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psychophysiology

psychophysiology Exam 1

QuestionAnswer
·      The human brain weighs about 1.3 kilograms (2.9 pounds)
·      The human brain is composed of various cells, including about 100 billion that are specialized to receive and transmit electrochemical signals. These specialized cells are called neurons
·      The study of the nervous system is called neuroscience
• The study of the nervous system is called neuroscience
• Jimmie G., the man frozen in time, had a severe problem with his memory
• Research has now established that the brain is plastic
• Biopsychology is the scientific study of the biology of behavior
·      Biopsychology is a branch or division of neuroscience
·      Biopsychology is distinguished from the other subdisciplines of neuroscience because of its focus on the study of behavior
·      _____ is the subdiscipline of neuroscience that focuses on the study of brain disorders. Neuropathology
·      Structure is to function as neuroanatomy is to neurophysiology
·      ____ are currently the most common subjects of biopsychological research Rats
·      The main difference between human brains and the brains of their mammalian relatives is that human brains tend to be bigger and have more cortex
·      The comparison of brain-behavior relations in different species is called the comparative approach
·      The term "within-subjects design" refers to experiments in which each subject is exposed to each condition of the experiment
·      In a successful experiment, the independent variable affects the dependent variable
·      In a well-designed experiment, there is only one systematic difference between the conditions. This difference is manipulated by the experimenter and is called the independent variable
·      ______make it difficult to make causal interpretations of experimental results Confounded varibles
·      The Coolidge effect refers to the fact that a sexually fatigued animal will often resume sexual activity if its current partner is replaced with a new one
·      The experiment of Lester and Gorzalka (1988) is important because it constitutes the first strong evidence of a Coolidge effect in females
·      The posture of lordosis in a female rodent indicates that she is sexually receptive
·      In some studies, subjects are not assigned to conditions; instead subjects are selected because they are already living under these conditions (e.g., alcohol consumers and alcohol nonconsumers). Such studies are quaxiexperiments
·      A major shortcoming of case-study research is that the degree to which the results can be generalized is unclear
·      Research that is intended to bring about direct benefit to humankind is applied research
·      The corpus callosum is a neural pathway that connects the left and right hemispheres
·      Hubel, Sperry, Axelrod, Moniz, Pavlov, and Golgi are all Nobel Prize winners
·      The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres
·      Schizophrenics and many of their relatives have difficulty in the smooth visual tracking of regularly moving objects
·      A term that refers to higher intellectual processes such as thought, memory, and attention is “cognition”
·      The major method of cognitive neuroscience is functional brain imaging
·      According to the text, the division of biopsychology that deals generally with the biology of behavior, rather than specifically with the neural mechanisms of behavior, is comparative psychology
·      Some comparative psychologists study behavior in the laboratory, whereas others conduct ethological research
·      The primary symptom of Korsakoff's syndrome is severe memory loss
·      Scientists study the unobservable (e.g., past ice ages, evolution, neural inhibition, gravity, evaporation and thinking) by scientific inference
·      If an object is moving to the left at a constant speed and your eyes are rotating to the left at twice the speed, you will see the object moving to the left
·      The visual system bases its perception of motion on a comparison between movement of the image on the retina and the neural commands sent from the brain to the eye muscles
·      A volunteer with curarized eye muscles, who viewed a stationary target, saw the target move in the same direction as he attempted to move his eyes
·      The principle that precedence should be given to the simplest interpretation of a behavior when more than one interpretation is possible is called Morgan’s canon
·      In the U.S. alone, more than _______psychiatric patients have received a prefrontal lobotomy. 40,000
·      Scientific progress is most likely when different approaches are focused on a single problem, particularly when the strengths of one approach compensate for the weaknesses of the others. This is called converging operations
·      ____is the youngest scientific discipline Biopsychology
·      Psychobiology, behavioral biology, and behavioral neuroscience are all approximate synonyms for biopsychology
·      Psychology is often defined as the scientific study of behavior
·      The man who played a key role in the emergence of biopsychology as a discipline by writing "The Organization of Behavior" is Hebb
·      According to the textbook, the science of biopsychology as it is practiced today emerged as a discipline in about 1949
·      -----is the youngest scientific discipline Biopsychology
The general intellectual climate of a culture is referred to as its • Zeitgeist
A major purpose of Chapter 2 of Biopsychology is to teach you not to think about the biology of behavior in terms of • traditional dichotomies
The idea that the human brain and human mind are separate entities was formalized in the 1600s by • Descartes
Descartes's philosophy was called • dualism
Nature is to nurture as • genetics is to experience
European ethologists focused on the study of • instinctive behaviors
Asomatognosia is a • deficiency in the awareness of parts of one’s own body
One way to study self-awareness in nonhuman animals is to confront them with a • mirror
According to the text, the phrase, "Reports of its death have been greatly exaggerated." sums up the history of • nature-or-nurture thinking
Darwin's theory of evolution was published in • 1859
