience. | angina |
| What wave of cardiac cycle in EEG indicates ventricular repolarization? | t-wave |
| DVT can be diagnosed by __________. | phleborhelgraphy |
| Which noninvasive study assesses the amount of CO2 in arterial system of a patient on mechanical ventilation? | capnography |
| Vascular imaging technique that removes the background structures from view | digital subtraction |
| Analysis of voided sample by either catherization or clean catch. | urinalysis |
| Objective, observable evidence or manifestations of a pathological condition. | signs |
| Type of urography in which contrast media is injected into bladder. | retrograde |
| Noninvasive device that measures optical density of blood | pulse oximeter |
| (T or F) EEG leads may be placed directly on surface of the brain during craniotomy. | true |
| (T or F) Oxygen saturation is higher in venous system than in arterial system, making blood appear darker red | false |
| (T or F) Basophils, eosinophil’s, and neutrophils are types of WBC’s. | true |
| (T or F) hemoglobin is measured in grams per deciliter and hematocrit is measured in %. | true |
| HBV, HCV and alcohol abuse are precursors of what disease? | diverticulitis |
| During cholangiography, bubbles in contrast media would likely ________. | give appearance of a stone on x-ray |
| Whipple procedure is done for treatment of a tumor in _________. | pancreas |
| Another name for a thyroid tenaculum is _______. | Lahey |
| (T or F) MRI scans require shielding of thyroid/gonads because of radiation emissions. | false |
| Specialized radiographic machine that produces computer generated images of body in “slices”. | CAT scan |
| Potential life-threatening disease can result from untreated thyrotoxicosis. | Thyroid storm |
| Tenteny is a serious post-op complication of what surgery? | thryoidectomy |
| Term describes a benign condition of breast enlargement in men. | gynecomastia |
| Stage of breast cancer is chacterized by evidence of distal metastasis | stage 4 |
| Largest mass of lymphatic tissue in body. | spleen |
| NOT a region of pancreas | capsule |
| Triangle of calot is space bounded by structures in _____ procedure. | cholecystectomy |
| _____ is achieved by insufflation of CO2 into abdominal cavity. | pneumoperitoneum |
| Where is gallbladder located in relation to liver? | inferior surface if right lobe |
| Fibrous and serous capsule that covers the liver. | glisson |
| Surgery that Buie forceps are used | hemorrhoidectomy |
| End-to-end bowel anastomosis is accomplished with _____ suturing technique | 2-layer, interrupted technique for seromuscular approx. with silk; continuous for mucosa with absorbable suture |
| Abdominal incision would linea Alba be open down to peritoneum | median vertical |
| Incision used for open appendectomy. | McBurney |
| Maloney dilator is used in ______. | espohagus |
| Difference of optical density in a radiograph that results from a difference in radiolucency or penetrability. | contrast |
| Real time radiographic imaging that allows actions of joint/organ to be viewed directly. | fluroscopy |
| Part of exam in which touch is used externally/internally to determine size, shape or abnormality. | palpation |
| Standard unit of measurement for the absorption of ionizing energy. | rad |
| Doyen, Kocher and Allen are names of _______. | intestinal clamp |
| Surgical opening of abdominal or peritoneal cavity. | laparotomy |
| Another way of saying “cephlad to caudad”. | heat o tail |
| Another name for acquired ventral hernia through linea semilunaris. | spigelian |
| Gastrotomy can be created by all methods except _____. | endovascular |
| Suturing technique used for open appendectomy. | purse-string |
| Type of hernia that occurs below abdominal crease, frequent in females. | femoral |
| Fascial sheet that is attached to iliac crest, linea Alba and pubis | scarpa's |
| Great care is taken to identify and preserve the long thoracic and thoracodorsal nerves in ____ procedure | modified radical mastectomy |
| Where are parathyroid glands located in relation to the thyroid? | dorsal, superior, and inferior |
| What do parathyroid glands regulate in body | blood calcium concentration |
| Skin incision for a thyroidectomy will follow | langers |
| Handheld retractor commonly used to retract tissue in thyroidectomy | green |
| Name of gastric mass of indigestive veg. fiber and hair that may require surg. Incision. | bezoar |
| Hernia that protrudes through transversalis fascia in area of hasselbach’s triangle | direct |
| Hernia that results from failure of deep internal ring to close during fetal development and allows intestinal protrusion of scrotnum. | indirect |
| Name of hernia in which indirect and direct defects are present. | pantaloons |
| Hernia repair that a penrose drain be used as method of gentle traction of spermatic cord | McVay inguinal herniorraphy |
| Vagotomy is surgical treatment option of _______. | gastric ulcers |
