47. Iridectomy refers to _____.

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questions on final

Ch 16-18

Question	Answer
1. The anterior chamber is the space _____.	space anterior to the iris
2. Aqueous humor is found in the _____.	anterior chamber
3. The substance found in the posterior chamber is _____.	vitreous humor
4. The _____ is an intrinsic muscle of the eye.	ciliary body
5. The term used to describe the location behind the g…	retrobulbar
6. The outer most tunic of the eyeball is called _____.	sclera
7. Strabismus is defined as _____.	deviation of the position
8. A small lump on the inner or outer surface of t… an oil-secreting gland is called a _____.	chalazion
9. The posterior chamber is the space _____	posterior to the iris & …
10. An opacity of the crystalline lens is referred to as a _____.	cataract
11. A person who completely lacks cones suffers from _____.	color blindness
12. The innermost tunic of the eye is the _____.	retina
13. What is the function of the iris?	to regulate the amount …..
14. What condition is characterized by excess pressure …:	glaucoma
15. What procedure is performed to open blocked tear ducts?	lacrimal duct dilation
16. Phacoemulsification is one method of _____.	removing an opaque lens
17. Recession or resection is the surgical treatment for _____.	strabismus
18. What instrument is used to remove the recipient …?	trephine
19. What is the primary function of the lateral rectus muscle?	lateral eye movement
20. Where are the lacrimal glands located?	within the upper eyelids
21. The nasolacrimal duct drains into the _____.	interior cavity of the nose
22. What does the term dacryocystitis mean?	inflammation of the lac…
23. Cryotherapy involves the use of _____.	cold
24. What pathology does the scleral buckle procedure …?	retinal detachment
25. Why is dacryocystorhinostomy performed?	to establish a new pat…
26. Balanced salt solution (BSS) is used intraoperatively to _____.	irrigate the cornea
27. During extracapsular cataract extraction, the _____	posterior capsule remains…
28. What is the action of acetylcholine chloride?	to constrict the pupil
29. The process of phacoemulsification uses what type …?	ultrasonic
30. Why is it important to remove the powder from your gloves?	to prevent corneal irritation
31. What is the purpose of placing a traction suture prior to procedure?	to manipulate the globe
32. Which type of incision used for cataract extraction?	corneal
33. Why is hydroxyapatite used following enucleation?	to provide a base of support
34. Betamethasone is what type of pharmacological agent?	anti-inflammatory
35. Vitrectomy requires the use of what instrument?	ocutome
36. The function of the inferior oblique muscle is:	to rotate eye upward
37. The mucous membrane covering of the eye is called _____.	conjunctiva
38. Which structure is referred to as the “rainbow” of the eye?	iris
39. The sensory layer of the retina is made of _____.	photoreceptors
40. _____ is the leading cause of blindness in the US.	Glaucoma
41. Mydriatics & cycloplegic drugs cause _____.	pupil dilation
42. Diuretics are used to _____.	reduce intraocular pressure
43. Decadron is a common _____.	steroid
44. The most common suture needle used for cornia procedures is _____.	spatula micropoint
45. The _____ scissors useful in strabismus procedures.	Westcott
46. Entropion is a condition that affects the _____.	lower eyelid
47. Iridectomy refers to _____.	removal of a section of the glaucoma
48. Intraocular pressure is measured with a _____.	tonometer
49. During what procedure may a patient receive an injection & subretinal fluid is reabsorbed and scars form?	scleral buckle
50. _____ sponges are the sponges of choice in eye surgery.	Weck
51. Enucleation is indicated for all EXCEPT _____.	intraocular presssure
52. What is another name for the traction suture?	bridal
53. What is a cholesteatoma?	benign cyst in the mastoid
54. Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures?	to achieve hemostasis
55. What does the term apnea mean?	not breathing
56. What does the term congenital mean?	present at birth
57. What is the superior opening into the larynx called?	glottis
58. Hemorrhage from the nose is described as _____.	epistaxis
59. The olfactory sense is the sense of _____.	smell
60. What is the name of the lowest tracheal cartilage	carina
61. Enlargement of a structure due to an increase in the …	hypertrophy
62. Otosclerosis is the term used to describe _____.	fixation of the stapes
63. The pinna is also known as the _____.	auricle
64. Name the 3 sections of the pharynx:	nasopharynx, oropharynx, & …..
65. Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called …..?	palatine
66. Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called…..	pharyngeal
67. What are the conchae/turbinates?	osseous ridges on the …
68. Which of the following is one of the most frequent …?	virus
69. A reduction of hearing is referred to as _____.	deafness
70. What is the usual cause of a vocal cord nodule?	vocal abuse
71. In what position will the adult patient be placed …..	sitting
72. What is the most common autologous site for sec …	temporalis fascia
73. What structures are removed during UPPP?	tonsils, adenoids, uvula, …
74. Name the structure that separates the outer and ….	tympanic membrane
75. Which of the following is not a normal feature of the ty….?	convex
76. Name the ossicles of the middle ear from lateral to medial:	mallous, incus, stapes
77. The footplate of the stapes rests upon the _____.	oval window
78. What fluid fills the spaces of the bony labyrinth?	perilymph
79. The 7th cranial nerve is also called the _____.	facial nerve
80. An otoscope is used to view the _____.	outer ear
81. Why is nitrous oxide NOT used during reconstruction of the ear?	it expands the middle ear
82. Tympanotomy is _____.	an incision into the tympanic