Darwin was not the first to suggest that species evolve, but he was the first to suggest that • evolution occurs through natural selection
• Darwin suggested ________as the mechanism for evolution natural selection
Horse breeders have created faster horses through programs of • selective breeding
Fitness in the Darwinian sense refers to an organism's ability to • survive and contribute large numbers of fertile offspring to the next generation
Social dominance is an important factor in evolution because dominant males often • produce more offspring than nondominant males
courtship displays are important evolutionary phenomena because they promote the evolution of new species
The conspecific of a vole is a • vole
Evidence suggests that complex multicellular, water-dwelling organisms first appeared on earth • 600 million years ago
Animals with dorsal nerve cords are called • chordates
The first animals to venture out of the water were • bony fishes
Reptiles evolved directly from • amphibians
Mammals evolved directly from • reptiles
One remaining mammalian species that lays eggs is the • duck-billed platypus
Prosimians, hominins, and apes are all • primates
Unlike old-world monkeys, apes • do not have tails
According to the simplest theory, the hominin line is composed of two different genera: • Australopithecus and Homo
The first hominins are thought to have evolved about • 6 million years ago
• Australopithecines, the first hominins, are thought to have evolved about ______ years ago. 6 million
• The pattern of mate bonding that is most prevalent in mammals is polygyny
• According to one prominent theory, monogamy evolved in only those species in which each female could raise more fit young if she had undivided help
• Mendel's early experiments challenged the central premise upon which previous ideas about inheritance had rested. This was the premise that offspring can inherit only those traits that are displayed by their parents
• An organism's observable traits are referred to as its phenotype
• The two genes, one on each chromosome of a pair, that control the same trait are called alleles
• Individuals who possess two identical genes for a particular trait are homozygous for the trait
• If an individual has a recessive phenotype for a particular trait, it can be concluded that both parents were homozygous for the dominant gene for the trait
• In each cell of the human body, there are normally 23 pairs of chromosomes
• Gametes are produced by meiosis
• Just prior to mitotic cell division, the number of chromosomes in the cell doubles
• The "letters" of the genetic code are nucleotide bases
• There are _____ nucleotide bases in DNA 4 (FOUR)
• On the DNA molecule, cytosine binds to guanine
• In Down syndrome, there is an extra chromosome in each cell
• Accidental alteration in individual genes during replication is called mutation
• Female mammals have two X chromosomes
• Color blindness occurs more frequently in males than in females because it is a recessive sex-linked trait
• Sex-linked traits that are controlled by dominant genes occur more frequently in females
• Proteins that bind to DNA and influence the rate at which particular structural genes will be expressed are called transcription factors
• DNA is to RNA as thymine is to uracil
• During protein synthesis, each amino acid is carried to the ribosome by a transfer RNA molecule
• All mitochondrial genes are inherited only from one’s mother
• Arguably, the most ambitious scientific project of all time began in 1990: the human genome project
• The most surprising finding of the human genome project is that humans have relatively few protein-coding genes
• There are ______ structural (protein-coding) genes in the human genome. about 20,000
• Tryon is famous for selectively breeding so-called maze bright and maze dull strains of rats
• Cooper and Zubek (1958) found that maze-bright rats made fewer maze errors than maze-dull rats only if both groups had been reared in an impoverished laboratory environment
• The disorder ___ was discovered by Asbjörn Fölling, a Norwegian dentist phenylketonuria
• Canaries can sing with either their left or right hemispheres, but most have a strong left-hemisphere preference
• Identical is to fraternal as monozygotic is to dizygotic
• The most extensive study of twins reared apart is the Minnesota study
• In the study of heritability estimates, increasing the genetic diversity of the subjects without introducing other changes would likely increase the heritability estimate
• When a particular gene encourages a developing individual to select experiences that increase the behavioral effects of the gene, the gene is said to have a multiplier effect
• In many song birds, the voice box or ______a double structure. syrinxis
• Zebra finches and white-crowned sparrows are ______birdsong learners; canaries _____birdsong learners. age-limited and are open-ended
• The last remaining hominin species is Homo sapiens
• About 200 thousand years ago, early hominins were gradually replaced in the African fossil record by Home sapiens
• Metaphorically, evolution is a bush
• Sudden evolutionary changes are often triggered by sudden changes in the environment
• Scientists who study fossils are called paleontologists
• Convergent evolution produces structures that are analogous
• A bird's wing and a bee's wing are analogous
of all species that ever existed on earth are Less than 1%
·      Australo means ____; pithecus means _____ southern and ape
·      Well preserved 3.6-million-year-old footprints of 1.3-meter tall, small-brained ______ were discovered in African volcanic ash. Australopithecines
·      _____ are evolutionary changes that are not adaptive? Spandrels
·      An _____ evolved to perform one function and was then co-opted to perform another. exaptation
• The two major divisions of the nervous system are the PNS and the CNS
• In general, afferent nerves carry sensory information to the CNS
• The sympathetic nervous system differs from the parasympathetic nervous system in that the sympathetic nervous system has first-stage neurons that synapse at a substantial distance from the target
• The first two cranial nerves are sensory
• The dura mater, arachnoid membrane, and pia mater are meninges
• From outside to inside, the three meninges are the dura, arachnoid, and pia
• Adhering to the surface of the brain is the pia mater
