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2A651 CDC vol 1

QuestionAnswer
1. (001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group? Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance
2. (001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level? Supervisors.
3. (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators? Maintenance operations center
4. (001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned? Specialist.
5. (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job? Career development course.
6. (002) You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force? 48
7. (003) Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees? AFOSH.
8. (003) Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series 91
9. (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance? 21–101.
10. (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed? Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.
11. (004) How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend? 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
12. (004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft? 200
13. (005) FOD is normally caused by People
14. (005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program? Maintenance group commander.
15. (006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to carbon monoxide.
16. (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of Gases
17. (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment? Supervisor.
18. (007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry.
19. (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous wasted is dilution.
20. (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify incineration
21. (008) A specialized function of the supply mission is disposal.
22. (008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply? Weapons system.
23. (008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system? Repair Cycle Support System.
24. (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require overhaul.
25. (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS? Daily Document Register (D04).
26. (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization? Mission
27. (009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify? Origin of an item.
28. (009) Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag? TO 00–20–2
29. (010) If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part? AF IMT 2005.
30. (010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN 23–110
31. (011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance? DD Form 1575.
32. (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time? Shelf-life.
33. (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life
34. (013) A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.
35. (013) Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point? 24
36. (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL? Equipment Authorization Inventory Data
37. (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander.
38. (015) The first part of a TO number identifies the category and type of equipment in the TO.
39. (015) The second part of a TO number gives the model and series for equipment type in the TO.
40. (016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment? Index
41. (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action? Job guide.
42. (017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals(IETMS)? Urgent recommendations
43. (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB? Introduction.
44. (018) What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel? Immediate action.
45. (019) Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system? 00–5–1.
46. (019) How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed? A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.
(020) An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for preliminary TOs.
48. (020) Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission? Supervisor of initiator.
49. (020) Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property? Urgent.
50. (021) What are the two classifications of failures in RCM? Potential and functional.
51. (021) In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition? On condition
52. (022) The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.
53. (022) Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis? Base engine maintenance shop.
54. (022) Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program? Propulsion and nondestructive inspection
55. (023) What drives the creation of a CRP? Customer wait time and transportation constraints.
56. (023) Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status? Production supervisor.
57. (023) When a CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed? CIRF personnel.
58. (024) What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability? Depot maintenance.
59. (024) Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability
60. (024) Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and field teams
61. (025) A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.
62. (025) The key to making the CEMS work is accurate and timely data at the lowest level.
63. (025) For how many categories of reporting does the CEMS establish and maintain records? 2
64. (026) You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms 95.
65. (026) To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form 95
66. (027) What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs? Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field
67. (027) Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective? Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets
68. (027) How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories? 2
69. (028) Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause injury to you
70. (028) What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’s reach? Toolbag
71. (029) If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts, use a staggered sequence.
72. (029) The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the broached opening.
73. (029) What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter? Slide caliper.
74. (030) Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an accuracy of one ten-thousandth of an inch.
75. (030) The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is 1 inch
76. (030) You adjust a micrometer by turning the thimble.
77. (030) The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in ten-thousandths of an inch.
78. (031) Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located? At the end of a pivoted lever.
79. (031) What feature is common to all dial indicators? Ability to amplify movement greatly.
80. (032) To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage? 50
81. (032) What should you use for cleaning measuring tools? Dry-cleaning solvent.
82. (033) The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the function selector.
83. (034) How many range settings does the Fluke 8025A multimeter have? 4
84. (034) What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter? 32
85. (035) What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an engine? Visually inspect internal cavities
86. (035) Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by the fiber optics
87. (035) What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope? Direct and lateral
88. (035) When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you are inspecting? Distal tip light guides.
89. (035) The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a videoimagescope
90. (035) Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification? Age
91. (036) Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut? 2
92. (036) The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to avoid bottoming out the nut.
93. (036) What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications? Internal wrenching.
94. (036) Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250aF? Nonmetallic self-locking nuts
95. (036) How is a screw length measured? Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads
96. (036) When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be slightly smaller than the screw.
97. (036) What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals? Plain
98. (036) To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use? Plain washer underneath the lock washer.
99. (037) What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential? Tapered
100. (038) When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness? 8 to 10
101. (039) Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it has a high-fatigue factor
102. (039) You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by the coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses
103. (039) What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch? 6
104. (039) Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them? Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed.
105. (039) For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter? 20
106. (039) What type of hoses should you never use oil as an aid to installing? Self-sealing
Created by: airpower326
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