| Type of intestinal obstruction involves a telescoping portion of intestine into another part | intussisception |
| Type of surg. Procedure used to release abnormal tissue connection in the abdominal viscera and layers. | lysis of adhesions |
| End-to-end, end-to-side, side-to-side, Roux-en-Y are examples of ________. | bowel anastomosis |
| In laparoscopic appendectomy, what is NOT a method of dissection of appendix? | intraluminal circular stapler |
| What is correct regarding polyps and diverticula in colon? | polyps protrude inward, diverticula protrude outward from intestine |
| Hepatic & splenic flexures are located proximally and distally in which part of intestine? | transverse |
| Bowel technique refers to steps used by surgical team to prevent post-op _________. | SSI |
| MOST common permanent colostomy. | sigmoid |
| Intestinal stoma is created at a point below the costal margin, above the belt line and at the lateral edge of which muscle? | rectus abdominus |
| Surgical position used exclusively for anorectal surgical procedure | kraske |
| Type of viewing instrument would be used for surgical treatment of hemorrhoids. | anoscope |
| Due to vascular and friable tissue, surgeon may use a _______ need on liver. | blunt |
| What incision is routinely used for open cholecystectomy? | right subcostal |
| Handheld retractor designed for open cholecystectomy to elevate the liver? | harrington |
| T-tube or wound drain left in place following laparoscopic cholecystectomy would MOST likely exit through __________. | one of the 5mm right port side to incision |
| Endocrine-secreting glands of pancreas that make up only 1% of organ | islet of Langerhans |
| Pancreaticoduodenectomy is also known as ___________ procedure. | whipple |
| Needle-localization procedure may be performed in radiology for assistance in locating discrete masses in _______. | breast |
| Type of incision made for excisional biopsy of an antrally located breast mass involving the lactiferous ducts | circumaretor |
| Name of first lymph node in axillary chain that is frequently biopsied in conjunction with breast biopsy, lumpectomy or mastectomy. | sentinel |
| Irrigation used in aid to destroy any residual tumor cells after dissection. | sterile water |
| Surgical removal of entire breast without any lymph nodes is __________. | simple mastectomy |
| If mastectomy is scheduled to follow a breast biopsy and frozen section results indicate carcinoma, what is done? | Re-prep, re-drape patient; team changes gloves and gowns; use new instruments |
| Bifurcated drains and fluffy pressure dressing are used following mastectomy to ________. | Prevent formation of hematoma and seroma |
| Dilation of submucosal and subcutaneous venous plexus that lines the anal canal is ______. | Hemorrhoid |
| Difficulty swallowing or feeling of food sticking in esophagus | dysphagia |
| Discomfort/tenderness that occurs with sudden release of pressure, sign of appendicitis. | rebound pain |
| Type of hernia in which tissues are caught within a fascial defect; may become strangulated if not reduced. | strangulated |
| Broad sheet of fibrous tissue or expanded tendon that holds muscles together or connects bone to bone. | aponeurosis |
| Being on or affecting the same side of the body. | ipsilateral |
| Antrectomy; removal of distal stomach and pylorus with anastomosis to duodenum; preferred approach for treatment of neoplasm/ulcer. | billroth 1 |
| 2-layer membrane of peritoneum attached to back wall of abdominal cavity that supports small intestine. | mesentery |
| Inflammatory bowel disease that cause erosions in lining of large intestine. | ulcerative colitis |
| Yellowing of skin and eyes due to buildup of bilirubin; visible sign of certain cancers and diseases of organs or biliary system. | jaundice |
| Noninvasive electro-generated shock waves to break up calculi in urinary or biliary system | lithrotripsy |
| (T or F) Hasson technique for establishing pneumoperitoneum requires the use of a verres needle. | false |
| T or F) upper hand and Thompson retractors are complex self-retaining retractors frequently used in major abdominal procedures | true |
| (T or F) conversion from laparoscopic procedure to an open procedure is always a possibility that the ST should be prepared for. | true |
| (T or F) ST may ‘run” or operate the laparoscopic camera during minimally invasive procedures to free up hands of surgeon and surgical FA. | true |
| (T or F) surgical skin preps for breast procedures for carcinoma should be performed vigorously and thoroughly to prevent post-op SSI in immunocompromised patients | false |
| What procedure corrects a hiatal hernia by wrapping stomach around esophagus? | Laparoscopic Nissen Fundoplication |
| Telescoping of intestines within itself | intussception |
| Twisting of bowel. | volvum |
| Congenital outpunching located in ileum. | Meckel diverticulum |
| Mucosal growth considered a precursor to dysplasia. | polyp |
| How many stages of labor and delivery does patient go through? | 4 |