• The subarachnoid space is just outside the pia mater
• The cerebral aqueduct connects the third and fourth ventricles
• When a tumor near the cerebral aqueduct causes cerebrospinal fluid to accumulate in the brain, the disorder is hydrocephalus
• The blood brain barrier impedes the passage into cerebral neurons of most proteins and other large molecules
• Neurons are specialized to receive, conduct, and transmit electrochemical signals
• The cone-shaped structure at the boundary between the cell body and axon of a multipolar neuron is the axon hillock
• The soma is the cell body
• Communication among mammalian neurons often occur across synapses
• Most of a neuron's DNA is in its nucleus
• Synaptic vesicles are most prevalent in the buttons
• All neurons with one axon and several dendrites emanating from the soma are multipolar
• Interneurons integrate activity within a single brain structure; they don’t conduct signals from one structure to another
• Clusters of neural cell bodies in the CNS are called nuclei
• Tracts are to nuclei as nerves are to ganglia
• Multipolar neurons have a single long process emanating from the cell body. This is an axon
• CNS is to PNS as oligodendrocytes are to Schwann cells
• In the CNS, axons are myelinated by oligodendrocytes
• Myelination increases the speed of axonal conduction
• PNS is to CNS as Schwann cells are to oligodendrocytes
• Glial cells that engulf cellular debris and trigger inflammation are microglia
• The largest glial cells are astrocytes
• The Golgi stain colors neurons black
• The best thing about the Golgi stain is that it does not stain many neurons
• The first neural stain, one which revealed the silhouette of a few neurons on a slide, is the Golgi stain
• The first neural stain that permitted neuroanatomists to view some aspects of the inner structure of a neuron was the Nissl stain
• Nissl stains (e.g., cresyl violet) are frequently used to determine the general distribution of cell bodies in the nervous system
• The fine inner details of neuron structure can be studied best by electron microscopy
• The main advantage of the scanning electron microscope over the conventional electron microscope is that it produces three-dimensional electron micrographs
• To locate the terminals of axons that project from a particular brain structure, an investigator would employ an anterograde tracing technique
• The back of your head is posterior
• The top of a dog's head is dorsal
• The tip of your nose is medial and anterior
• The nose of a rat is rostral and anterior
• The spine of a human runs just beneath the dorsal surface
• The H-shape of the spinal gray matter is most obvious in a cross section
• Gray matter of the spinal cord is largely composed of cell bodies and unmyelinated interneurons
• White matter is white because myelin is white
• In cross section, spinal gray matter has four arms; among these are the two ventral horns
• Most neurons of the dorsal root synapse in the spinal cord
• Most neurons of the ventral roots have their cell bodies in the ventral horn
• "Encephalon" means within the head
• The large lateral outgrowths that compose the telencephalon are the cerebral hemispheres
• The myelencephalon is often called the medulla
• The caudal part of the forebrain is the diencephalon
• The myelencephalon is composed largely of tracts
• The reticular formation is in the brain stem
• The inferior and superior colliculi compose the tectum
• The tectum is the roof of the mesencephalon
• The neural structure situated nearest the opening connecting the third and fourth ventricles is the periaqueductal gray
• The hypothalamus and thalamus compose the diencephalon
• The lateral geniculate, medial geniculate, and ventral posterior nuclei are all nuclei of the thalamus
• Most sensory nuclei of the thalamus project to the cortex
• The part of the diencephalon that regulates the pituitary is the hypothalamus
• The pituitary gland is situated just inferior to the hypothalamus
• If a midsagittal cut were made through the human brain, all of the uncut axons running from the eyes to the brain would be ipsilaterial
• The mammillary nuclei are visible on the inferior surface of the diencephalon and often considered to be nuclei of the hypothalamus
• All mammals with lissencephalic brains have small brains
• The large cortical ridges between fissures are called gyri
• Big is to small as fissures are to sulci
• The largest cerebral commissure is the corpus callosum
• The corpus callosum is the human brain's largest commissure
• Between the frontal and parietal lobes is the central fissure
• The lobe at the back of the brain, which serves a visual function, is the occipital lobe
• The functions of the occipital cortex are largely visual
• Precentral is to postcentral as motor is to somatosensory
• The hippocampus is shaped like a sea horse in cross section
• The limbic system and basal ganglia are, for the most part, in the telencephalon
• A neural circuit that includes the septum, cingulate cortex, fornix, amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus, and thalamus is thought to be involved in the regulation of motivated behaviors. This circuit is called the limbic system
• A major limbic system tract is the fornix
• Two parts of the limbic system are cortical structures. These two structures are the hippocampus and the cingulate
• The caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus compose the basal ganglia
• The caudate and the putamen compose the striatum
• Deterioration of the pathway from the substantia nigra to the striatum is often found in cases of Parkinson’s disease
·      ____ are multipolar cortical neurons with long axons, apical dendrites, and triangular cell bodies Pyramidal cell
·      _____ neurons have apical dendrites Pyramidal cell
• The _____ of the PNS only projects from the cranial and sacral portions of the CNS parasympathetic nervous system
• The ________ generally acts to conserve the body's energy parasympathetic nervous system
• There are _____ ventricles in the brain 4 (FOUR)
• The _____ of a neuron is sometimes myelinated axon
• The neuroanatomical direction ____ is commonly used with reference to the brains of humans or other primates, but not with reference to the brains of four-legged creatures inferior
