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questions on final
Ch 16-18
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1. The anterior chamber is the space _____. | space anterior to the iris |
| 2. Aqueous humor is found in the _____. | anterior chamber |
| 3. The substance found in the posterior chamber is _____. | vitreous humor |
| 4. The _____ is an intrinsic muscle of the eye. | ciliary body |
| 5. The term used to describe the location behind the g… | retrobulbar |
| 6. The outer most tunic of the eyeball is called _____. | sclera |
| 7. Strabismus is defined as _____. | deviation of the position |
| 8. A small lump on the inner or outer surface of t… an oil-secreting gland is called a _____. | chalazion |
| 9. The posterior chamber is the space _____ | posterior to the iris & … |
| 10. An opacity of the crystalline lens is referred to as a _____. | cataract |
| 11. A person who completely lacks cones suffers from _____. | color blindness |
| 12. The innermost tunic of the eye is the _____. | retina |
| 13. What is the function of the iris? | to regulate the amount ….. |
| 14. What condition is characterized by excess pressure …: | glaucoma |
| 15. What procedure is performed to open blocked tear ducts? | lacrimal duct dilation |
| 16. Phacoemulsification is one method of _____. | removing an opaque lens |
| 17. Recession or resection is the surgical treatment for _____. | strabismus |
| 18. What instrument is used to remove the recipient …? | trephine |
| 19. What is the primary function of the lateral rectus muscle? | lateral eye movement |
| 20. Where are the lacrimal glands located? | within the upper eyelids |
| 21. The nasolacrimal duct drains into the _____. | interior cavity of the nose |
| 22. What does the term dacryocystitis mean? | inflammation of the lac… |
| 23. Cryotherapy involves the use of _____. | cold |
| 24. What pathology does the scleral buckle procedure …? | retinal detachment |
| 25. Why is dacryocystorhinostomy performed? | to establish a new pat… |
| 26. Balanced salt solution (BSS) is used intraoperatively to _____. | irrigate the cornea |
| 27. During extracapsular cataract extraction, the _____ | posterior capsule remains… |
| 28. What is the action of acetylcholine chloride? | to constrict the pupil |
| 29. The process of phacoemulsification uses what type …? | ultrasonic |
| 30. Why is it important to remove the powder from your gloves? | to prevent corneal irritation |
| 31. What is the purpose of placing a traction suture prior to procedure? | to manipulate the globe |
| 32. Which type of incision used for cataract extraction? | corneal |
| 33. Why is hydroxyapatite used following enucleation? | to provide a base of support |
| 34. Betamethasone is what type of pharmacological agent? | anti-inflammatory |
| 35. Vitrectomy requires the use of what instrument? | ocutome |
| 36. The function of the inferior oblique muscle is: | to rotate eye upward |
| 37. The mucous membrane covering of the eye is called _____. | conjunctiva |
| 38. Which structure is referred to as the “rainbow” of the eye? | iris |
| 39. The sensory layer of the retina is made of _____. | photoreceptors |
| 40. _____ is the leading cause of blindness in the US. | Glaucoma |
| 41. Mydriatics & cycloplegic drugs cause _____. | pupil dilation |
| 42. Diuretics are used to _____. | reduce intraocular pressure |
| 43. Decadron is a common _____. | steroid |
| 44. The most common suture needle used for cornia procedures is _____. | spatula micropoint |
| 45. The _____ scissors useful in strabismus procedures. | Westcott |
| 46. Entropion is a condition that affects the _____. | lower eyelid |
| 47. Iridectomy refers to _____. | removal of a section of the glaucoma |
| 48. Intraocular pressure is measured with a _____. | tonometer |
| 49. During what procedure may a patient receive an injection & subretinal fluid is reabsorbed and scars form? | scleral buckle |
| 50. _____ sponges are the sponges of choice in eye surgery. | Weck |
| 51. Enucleation is indicated for all EXCEPT _____. | intraocular presssure |
| 52. What is another name for the traction suture? | bridal |
| 53. What is a cholesteatoma? | benign cyst in the mastoid |