| What procedure would surgeon request an 8-0 or 9-0 suture? | tuboplasty |
| Name of routine surgical treatment of infected Bartholin’s gland cyst. | marsupialization |
| For a D&C, what order of instruments is correct for endometrial biopsy? | weighted vaginal speculum, tenaculum, uterine sound, cervical dilators, curettes |
| What color is abnormal tissue after staining with lugols solution in cervical biopsy? | no color change |
| What color is abnormal tissue after staining with acetic acid in a cervical biopsy? | white |
| Procedure name for removal of fibroid tumors of uterus with preservation of fertility. | myomectomy |
| Structure NOT part of anatomy of vulva | cervix |
| Incision MOST frequently used for C-Section. | pfannensteil |
| Main purpose of putting a bolster/roll under right hip of patient prior to C-section is ________. | reduce pressure of gravid uterus on the vena canva |
| What maneuver might be performed by ST during C-section to aid in delivery as surgeon gently manipulates head of fetus out of uterus? | application of external pressure over fundus of uterus |
| Most common surgical intervention for vaginal delivery. | episotomy |
| All are paired ligaments that support the uterus in lower abdomen and attach it to the pelvis except _________. | coopers |
| Cervical cerclage is performed to _______. | prevent spontaneous abortion |
| Cephalopelvic disproportion is an indication of ______ in a C-section delivery. | dystocia |
| What med may by injected into the uterus for hemostasis, before close of uterus in C-section? | oxytocin |
| Name of fingerlike projections of terminal end of fallopian tube that guides oocytes into lumen | fimbira |
| Method of tubal ligation is less frequently performed and requires long instruments, but may pose a higher risk of post-op SSI due to approach. | colpotomy |
| What radiological study may be ordered pre-op of patient scheduled for tuboplasty? | hystersalpingogram |
| Piece of OR furniture likely is unnecessary for many vaginal surgical procedures? | mayo stand |
| Delivery of placenta is conclusion of _____ stage of labor | 3 |
| Self-retaining retractor with shape of an 8 in closed position | O'Conner O'Sullivan |
| Name of bivalve speculum frequently found in vaginal procedure tray. | graves |
| _______ is weighted vaginal speculum. | auvard |
| Name of heavy, right-angle scissors frequently used to dissect around cervix during hysterectomy. | jorgenson |
| Term means # of times a woman has been pregnant. | gravida |
| Preferred method of anesthesia for C-section delivery. | epidural |
| When is first closing count performed in C-section? | when 1st suture is given for closure of uterus |
| Bulb syringes are used in obstetrical delivery procedures is _______. | suction mouth and nares of neonates |
| Name of anatomical area where fallopian tubes are attached and enter uterus? | cornu |
| Gynecologic procedure performed to treat urinary incontinence or cystocele | anterior colporrhapy |
| Procedure in which a patient would be left without vagina, reproductive organ permanent colostomy & ileostomy. | exentration |
| Procedure that ST be sure to have adequate # of Allis/Allis-Adair. | A&P repair |
| Routinely done 1st in basic GYN laparoscopy that require small setup and glove change | insertion of manipulator |
| GYN procedure used for visualization of endometrium & used to treat polyps/myoma | hysteroscopy |
| Procedure likely classified as class ¾ and may require aerobic & anaerobic culture tubes. | marsupialization of bartholins cyst |
| Anatomical structure located anterior to symphysis pubis and superior to vaginal opening. | urethral opening |
| Anatomical area located between posterior vaginal opening and anus | perineum |
| General term for treatment method that destroys genital conylomata with Co2 laser. | ablation |
| Pistol-type grip of instrument might be found in D&C tray for cervical biopsy. | tischler |
| Another name for ovarian suspensory ligament. | infundibulopelvic |
| Largest-supporting ligament in female pelvis that has anterior and posterior leaves. | broad |
| Needle holder that is curved and frequently used for hysterectomy procedures. | heaney |
| Instruments used for closure of vaginal cuff in total abdominal hysterectomy are _______. | Isolated as contaminated |
| Total abdominal hysterectomy is assigned _____ wound classification. | class 2 |
| Paired ligaments encountered and ligate last in abdominal hysterectomy and 1st in vaginal hysterectomy. | uterosacral |
| Fallopian tubes are located bilaterally in mesosalpinx of _______ uterine-pelvic ligaments. | broad |
| Adnexa refer to______ GYN anatomical structures | fallopian tubes, ovaries, and infundibulum |
| Procedure that doesn’t require incision, use of trocars or distention with gas or fluid. | colposcopy |
| ______ is used for creating pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopy | CO2 |
| Type of stirrups used in laparoscopic assisted vaginal hysterectomy. | allen low lithotomy |