• "Reptilian stare" is sometimes used to describe the widely opened, unblinking eyes and motionless face of Parkinson’s disease
• Dopamine is not an effective treatment for Parkinson's disease because dopamine does not readily penetrate the blood-brain barrier
• Parkinson's disease is treated with L-DOPA
• A membrane potential is the difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a cell
• In its resting state, a neuron is said to be polarized
• Salts in solution separate into positively and negatively charged ions
• There is little resistance in the resting neural membrane to the passage of Cl- ions
• Homogeneous distribution of ions in neural tissue is promoted by electrostatic pressure
• Ions pass through the neural membrane via specialized pores called ion channels
• Na+ ions are continuously forced into neurons by their high external concentration and the negative resting potential
• According to the theory of Hodgkin and Huxley, K+ ions continuously leak out of a resting neuron
• Contributing to the unequal distribution of ions on either side of a resting neural membrane are sodium-potassium pumps
• Sodium-potassium pumps are transporters
• A change in the resting potential of a dendrite from -70 mV to -72 mV is called an IPSP
• Hyperpolarization is to depolarization as inhibitory is to excitatory
• IPSP is to EPSP as hyperpolarization is to depolarization
• How far do most postsynaptic potentials travel before they die out? no more than a couple of millimeters
• Action potentials originate at the axon, adjacent to the axon hillock
• A neuron normally fires when the degree of depolarization on the axon adjacent to the hillock exceeds the threshold of activation
• APs are said to be all-or-none: This means that all APs in a particular neuron are the same
• Another word for "integration" is “summation”
• There are three kinds of spatial summation and two kinds of temporal summation
• Action potentials begin by the opening of voltage-activated sodium channels
• During an action potential, the change in membrane potential associated with the influx of sodium ions triggers the opening of potassium channels
• The end of the rising phase of an action potential occurs when the sodium channels close
• After a neuron fires, the resting potential is re-established by the random movement of ions
• The brief period of time immediately after the initiation of an action potential when it is absolutely impossible to initiate another one in the same neuron is called the absolute refractory period
• The wave of absolute refractoriness that follows an action potential keeps the action potential from spreading actively back down an axon towards the cell body
• Neurons do not normally fire more than 1,000 times per second because the absolute refractory period is typically about 1 millisecond
• The fact that the intensity of stimulation is related to the rate of neural firing is attributable to the relative refractory period
• Conduction of action potentials along an axon is nondecremental
• Active transmission is to passive transmission as APs are to EPSPs
• The conduction of an action potential along any axon is mediated by the action of voltage-activated ion channels
• Conduction of APs from the axon into the cell body and dendrites of a multipolar neuron is antidromic
• Conduction of action potentials in myelinated axons is faster than in unmyelinated axons
• In large myelinated human motor neurons, impulses travel at about 60 meters per second
• With respect to the maximum speed of axonal conduction in motor neurons, cats are to humans as 100 is to 60 meters per second
• Neurons without axons do not generate action potentials
• In neurons without axons, conduction occurs entirely in the form of graded, decrementally conducted potentials
• Axodendritic synapses always terminate on dendrites
• Neurotransmitters are often stored in vesicles
• Neurotransmitter molecules are packaged in vesicles by Golgi complexes
• Neuropeptides are synthesized in the cell body on ribosomes
• Both presynaptic facilitation and inhibition are mediated by axoaxonic synapses
• Peptide neurotransmitters (i.e., neuropeptides) are synthesized in the cell body and transported via microtubules to the buttons
• Neuropeptides are transported from the cell body to the buttons at a speed of about 40 centimeters per day
• Many buttons contain two sizes of vesicles; the larger ones typically contain neuropeptides
• Many neurons contain and release two neurotransmitters. This situation is called coexistence
• The process of neurotransmitter release is referred to as exocytosis
• The release of neurotransmitter molecules from buttons is often triggered by an influx of calcium ions
• Once released, neurotransmitter molecules typically produce signals in postsynaptic neurons by binding to postsynaptic receptors
• A ligand of acetylcholine is a substance that binds to acetylcholine
• Ionotropic receptors are linked to ligand-activated ion channels
• Metabotropic receptors are linked to signal proteins and G proteins
• When a small-molecule neurotransmitter molecule binds to an ionotropic receptor, the associated ion channel opens or closes
• In comparison to ionotropic receptors, metabotropic receptors generally produce longer lasting effects
• In comparison to metabotropic receptors, ionotropic receptors produce effects that are less diffuse; develop more rapidly
• Second messengers are formed in the postsynaptic neuron
• Autoreceptors are commonly found in presynaptic membranes
• Autoreceptors of a neuron are sensitive to the neuron's own neurotransmitter
• ______ are thought to play a role in reducing excessive neurotransmitter release Autoreceptors
• After release, most neurotransmitters are deactivated by reuptake
• After release, neurotransmitters are deactivated in the synapse by ------- and ------- reuptake and enzymatic degradation
• There is only one neurotransmitter that is known to be deactivated in the synaptic cleft by enzymatic action; this neurotransmitter is acetylcholine
• The enzyme whose function is to deactivate a specific neurotransmitter once it has been released into the synapse is acetylcholinesterase
• Recent technological developments have led to the discovery of gap junctions throughout the mammalian brain; they seem to be an integral feature of local inhibitory circuits.