| 54. Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures? | to achieve hemostasis |
| 55. What does the term apnea mean? | not breathing |
| 56. What does the term congenital mean? | present at birth |
| 57. What is the superior opening into the larynx called? | glottis |
| 58. Hemorrhage from the nose is described as _____. | epistaxis |
| 59. The olfactory sense is the sense of _____. | smell |
| 60. What is the name of the lowest tracheal cartilage | carina |
| 61. Enlargement of a structure due to an increase in the … | hypertrophy |
| 62. Otosclerosis is the term used to describe _____. | fixation of the stapes |
| 63. The pinna is also known as the _____. | auricle |
| 64. Name the 3 sections of the pharynx: | nasopharynx, oropharynx, & ….. |
| 65. Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called …..? | palatine |
| 66. Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called….. | pharyngeal |
| 67. What are the conchae/turbinates? | osseous ridges on the … |
| 68. Which of the following is one of the most frequent …? | virus |
| 69. A reduction of hearing is referred to as _____. | deafness |
| 70. What is the usual cause of a vocal cord nodule? | vocal abuse |
| 71. In what position will the adult patient be placed ….. | sitting |
| 72. What is the most common autologous site for sec … | temporalis fascia |
| 73. What structures are removed during UPPP? | tonsils, adenoids, uvula, … |
| 74. Name the structure that separates the outer and …. | tympanic membrane |
| 75. Which of the following is not a normal feature of the ty….? | convex |
| 76. Name the ossicles of the middle ear from lateral to medial: | mallous, incus, stapes |
| 77. The footplate of the stapes rests upon the _____. | oval window |
| 78. What fluid fills the spaces of the bony labyrinth? | perilymph |
| 79. The 7th cranial nerve is also called the _____. | facial nerve |
| 80. An otoscope is used to view the _____. | outer ear |
| 81. Why is nitrous oxide NOT used during reconstruction of the ear? | it expands the middle ear |
| 82. Tympanotomy is _____. | an incision into the tympanic |
| 83. What is the name of the structure that divides the tw … | septum |
| 84. Where are the frontal sinuses located? | within the frontal bone |
| 85. The main source of blood supply to the nose is from the _____. | internal maxillary artery |
| 86. The olfactory bulb is the tip of the _____ cranial nerve. | first |
| 87. What process normally affects the nasal septum? | deviation |
| 88. What is the name of the procedure that is used to … | rhinoplasty |
| 89. Hypertrophic turbinates may be treated with: | sclerosing agents |
| 90. The medical term for the Adam’s apple is the _____. | thyroid cartilage |
| 91. What is the only cartilage in the upper aerodigest … | cricoid cartilage |
| 92. Zenker’s diverticulum is found in the _____. | esophagus |
| 93. “Nerve deafness,” a condition that involves the cochlea nerve, is known as _____ deafness. | sensorineural |
| 94. The graft harvested prior to the start of a stapedectomy is used _____. | to cover the oval window |
| 95. Which instrument is routinely used in ear procedures? | Aliigator |
| 96. Which salivary gland is the largest & is located on the … | parotid |
| 97. What is a major concern when operating on the …..? | facial nerve |
| 98. Which digestive enzyme found in the salivary glands? | amylase |
| 99. Which salivary gland is located inferior to the jaw? | submandibular |
| 100. Which salivary gland is located beneath the mucous…? | sublingual |
| 101. The term used to define the inflammation of the nasal passages? | rhinitis |
| 102. Nasal polyps are growths that originate from the _____. | mucous membrane |
| 103. Which portion of the ear is responsible for equilibrium? | semicircular canals |
| 104. Which structure are the vocal cords located in? | larynx |
| 105. If acute otitis media is left untreated, it may lead to _____. | mastoiditis |
| 106. Which instruments are used to remove preoperative …? | speculum, Bayonet |
| 107. During a tonsillectomy, which instrument can be used? | long Allis |
| 108. The portion of the jaw that surrounds & supports … | alveolar process |
| 109. The term orbicular means _____. | circular |
| 110. Crescent shaped cartilage found in the TMJ and … | meniscus |