| Radionuclide seeds are used to treat _______. | uterine/cervical carcinoma |
| orrect statement regarding anatomical changes following pelvic exentration | colostomy with exit on left ileostomy on right side of abdomen |
| Procedure involves en bloc removal of uterus, bilateral ovaries and fallopian tubes, supporting ligaments, upper third of vagina and pelvic lymph nodes? | radical hysterectomy |
| What instrument should ST have ready to provide exposure during C-section when uterine incision is made? | gelpi |
| Retinal structure allows for perception of general shapes and shades of gray in dim light. | rods |
| What kind of anesthetic block is used for vitrectomy procedure? | retrobulbar |
| Perfluoropropane and sulfur hexafluoride are used to ______. | keep pressure on retina |
| Pharmacologic agent that constricts pupil of eye | acetycholine |
| Trephine is used in _______. | keratoplasty |
| Sterile irrigation fluid used for ophthalmic procedures. | BSS |
| Normal condition of lens of eye. | transparent and biconvex |
| Another name for traction suture used to manipulate globe of eye. | bridle |
| _____ represents the replacement device for cataract lens in eye | IOL |
| Where is lacrimal gland located? | upper lid, outer angle of orbit |
| Into what structures do lacrimal ducts drain tears? | nasal cavity |
| What procedure done on the eye with internal malfunction or loss of contacts and no possible recovery of sight provides better mobility and cosmetic result with prosthetic eye? | evisceration |
| What procedure surgically treats glaucoma? | iridectomy |
| Portion of eye between the cornea and iris in which aqueous fluid flows and nourishes tissues? | anterior chamber |
| Another name for cystic structure caused by inflammatory response to material trapped in a melbomian gland. | chalazion |
| Inward turning of eyelid with resulting corneal irritation. | entropia |
| What instrument is used to remove cataract lens in preparation for IOL placement? | phacoemulisification hand piece |
| Name of locking/nonlocking needle holders frequently used in ophthalmology. | castrovijo |
| Scissors NOT used in eye procedures | jorgenson |
| What passes thru canal of schlemm | aqueous humor |
| Misalignment or deviation from coordinated movement of eyes is ______. | strabismus |
| If looking at eye of pt. and assigning clock positions at 12,3,6,9 to rectus eye muscles, what would be correct? | 12-superior, 3-medial, 6-inferior, 9-lateral |
| Term for ‘crossed eyes’. | estropia |
| Structure for eye is closed and its muscles constrict or relax to control the amount of light entering pupil | iris |
| How many tunics compare the structure of the globe of the eye? | 3 |
| What 2 structures form the outer tunic of globe of eye? | cornea and sclera |
| What procedure involves adjusting sutures after pt. has recovered completely from anesthesia, but within 24 hours? | reseccion/resection |
| Structure of eye that’s thin, transparent lining of inner surface of eyelid & covers sclera. NOT used for visualization in eye procedures. | colposcope |
| ______ represents eye speculum that resembles an uncoiled metal paper clip. | barraquer |
| NOT a method of IOL insertion. | fan folded through small incision |
| How would a definitive diagnosis of detached retina be obtained if hemorrhage is present in the eye? | surgical vitrectomy |
| Name of gelatin-like fluid that fills the posterior cavity of eye. | vitreous humor |
| What surgical procedure would an ocutome is used? | vitrectomy |
| Substance used following vitrectomy for long-term support of retina with fewer restrictions on position | silicone oil |
| Membrane that encloses/contains vitreous humor in posterior cavity. | hyaloid |
| Where would a Veirs rod be placed to relieve or prevent obstruction? | canaliculus |
| Condition of lens that’s treated by cataract extraction | opacified |
| What procedure would suture most likely NOT be necessary? | Extracapsular cataract extraction |
| Name of opening created in outer tunic for insertion of infusion cannula for excision of vitreous? | sclerotomy |
| Name of structure that’s small depression containing only canes and has the highest visual acuity. | central fovea |
| Tetracaine drops are used in eye procedures to _____. | numb the surface of eye and surrounding structures |
| _____ Techniques use a laser to treat retinal tears of proliferative diabetic retinopathy. | endophotocoagulation |
| Procedure may be done in conjunction with virectomy if surgeon is unable to gain visualization of posterior cavity of eye. | lensectomy |
| Term for 6 muscles that provide movement of eye. | extrinsic |
| _____ is an intraocular procedure | vitrectomy |
| Structure is avascular, external and its function is to refract light rays. | cornea |
| Structure has 4 layers: epithelial cells, substantia propria, elastic lamina and endothelial cells | cornea |
| Type of needle is frequently used in eye procedures. | 3/8 circle spatula |
| Cryotherapy uses ______ to seal retinal tears and holes. | cold |