• The neurotransmitter ____ is considered to be the most prevalent in the mammalian CNS GABA
• _____ is the most prevalent excitatory neurotransmitter in the mammalian CNS Glutamate
• Monoamines are divided into two groups: catecholamines and indolamines
• _____ neurotransmitters are often released from string-of-beads axons Monoamines
• In the presence of the appropriate enzyme, dopamine is converted to norepinephrine
• _____ is not found in neurons that release norepinephrine Epinephrine
• _____ are synthesized directly from tyrosine Catecholamines
• Serotonin is synthesized from tryptophan
• Adrenergic neurons release epinephrine
• Acetylcholine is created by the addition of an acetyl group to a choline molecule
• Acetylcholine is synthesized by adding an acetyl group to a choline molecule
• _____is an endocannabinoid Anandamide
• ______ neuropeptides are currently classified by most experts as neurotransmitters Close to 100
• Drugs that facilitate the activity of the synapses of a particular neurotransmitter are said to be ____ of that neurotransmitter. agonists
• Vestibular function can be assessed by assessing a patient's reaction to cold water flushed in the ear
• The ironic case of Professor P. makes the point that many research methods of biopsychology are used in clinical settings
• ______ is a contrast X-ray technique designed to locate vascular abnormalities in the brains of human patients Cerebral angiography
• A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain is usually presented as a series of eight or nine horizontal sections
• _____ is not an adaptation of X-ray photography and provides the most detailed three-dimensional view of the structure of the living human brain? MRI
• Positron emission tomography is a valuable research tool because it provides an image of brain function
• A patient is sometimes injected with radioactive 2-deoxyglucose before positron emission tomography
• The reason why radioactive 2-DG is useful for revealing the level of activity of neurons in different parts of the brain is that 2-DG is absorbed by neurons in relation to their level of activity and is not metabolized by neurons
• Functional MRI generates images of increases to areas of the brain of oxygenated blood flow
• The BOLD signal is recorded by fMRI
neuropeptides
• Cocaine and amphetamine are dopamine agonists
• Cocaine and amphetamine in high doses can produce a disorder that is similar to schizophrenia
• Many effective antischizophrenic drugs are D2 blockers
• Vestibular function can be assessed by assessing a patient's reaction to cold water flushed in the ear
• The ironic case of Professor P. makes the point that many research methods of biopsychology are used in clinical settings
• ______ is a contrast X-ray technique designed to locate vascular abnormalities in the brains of human patients Cerebral angiography
• A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain is usually presented as a series of eight or nine horizontal sections
• _____ is not an adaptation of X-ray photography and provides the most detailed three-dimensional view of the structure of the living human brain? MRI
• Positron emission tomography is a valuable research tool because it provides an image of brain function
• A patient is sometimes injected with radioactive 2-deoxyglucose before positron emission tomography
• The reason why radioactive 2-DG is useful for revealing the level of activity of neurons in different parts of the brain is that 2-DG is absorbed by neurons in relation to their level of activity and is not metabolized by neurons
• Functional MRI generates images of increases to areas of the brain of oxygenated blood flow
• The BOLD signal is recorded by fMRI
• ____ measures changes in magnetic fields on the surface of the brain MEG
• ---- is a method used by cognitive neuroscientists to turn off part of the brain while the effects on cognition and behavior are assessed TMS
• Unlike brain-imaging techniques, TMS permits the study of ______ between human cortical activity and cognition. causal relations
• An electroencephalograph is an EEG machine
• In human patients, EEG activity is commonly recorded directly from the scalp
• Alpha wave EEG activity is associated with relaxed wakefulness
• A ___________ would be most likely to study cortical ERPs in human volunteers psychophysiologist
• Signal averaging is commonly used in the recording of ERPs because it reduces the magnitude of random signals
• The main difference between an average evoked potential (AEP) and a "raw" evoked potential is that a raw evoked potential is often unobservable amidst the random noise of the ongoing EEG signal
• The P300 is an EEG wave that often occurs after the presentation of a momentary stimulus meaningful to the subject
• Components of AEPs recorded in the first few milliseconds after a stimulus are not usually influenced by the meaning of the stimulus
• Modern computer techniques have made it possible to estimate the location of the source of particular EEG signals
• Muscle tension is monitored by electromyography
• Electrooculography is a method of estimating eye movement from eye muscle activity
• Electrooculography is a technique for monitoring eye movement
• In electrooculography, _____ electrodes are typically used to monitor the movements of one eye 4 (FOUR)
• If you were startled by a loud noise, there would be an increase in your skin's conductance of electricity. This response is called a skin conductance response
• _____ directly influence the SCL and the SCR Sweat glands
• Hypertension is chronic high blood pressure
• The level of 130/70 mmHg is a healthy human blood pressure
• ______ have traditionally been used by physicians to measure blood pressure Sphygmomanometers
• Penile erection is a plethysmographic response