| 111. Another name for the malar bone is _____. | zygomatic |
| 112. The 7th cranial nerve is also called the _____. | Facial nerve |
| 113. What causes dental caries to form? | low pH in the oral |
| 114. What can be done to treat an intranasal dural…? | cover with fat, fascia, or … |
| 115. The space between the lips (extending to include…)? | vestibule |
| 116. The term deciduous refers to the _____ teeth. | primary |
| 117. The anterior portion of the palate is the _____. | hard palate |
| 118. What structure attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth? | lingual frenulum |
| 119. The lower jawbone is the _____. | mandible |
| 120. Which facial muscle allows for closure of the mouth? | masseter |
| 121. What is the term used to describe a deformity of the jaw? | micrognathia |
| 122. The term enophthalmos is used to describe _____. | sagging of the eye |
| 123. What is the medical term for premature closure of the … | craniosynostosis |
| 124. Which of the following best describes a LeFort … | alveolar process of the m… |
| 125. What is the source of autogenous graft material? | patient |
| 126. The purpose of arch bars is to stabilize the: | maxillary |
| 127. Arch bars are fixed into position with a _____. | wire |
| 128. Vomiting can lead to aspiration, but in the max….? | infection |
| 129. Why is nasal intubation preferred when arch bars ap…..? | to provide access to the … |
| 130. Coral is a type of _____. | xenograft |
| 131. The term malocclusion refers to _____. | teeth that are not in proper alignment |
| 132. Under ideal circumstances, bone healing is expected in _____ weeks. | 4 to 6 |
| 133. What type of incision is made at the patients hairline? | coronal |
| 134. What type of incision is used for a frontal fracture? | coronal |
| 135. Endoscopic viewing of a joint is called _____. | arthroscopy |
| 136. An example of synthetic graft material is _____. | Silastic |
| 137. What is the most common type of midfacial fracture? | LeFort I |
| 138. Which diagnostic imaging method provides images …? | CT scan |
| 139. In which position will the patient be placed to obtain …? | upright with the neck hyperextended |
| 140. What type of inhalation system for the administration … maxillofacial procedures? | closed |
| 141. Which of the following is an action of epinephrine? | vasoconstriction |
| 142. The uvula is considered to be _____ tissue. | lymphoid |
| 143. Which radiographic view shows the hard palate, nasal…? | Caldwell view |
| 144. A rubber wedge is placed between the upper and lower … an open position is called a _____. | mouth prop |
| 145. All are true regarding throat packs EXCEPT that: | throat packs are kept dry & used to keep tooth fragments from becoming lodged |
| 146. Frontal sinus repair often requires a _____. | craniotomy setup |
| 147. LeFort II and III fractures can also be referred to as _____. | panfacial |
| 148. A sagittal split osteotomy may be performed to correct _____. | retrognathism |
| 149. _____is injected into the joint space to distend the … | Lactated Ringer’s |
| 150. Which statement is correct concerning oral procedures? | Oral procedures are not … |
| 151. Match the following ear anatomy: | 1. E. Malleus |
| 2. K. Incus | |
| 3. I. Semicircular Canals | |
| 4. D. Cochlea | |
| 5. C. Oval Window | |
| 6. A. Round Window | |
| 7. G. Tube (Eust) | |
| 8. F. Stapes & footplate | |
| 9. B. Tympanic membrane | |
| 10. J. External Auditory Canal | |
| 11. H. Auricle | |
| 152. Match the following extrinsic eye muscles: | Inferior Olique – 6 |
| Inferior Rectus – 5 | |
| Lateral Rectus – 4 | |
| Medial Rectus – 3 | |
| Superior Oblique – 1 | |
| Superior Rectus – 2 | |
| 153. Match the following Lacrimal System Anatomy: | Lacrimal Gland – 1 |
| Inferior Canaliculi – 2 | |
| Nasolacrimal Duct – 3 | |
| Lacrimal Sac – 4 | |
| Superior Canalculi – 5 | |
| 154. Match the following Eye Anatomy: | Posterior cavity – 1 |
| Sclera – 2 | |
| Optic Disc – 3 | |
| Optic Nerve – 4 | |
| Fovea Centralis – 5 | |
| Retina – 6 | |
| Choroid Coat – 7 | |
| Ciliary Body – 8 | |
| Posterior Chamber – 9 | |
| Lens – 10 | |
| Aqueous Humor – 11 | |
| Iris – 12 | |
| Suspensory Ligaments – 13 | |
| Vitreous Humor – 14 |
Created by:
vwilson4164