| Type of drape with rounded fenestration and adhesive backing, used when procedure involves globe of eye. | aperture |
| Type of drape w/ ‘u’ configuration and adhesive edged ‘legs’ used for procedures requiring broader access to extraocular areas. | split |
| Think connective tissue structure that provides integrity to shape of eyelid, may be repositioned in entropian repair. | tarsal plate |
| Angular junction of eyelid at either corner of eye. | canthus |
| Porous, circumferential band of tiny canals through with aqueous humor drains | trabecular meshwork |
| Name of line of miniscapel blades used in eye and ENT | beaver |
| Visual defect in with 1 object is seen in duplicate treated w/ adjustable suture technique of strabismus correction | diplopia |
| Variable-rate, reciporating and cutting tip hand piece attached to suction. | vitrector |
| Unit of measurement of optical power of magnifying lens. | diopter |
| Heredity, progressive, noninflammatory disease of anterior surface of eye, diagnostic indication for keratoplasty. | corneal dystrophy |
| Name of wax that’s normally produced and found within ear canal. | cerumen |
| Term for creating a surgical opening into tympanic membrane | myringotomy |
| NOT an ossicle. | cochlea |
| ______ Cranial nerve may be damaged by growth of cholesteatoma. | 7 |
| Walter, Caldwell, lateral and submental radiographic views are used to establish diagnosis for which anatomical area | sinus cavity |
| Tissue type of palatine tonsils. | lymphoid |
| NOT a category of tonsil tissue. | laryngeal |
| Classified as tonsils but are routinely referred to as adenoids & tend to atrophy w/ age. | pharyngeal |
| What procedure would ST need to have spreader and hook ready to use? | tracheotomy |
| TMJ decompression is performed in ______ area. | lateral jaw |
| Performed for treatment of sleep apnea. | UPPP |
| Structure often blocked w/ stones is parotid glands, possibly necessitation surgical removal of gland. | steno's duct |
| Name of double action, cupped forward-angled forceps used to resect portions of nasal septum | jansen-middleton |
| Antrostomy rasps would be used in procedures involving _______. | facial sinus |
| Description & classification of laryngeal cartilage pertains to epiglottis. | individual and elastic |
| Laryngeal cartilage commonly known as “adams apple’ | thyroid |
| Procedure sometimes performed in ICU, ER and PACU is ________. | tracheotomy |
| Name of long, thin, cupped pistol-type grip handled forceps in nasal cases. | takashi |
| ______ cranial nerve carrier info related to equilibrium to cerebal cortex. | 8 |
| ______ would require use of operating microscope. | stapedectomy |
| How should micro ear instruments be cleaned intra-op. | wiped with microwipe sponge |
| Baron, frazier, house & rosen are names of _______. | suction |
| Gas that causes expansion of middle ear & therefore is contraindicated in tympanic graft cases. | nitrous oxide |
| MOST commonly used autograft in otologic procedures | temporalis fascia |
| Type of study used to diagnose sleep apnea. | polysomnography |
| Surgical procedure for excision of cholesteatoma. | mastiodectomy |
| Instrument to measure distance from incus to stapes footplate for selection of a prosthesis in stapedectomy. | depth gauge |
| Name is common to knives, needles, picks and suction tip used in otologic procedures | rosen |
| NOT a compartment of bony labyrinth of inner ear | sphenoid sinus |
| Instrument tray would you find a Ballenger swivel knife, cottle elevator, knight scissors and takashi forceps | SMR |
| Name of sharp-tipped, handheld retractor that can be either single/double and often found in nasal trays. | joseph |
| Otorhinolaryngolist is commonly known as _______. | ENT |
| Type of laser is useful in procedures involving stapes and middle ear. | argon |
| Type of mechanical action of drill attachment is most common in otologic. | rotary |
| Structure that separates outer & middle ear canals from one another. | tympanic membrane |
| Part of tympanic membrane is fibrous, largest & where drainage tubes are inserted | pars tensa |
| In myringotomy procedures, what does PE stand for? | pressure equalizing |
| Chronic occurring condition is often the reason for placement of myringotomy tubes in one or both ears. | otitis media |
| _____ is necessary for instrument setup for bilateral myringotomy tube placement | mayo stand |
| What acute info appears in bony air cells after approx. 10-14 days following an otitis media infection and if untreated, may result in meningitis or encephalitis? | mastioditis |
| Important step for ST to remember to perform when changing bars on pneumatic drill. | put hand piece on safety |
| Term for bony overgrowth on stapes. | otosclerosis |
| Epistaxis is more commonly known as an acute _______. | nose bleed |
| Diagnostic study is best at delineating between soft tissue and bony structures for diagnosing sinus conditions | CT scan |