• The method by which the experimental devices are accurately positioned in subcortical structures is stereotaxic surgery
• The reference point for many stereotaxic atlases of the rat brain is bregma
• Unlike subcortical lesions, cortical lesions are often made by aspiration
• _____ techniques are least likely to be associated with the destruction of major blood vessels Aspiration lesion
• The ___ created by the current is the main cause of tissue damage produced be a radio-frequency lesion. heat
• Cryogenic blockade, if properly done, produces little or no permanent neural damage
• Cryogenic blockade is often referred to as a functional or reversible lesion because it temporarily eliminates the contribution of a particular area of the brain without damaging the brain
• A temporary or reversible lesion can be produced by cryogenic blockage
• Lesions restricted to structures on one half of the brain are called unilateral lesions
• Lesions restricted to structures in one half of the brain usually have effects that are much less severe than comparable bilateral lesions
• Intracellular unit recording is not commonly used in biopsychological research because it is very difficult to keep the tip of a microelectrode inside a single neuron in a moving subject
• Intracellular unit recording is very difficult in freely moving animals
• Unlike other electrophysiological methods of recording neural activity, intracellular unit recording provides measurements of the membrane potential
• In laboratory animals, cortical EEG signals are commonly recorded through stainless steel skull screws
• IP, SC, and IM are all routes of drug administration
• Drugs that don't penetrate the blood brain barrier can be administered to brain tissue through a stereotaxically positioned cerebral cannula
• The neurotoxin, 6-hydroxydopamine (6-OHDA) selectively destroys neurons that release dopamine or norepinephrine
• A method of identifying all of the brain areas of a laboratory animal that were particularly active during a behavioral test is the 2-deoxyglucose technique
• The final stage of the 2-deoxyglucose technique involves autoradiography
• A method of measuring the levels of neurochemicals in particular sites in the brains of active laboratory animals is cerebral dialysis
• Cerebral dialysis is a method of measuring changes in the extracellular concentrations of various neurochemicals at particular sites in the brains of active animals
• ______ employs labeled antibodies Immunocytochemistry
• In immunocytochemistry, the labeled ligand is an antibody
• Immunocytochemistry is to in situ hybridization as antibody is to messenger RNA
• Melanopsin knockout mice have difficulty adjusting their circadian rhythms in response to changes in daily light-dark cycle
• Transgenic mice always possess genes of another species
• The main difference between neurologists and neuropsychologists is that neuropsychologists tend to focus on the assessment of complex behavioral problems
• Before the 1950s, neuropsychological testing usually employed the single-test approach
• The primary purpose of the single-test and standardized-test-battery approaches to neuropsychological testing was to identify brain-damaged patients
• The modern customized-test-battery approach to neuropsychological testing typically begins with a battery of tests
• The ______ is a test of language ability that employs objects of two shapes, two sizes, and five different colors? token test
• The ____ subtest of the WAIS involves cartoon drawings Picture Arrangement
• The sodium amytal test and dichotic listening test are tests of language lateralization
• In the sodium amytal test, injections are sequentially made into the left and right carotid arteries
• In the conventional dichotic listening test of language lateralization, three pairs of digits are presented
• Memories that are demonstrated by improved performance in the absence of conscious awareness of the memories are called implicit memories
• Repetition priming tests are tests of implicit memories
• Brain damage may produce selective language deficits associated with the sounds, grammar, or meaning of language. In other words, they may disrupt phonology, syntax, or semantics, respectively
• Dyslexia is a difficulty in reading
• A common neuropsychological test of frontal-lobe damage is the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
• If a PET image is recorded while a subject is reading, many areas of activity on the PET image will have nothing to do with the cognitive activity of reading. That is why cognitive neuroscientists often use the paired-image sutraction technique
• A network of brain structures that tends to be active when a person sits quietly and lets her mind wander has been termed the default mode network
• In most PET and functional MRI studies of cognitive processes, the signal-to-noise ratio is increased by averaging
• The open-field test is usually conducted in a large, empty chamber
• In the open-field test, a high bolus count is frequently used as an indicator of fearfulness
• In the open-field test, thigmotaxia is often used as a measure of fearfulness
• If a rat with its hair erect, moves sideways towards another rat and then pushes against it, the first rat is likely a dominant male displaying social aggression
• In rats, "boxing" is usually a sign of defense against conspecific attack
• The elevated plus maze is commonly employed to study anxiety or defensiveness
• Normally, a male rat cannot intromit unless the female displays lordosis
• The _______ is a commonly used measure of the sexual receptivity of female rats lordosis quotient
• During conventional Pavlovian conditioning, the conditional stimulus is repeatedly presented just before the unconditional stimulus
• In operant conditioning paradigms, the rate of a voluntary response is increased by ______ and decreased by_____ reinforcement and punishment.