83. What is the name of the structure that divides the tw …	septum
84. Where are the frontal sinuses located?	within the frontal bone
85. The main source of blood supply to the nose is from the _____.	internal maxillary artery
86. The olfactory bulb is the tip of the _____ cranial nerve.	first
87. What process normally affects the nasal septum?	deviation
88. What is the name of the procedure that is used to …	rhinoplasty
89. Hypertrophic turbinates may be treated with:	sclerosing agents
90. The medical term for the Adam’s apple is the _____.	thyroid cartilage
91. What is the only cartilage in the upper aerodigest …	cricoid cartilage
92. Zenker’s diverticulum is found in the _____.	esophagus
93. “Nerve deafness,” a condition that involves the cochlea nerve, is known as _____ deafness.	sensorineural
94. The graft harvested prior to the start of a stapedectomy is used _____.	to cover the oval window
95. Which instrument is routinely used in ear procedures?	Aliigator
96. Which salivary gland is the largest & is located on the …	parotid
97. What is a major concern when operating on the …..?	facial nerve
98. Which digestive enzyme found in the salivary glands?	amylase
99. Which salivary gland is located inferior to the jaw?	submandibular
100. Which salivary gland is located beneath the mucous…?	sublingual
101. The term used to define the inflammation of the nasal passages?	rhinitis
102. Nasal polyps are growths that originate from the _____.	mucous membrane
103. Which portion of the ear is responsible for equilibrium?	semicircular canals
104. Which structure are the vocal cords located in?	larynx
105. If acute otitis media is left untreated, it may lead to _____.	mastoiditis
106. Which instruments are used to remove preoperative …?	speculum, Bayonet
107. During a tonsillectomy, which instrument can be used?	long Allis
108. The portion of the jaw that surrounds & supports …	alveolar process
109. The term orbicular means _____.	circular
110. Crescent shaped cartilage found in the TMJ and …	meniscus
111. Another name for the malar bone is _____.	zygomatic
112. The 7th cranial nerve is also called the _____.	Facial nerve
113. What causes dental caries to form?	low pH in the oral
114. What can be done to treat an intranasal dural…?	cover with fat, fascia, or …
115. The space between the lips (extending to include…)?	vestibule
116. The term deciduous refers to the _____ teeth.	primary
117. The anterior portion of the palate is the _____.	hard palate
118. What structure attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth?	lingual frenulum
119. The lower jawbone is the _____.	mandible
120. Which facial muscle allows for closure of the mouth?	masseter
121. What is the term used to describe a deformity of the jaw?	micrognathia
122. The term enophthalmos is used to describe _____.	sagging of the eye
123. What is the medical term for premature closure of the …	craniosynostosis
124. Which of the following best describes a LeFort …	alveolar process of the m…
125. What is the source of autogenous graft material?	patient
126. The purpose of arch bars is to stabilize the:	maxillary
127. Arch bars are fixed into position with a _____.	wire
128. Vomiting can lead to aspiration, but in the max….?	infection
129. Why is nasal intubation preferred when arch bars ap…..?	to provide access to the …
130. Coral is a type of _____.	xenograft
131. The term malocclusion refers to _____.	teeth that are not in proper alignment
132. Under ideal circumstances, bone healing is expected in _____ weeks.	4 to 6
133. What type of incision is made at the patients hairline?	coronal
134. What type of incision is used for a frontal fracture?	coronal
135. Endoscopic viewing of a joint is called _____.	arthroscopy
136. An example of synthetic graft material is _____.	Silastic
137. What is the most common type of midfacial fracture?	LeFort I
138. Which diagnostic imaging method provides images …?	CT scan
139. In which position will the patient be placed to obtain …?	upright with the neck hyperextended
140. What type of inhalation system for the administration … maxillofacial procedures?	closed
141. Which of the following is an action of epinephrine?	vasoconstriction
142. The uvula is considered to be _____ tissue.	lymphoid
143. Which radiographic view shows the hard palate, nasal…?	Caldwell view
144. A rubber wedge is placed between the upper and lower … an open position is called a _____.	mouth prop
145. All are true regarding throat packs EXCEPT that:	throat packs are kept dry & used to keep tooth fragments from becoming lodged
146. Frontal sinus repair often requires a _____.	craniotomy setup
147. LeFort II and III fractures can also be referred to as _____.	panfacial
148. A sagittal split osteotomy may be performed to correct _____.	retrognathism
149. _____is injected into the joint space to distend the …	Lactated Ringer’s
150. Which statement is correct concerning oral procedures?	Oral procedures are not …
151. Match the following ear anatomy:	1. E. Malleus
2. K. Incus
3. I. Semicircular Canals
4. D. Cochlea
5. C. Oval Window
6. A. Round Window
7. G. Tube (Eust)
8. F. Stapes & footplate
9. B. Tympanic membrane
10. J. External Auditory Canal
11. H. Auricle
152. Match the following extrinsic eye muscles:	Inferior Olique – 6
Inferior Rectus – 5
Lateral Rectus – 4
Medial Rectus – 3
Superior Oblique – 1
Superior Rectus – 2
153. Match the following Lacrimal System Anatomy:	Lacrimal Gland – 1
Inferior Canaliculi – 2
Nasolacrimal Duct – 3
Lacrimal Sac – 4
Superior Canalculi – 5
154. Match the following Eye Anatomy:	Posterior cavity – 1
Sclera – 2
Optic Disc – 3
Optic Nerve – 4
Fovea Centralis – 5
Retina – 6
Choroid Coat – 7
Ciliary Body – 8
Posterior Chamber – 9
Lens – 10
Aqueous Humor – 11
Iris – 12
Suspensory Ligaments – 13
Vitreous Humor – 14

Created by: vwilson4164

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