| Why is a scapular/shoulder roll used in procedures involving the oropharynx? | tilt head to increase exposure |
| Term that describes a nasal septum that typically causes obstructed breathing in older patients? | deviated |
| What is the ST often asked to do for surgeon during septal procedures? | tap chisel with mallet lightly |
| Alternate name for bony nasal projections known as turbinates | conchae |
| All of the following are methods of performing a turbinectomy except ______. | percutaneous |
| Where is the soft palate located in relation to the nasal cavity? | posterior and inferior |
| Most common cause of nasal polyps. | allergic rhinitis |
| Which paranasal sinuses are numerous, small and located on either side of the bridge of the nose, between the eyes? | ethmoid |
| Which paranasal sinuses are most superior and can be singular or divided? | frontal |
| What procedure would require a 4mm of 5mm, 0 degree, or angled lenses and a navigation system for intra-op guidance? | FESS |
| Davis and mclevor are examples of _______. | mouth gags |
| ______ is a curved, serrated tonsil knife | fisher |
| Which objective-power lens is most frequently used for microlarygnoscopy? | 400mm |
| What statement comparing rigid bronchoscopes and eshagoscopes to rigid laryngoscope is correct? | Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes and the distal end is straight |
| _____ is frequently used as an autograft to replace the mandible in radical neck dissection. | fibula |
| What mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels? | calcium |
| What is a long bone that is longest in the human body? | femur |
| What bone is the largest, found in the foot and is commonly called the heel? | calcaneous |
| What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later? | osteomyletits |
| What is the hard, dense bone that surrounds the marrow cavity? | cortical |
| Where is the area of active bone growth | epiphyseal plate |
| What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid? | bursa |
| What type of bone is the patella? | seasmoid |
| What is the medical term for spongy bone? | cancellous |
| What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection? | Periosteum |
| Carpal and Tarsal bones are classified as ______ | short |
| In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in _____ bone. Flat | Flat and Irregular |
| The elbow is categorized as what type of joint? | Diathrosis |
| Connections between large bones of the skull are categorized as _____ joint | Synarthrosis |
| What is an example of a condyloid joint? | Temporomandibular |
| The proximal ends of the radius and C1 and C2 vertebra are examples of ____ type of diathrosis. | Pivot |
| What is an example of a ball-and-socket joint? | Femoroactabular |
| What hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase absorption of calcium where serum levels are low? | Parathyroid |
| What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain and locking up? | Joint Mice |
| In which joint, would a bucket handle tear be found? | knee |
| What condition is commonly known as “Bowlegged”? | genu varum |
| Hallux Valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the _____. | great toe |
| What means a partial separation of dislocation of a joint without any break in skin? | sublaxation |
| What is the most common cause of bone fractures? | trauma |
| What type of fracture is characterized as a partial and may result from activities such as jumping and jogging? | green stick |
| What describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture? | (*) asterisk |
| What medical term means moving a body part away from the midline? | abduction |
| Action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of what movement? | plantar flexion |
| What following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization? | hormonal |
| What is the medical name for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion? | exostasis |
| What pathology is related to specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body | rheumatoid arthritis |
| What is the term from the softening of bone is children that is commonly called rickets? | osteomalacia |
| Chondroma, Giant Cell and Osteoma are _______. | benign tumors |
| How many stages are involved in normal osteogensis? | 5 |
| Which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site and cartilage and immature bone provide support? | callus formation |
| What is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures? | compartmental syndrome |
| The term C-Arm refers to a __________. | fluoroscopic machine |
| What type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs? | spica |
| What would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow? | Bence Jones Protien |
| What diagnostic procedure does not use ionizing radiation? | MRI scan |
| What orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagles talon? | Lowman Bone holder |
| Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by what other name because of their shapes? | cobra |