• The self-stimulation paradigm is an operant conditioning paradigm
• The first time a wild rat encounters a food that it has never tasted before, it usually displays neophobia
• Cancer patients sometimes develop conditioned taste aversions in response to their chemotheraphy
• The radial arm maze is commonly used to study foraging for food
• Most radial arm mazes have 8 or more arms radiating out from a central starting area
• In the typical radial arm maze, rats tend to orient themselves on the basis of external room cues
• The Morris water maze is commonly used to study spatial ability
• The typical Morris water maze is circular
• If a rat receives a single painful stimulus from a small object in a test box containing commercial bedding material, the rat will usually investigate the object and then bury it
• ______provides structural and functional information about the living human brain on the same image Functional MRI
• Prior to migraine attacks, sufferers often experience fortification illusions
• A fortification illusion often begins with a gray area of blindness near the center of the visual field
• A nanometer is a billionth of a meter
• With respect to vision, wavelength is to intensity as color is to brightness
• Light enters the human eye through an opening in the iris called the pupil
• Depth of focus is normally greater when the pupils are constricted
• _____ is accomplished by the ciliary muscles Accommodation
• Unlike most other vertebrates, primates have two eyes side by side on the front of the head
• Binocular disparity is an important depth-perception cue
• In humans, all of the visual receptors are in the last layer of the retina to be reached by light entering the eye
• The ______ is a small indentation fovea
• _______ can be found at the blind spot The axons of retinal ganglion cells
• High-acuity vision is mediated by the fovea
• The ability of a stationary eye to fill in the gap in its visual field that results from the blind spot is called completion
• The color and brightness of large unpatterned surfaces are not directly perceived; they are filled in or completed by a process called surface interpolation
• Mammals without cones tend to be nocturnal (active mainly at night)
• Color vision is mediated by the photopic system
• High-acuity vision is mediated by the photopic system
• Most of the cones are concentrated in the foveas
• There are more rods in the nasal hemiretina than in the temporal hemiretina
• The photopic spectral sensitivity curve of a person can be determined by having the person report the brightness of various wavelengths of light shone on the fovea
• The Purkinje effect refers to the fact that lights in the green-blue portion of the spectrum are brighter than equally intense lights in the yellow-red portion of the spectrum when viewed under dim illumination
• High-acuity, color vision is mediated by the small foveal area of the retina. Nevertheless, we have perceptions of the world that are expansive in both their color and their detail. This is possible because our visual systems integrate the foveal images from recent visual fixations to produce the subjective visual perception that we are experiencing at any instant
• Saccades are eye movements
• Investigators have studied the contribution of eye movements to vision by studying the effects of stabilized retinal images
• Simple images that are stabilized on the retina continually disappear and reappear
• Transduction refers to the translation of one form of energy to another
• The reaction that transduces light into an electrical signal in rods is the bleaching of rhodopsin by light
• The absorption spectrum of rhodopsin closely corresponds to the scotopic spectral sensitivity curve
• The bleaching of rhodopsin by light hyperpolarizes rods
• Another name for primary visual cortex is striate cortex
• In humans, the axons of retinal ganglion cells whose cell bodies are in the left temporal hemiretina project ipsilaterally
• Projections to the visual cortex from the lateral geniculate nuclei terminate in cortical layer IV
• The retina-geniculate-striate system is organized retinotopically
• The major distortion in the retinotopic layout of the primary visual cortex is the disproportionately high cortical representation of the fovea
• The parvocellular component of the retina-geniculate-striate system runs through the _____ layers of the lateral geniculate nuclei. top 4
• The parvocellular layers of the lateral geniculate nuclei get their name from the fact that the neurons in these layers are small
• Parvocellular is to magnocellular as small is to big
• Magnocellular neurons are particularly responsive to movement
• The parvocellular neurons are particularly responsive to color, fine detail, and stationary objects
• The perception of an edge is in effect the perception of a contrast between two adjacent areas of the visual field
• Nonexistent stripes of lightness and darkness that accentuate the perception of edges are often called Mach bands
• A compelling illustration of contrast enhancement is the Mach band demonstration
• Lateral inhibition in horseshoe crab ommatidia is mediated by the lateral neural network
• The perception of Mach bands results from lateral inhibition
• Mach bands occur because visual receptors adjacent to an edge on the more intense side receive less lateral inhibition than do receptors farther from that edge, and because visual receptors adjacent to the edge on the less intense side receive more lateral inhibition than do rece
• The receptive field of a visual neuron is the area of the visual field within which the suitable visual stimulus can influence the firing of the neuron
• Neurons with receptive fields in the fovea have particularly small receptive fields
