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2A651 CDC vol 1
Question | Answer |
---|---|
1. (001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group? | Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance |
2. (001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level? | Supervisors. |
3. (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators? | Maintenance operations center |
4. (001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned? | Specialist. |
5. (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job? | Career development course. |
6. (002) You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force? | 48 |
7. (003) Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees? | AFOSH. |
8. (003) Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series | 91 |
9. (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance? | 21–101. |
10. (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed? | Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. |
11. (004) How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend? | 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. |
12. (004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft? | 200 |
13. (005) FOD is normally caused by | People |
14. (005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program? | Maintenance group commander. |
15. (006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to | carbon monoxide. |
16. (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of | Gases |
17. (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment? | Supervisor. |
18. (007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent | unauthorized entry. |
19. (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous wasted is | dilution. |
20. (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify | incineration |
21. (008) A specialized function of the supply mission is | disposal. |
22. (008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply? | Weapons system. |
23. (008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system? | Repair Cycle Support System. |
24. (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require | overhaul. |
25. (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS? | Daily Document Register (D04). |
26. (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization? | Mission |
27. (009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify? | Origin of an item. |
28. (009) Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag? | TO 00–20–2 |
29. (010) If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part? | AF IMT 2005. |
30. (010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN | 23–110 |
31. (011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance? | DD Form 1575. |
32. (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time? | Shelf-life. |
33. (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item | has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life |
34. (013) A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency | that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. |
35. (013) Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point? | 24 |
36. (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL? | Equipment Authorization Inventory Data |
37. (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the | commander. |
38. (015) The first part of a TO number identifies the | category and type of equipment in the TO. |
39. (015) The second part of a TO number gives the | model and series for equipment type in the TO. |
40. (016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment? | Index |
41. (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action? | Job guide. |
42. (017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals(IETMS)? | Urgent recommendations |
43. (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB? | Introduction. |
44. (018) What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel? | Immediate action. |
45. (019) Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system? | 00–5–1. |
46. (019) How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed? | A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture. |
(020) An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for | preliminary TOs. |
48. (020) Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission? | Supervisor of initiator. |
49. (020) Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property? | Urgent. |
50. (021) What are the two classifications of failures in RCM? | Potential and functional. |
51. (021) In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition? | On condition |
52. (022) The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by | early detection of performance degradation and/or failures. |
53. (022) Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis? | Base engine maintenance shop. |
54. (022) Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program? | Propulsion and nondestructive inspection |
55. (023) What drives the creation of a CRP? | Customer wait time and transportation constraints. |
56. (023) Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status? | Production supervisor. |
57. (023) When a CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed? | CIRF personnel. |
58. (024) What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability? | Depot maintenance. |
59. (024) Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by | providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability |
60. (024) Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and | field teams |
61. (025) A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to | maintain accurate and timely engine inventories. |
62. (025) The key to making the CEMS work is | accurate and timely data at the lowest level. |
63. (025) For how many categories of reporting does the CEMS establish and maintain records? | 2 |
64. (026) You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms | 95. |
65. (026) To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form | 95 |
66. (027) What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs? | Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field |
67. (027) Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective? | Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets |
68. (027) How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories? | 2 |
69. (028) Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause | injury to you |
70. (028) What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’s reach? | Toolbag |
71. (029) If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts, | use a staggered sequence. |
72. (029) The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the | broached opening. |
73. (029) What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter? | Slide caliper. |
74. (030) Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an accuracy of | one ten-thousandth of an inch. |
75. (030) The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is | 1 inch |
76. (030) You adjust a micrometer by turning the | thimble. |
77. (030) The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in | ten-thousandths of an inch. |
78. (031) Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located? | At the end of a pivoted lever. |
79. (031) What feature is common to all dial indicators? | Ability to amplify movement greatly. |
80. (032) To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage? | 50 |
81. (032) What should you use for cleaning measuring tools? | Dry-cleaning solvent. |
82. (033) The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the | function selector. |
83. (034) How many range settings does the Fluke 8025A multimeter have? | 4 |
84. (034) What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter? | 32 |
85. (035) What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an engine? | Visually inspect internal cavities |
86. (035) Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by | the fiber optics |
87. (035) What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope? | Direct and lateral |
88. (035) When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you are inspecting? | Distal tip light guides. |
89. (035) The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a | videoimagescope |
90. (035) Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification? | Age |
91. (036) Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut? | 2 |
92. (036) The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to | avoid bottoming out the nut. |
93. (036) What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications? | Internal wrenching. |
94. (036) Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250aF? | Nonmetallic self-locking nuts |
95. (036) How is a screw length measured? | Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads |
96. (036) When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be | slightly smaller than the screw. |
97. (036) What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals? | Plain |
98. (036) To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use? | Plain washer underneath the lock washer. |
99. (037) What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential? | Tapered |
100. (038) When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness? | 8 to 10 |
101. (039) Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it | has a high-fatigue factor |
102. (039) You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by | the coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses |
103. (039) What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch? | 6 |
104. (039) Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them? | Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed. |
105. (039) For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter? | 20 |
106. (039) What type of hoses should you never use oil as an aid to installing? | Self-sealing |