| What device is frequently sued from femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-Arm? | fracture table |
| What is achieved by wrapping on an extremity with an esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet? | exsanguination |
| What is true regarding safe continuous tourniquet inflation time | lower extremity 1.5 hours upper extremity 1 hour |
| All of the following are examples of equipment used post-operatively on the patient for pain reduction or stimulation of healing factors except _____. | body exhaust suit |
| Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating and sterilizing orthopedic instruments should be followed? | manufacturer |
| Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to ortho and differs from most laparoscopic/MIS systems? | powered shaving system |
| Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implants? | FDA |
| Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone? | polyglactin910(vicryl) |
| What is polymethyl methylcryate used for in ortho procedures? | bone cement |
| What bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone? | clavical |
| Acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which bone? | scapula |
| Infrspinatus, Teres Minor, Subcapularis and Supraspinatus collectively make up _________. | rotator cuff |
| Which joint has greatest range of motion? | glenohumeral |
| What is the largest bone in the upper extremity? | humerus |
| What medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis? | lactated ringer's |
| What piece of equipment is not attached to the arthroscope? | powered shaver |
| What instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures? | blunt probe |
| Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure? | labrum |
| Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following except: | colles |
| Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo _________. | acromioplasty |
| What should the ST do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty? | drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating |
| Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion is _______. | serious post-op complication of open acromioplasty |
| NOT an indication for total shoulder arthroplasty. | moderate impingement syndrome |
| What instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses | intramedullary reamer |
| Which bone is involved in a Colles fracture? | radius |
| Common approach for Colles fracture. | external fixation |
| Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for SSI? | ORIF for compound comminuted fracture |
| NOT a bone of the pelvis. | femur |
| What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint? | acetabulum |
| Portion of femur that articulated with acetabulum. | head |
| Common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for | dynamic hip screw |
| Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture? Fracture | fracture table |
| Patients in which age group is most commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty? | over 65yrs |
| Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI? | space suit or body exhaust suit |
| Commonly used self-retaining retractor for total hip arthroplasty? | charnley |
| What tissue does acetabular reamer remove? | cartilage |
| What should the ST have ready to clean bone/tissue from rongeur | lap |
| Correct order of steps for femoral canal prep during total hip arthroplasty | reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial |
| Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard or titanium femoral | nails |
| Cannulated nails and screws are designed to follow the path created by a _______. | guide pin |
| Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on tibia and prevents hypertension of the knee? | anterior cruciate |
| Purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee | cushioning |
| What bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone? | tibia |
| Patellar tendons, Iliotibial band, Semitendinosus Tendon are examples of _______. | autografts for acl repair |
| NOT an example of device used to anchor both ends of ACL graft. | steinmann pin |
| Liston Knife, Gilgi Saw and Satterlee are examples of instruments used for ________. | amputation |
| Amputated Limbs may be placed in _______ to transport to pathology. | mayo stand cover |
| Total Knee Arthroplasty is categorized by all of the following except __________. | quadricompartmental |
| Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller and McBride are techniques for ________. | bunionectomy |
| Thickest and strongest tendon in body | achilles |
| (T or F) Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause break down of device and may cause wound infection. | true |
| (T or F) Arthroscopic procedures require 1 incision through which all instruments are passed. | false |
| (T or F) There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and complicated. | false |
Created by:
surggal27