• The receptive fields of most retinal ganglion cells are roughly round
• Neurons in lower layer IV of striate cortex are all monocular
• When a light is shone in the periphery of the receptive field of an on-center cell, there is an immediate period of inhibition and then a burst of firing when the light is turned off
• On the basis of their receptive field properties, the neurons in lower layer IV of the primary visual cortex are classified as on-center or off-center cells
• In essence, on-center and off-center cells of the retina-geniculate-striate system respond best to contrast
• In general, neurons of the retina-geniculate-striate system respond weakly to diffuse light
• Neurons of the primary visual cortex that have receptive fields that can be divided into static "on" areas and "off" areas separated by straight edges are simple cells
• Simple cells of the primary visual cortex have receptive fields with static “on” and “off” areas that are separated by a straight edge
• Complex visual cortex cells are _____ than simple cells. more numerous
• The receptive fields of complex cortical cells are ____ than those of simple cortical cells. bigger
• Unlike retinal ganglion cells, lateral geniculate cells, and simple cortical cells, over half of the complex cortical cells of monkeys are binocular
• In the monkey striate cortex, most binocular cells display ocular dominance
• In general, information in the primary visual cortex is thought to flow from lower layer IV to simple cells to complex lower.
• Primary visual cortex neurons are grouped in functional vertical columns
• Recent studies of the function of primary visual cortex neurons using natural visual scenes rather than simple artificial stimuli have discovered that visual neurons are plastic: As a background scene changes, the way that a neuron responds to elements in its receptive field changes
• The component theory and the opponent theory are theories of color vision
• Pairs of colors that produce white or gray when combined are complementary
• The color _____ does not exist. greenish red
• The trichromatic theory of color vision is the component theory
• The existence of complementary color afterimages supports the opponent-process theory
• The component theory provides the best explanation of color coding at the receptor level
• The phenomenon of color constancy makes the point that the perceived color of an object is not solely determined by the wavelengths of light that it reflects
• The main function of color constancy is to ensure that an object appears to be the same color despite changes in the wavelengths of light that it is reflecting
• Color perception would be of less survival value if the color of an object changed under different illumination
• In his compelling demonstrations of color constancy, Land showed that a particular area of a Mondrian stayed the same color even though there were major changes in the wavelengths that it was reflecting, provided that the Mondrian was illuminated by at least a low, a medium, and a high wavelength
• According to Land's retinex theory, an object's color depends on its reflectance
• According to the retinex theory, the color of an object depends on its reflectance and the proportion of light of different wavelengths that it reflects
• Somehow the visual system compares the wavelengths of light reflected by adjacent areas of a visual display, and on this basis color is perceived. The cells that appear to perform this function are dual-opponent color cells
• A peg-like, cytochrome-oxidase-rich column of dual-opponent color cells is called a blob
• Prestriate cortex and inferotemporal cortex are considered to be areas of secondary visual cortex
• Posterior parietal cortex is considered to be association cortex because it receives sensory input from the secondary areas of more than one sensory system
• Posterior parietal cortex is considered to be association cortex
• Scotomas are located by perimetry
• Many neuropsychological patients with scotomas are unaware of them because of completion
• Hemianopsic patients who focus on the tip of a person's nose sometimes_____ and _______ experience completion and report seeing the entire face
• Blindsight occurs most commonly in people with a migraine attack
• Performing visually guided tasks in the absence of conscious awareness of a visual image is called blindsight
• Current evidence suggests that some cases of blindsight may be mediated by surviving islands of primary visual cortex
• _____different specialized visual areas have been identified in the cortex of macaque monkeys About 30
• Connections between various areas of visual cortex are virtually always reciprocal
• The dorsal stream flows from primary visual cortex to prestriate cortex then to posterior parietal cortex
• According to Ungerleider and Mishkin, "where" is to "what" as dorsal stream is to ventral stream
• In contrast to the "where" vs. "what" theory, Goodale and Milner have argued that the respective functions of the dorsal and ventral streams are “control of behavior” vs. “conscious perception”
• A.T. is a woman with damage to her dorsal visual stream. She has substantial difficulty making accurate movements under visual control
• The most widely studied form of visual agnosia is prosopagnosia
• Some evidence suggests that prosopagnosia may not be specific to faces, that it may be attributable to a general inability to distinguish among similar members of complex classes of visual stimuli
• In a classic study, Tranel and Damasio found that prosopagnosics displayed appropriate galvanic skin responses to familiar faces they could not consciously recognize
• Akinetopsia is associated with damage to MT/V5
Created by: jordanraybarrett
 

 



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