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Health Differ 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The most common complication from Rheumatic fever found in adults is... | Mitral Stenosis |
| Why does the nurse give Cardizem to a patient who is in a flutter? | Calcium channel blocker, decreases mycardioal contractility and work load, reduces oxygen demand |
| Anticoagulants are often administered to a pt after surgery with PVD to... | prevent further clot formation |
| A common abnormality associated with the development of PVD is... | high serum lipids |
| What assessment finding would indicate thrombophelbitis of the patient's lower extremity? | detection of an S3 |
| In AMI CK-MB levels peak at | 12-18 hours |
| The diffuse chest pain that occurs when myocardial oxygen demands exceeds the supply of oxygen is called | angina pectoris |
| The main purpose of an inotropic (Digoxin) drug is to: | Increase contractility |
| One mechanism that is responsible for blood pressure elevation is: | Impaired renal control with release of renin |
| Which dysrhythmia is commonly associated with mitral stenosis? | Atrial fibrillation |
| A patient complains of left calf pain after walking around the block. The pain is immediately relieved when the patient sits down. The nurse analyzes this as: | Intermittent Claudication |
| Under what circumstances is the administration of a nonselective beta-blocker such as propranolol (Inderal) to a hypertensive patient contraindicated? | A pt who has COPD |
| Which manifestations are associated with severe aortic stenosis? | Extreme chest pain, Dyspnea, exertional angina, and syncope |
| Which side effects are associated with vasodilator drug therapy? | Lightheadedness, palpitations, or feeling faint |
| Which finding in an elderly individual should be immediately reported to the physician? | detection of an S3 |
| Which organs are most adversely affected when heart failure occurs? | liver and kidneys |
| The body attempts to compensate for heart failure by: | Increasing heart rate and dilating ventricular chambers |
| Which finding indicates that intraaortic balloon counterpulsation is effective? | Skin warm and dry, alert sensorium |
| Patients with tricuspid or pulmonary valve disorders differ from patients with other valvular defects in that they do not experience: | Dyspnea or pulmonary problems |
| Prior to discharge, the patient who has undergone treatment for infective endocarditis is taught to: | Daily wts |
| Which objective finding strongly supports the presence of acute pericarditis? | Pericardial friction rub |
| Cardiac output calculation... | SV x HR |
| Troponin 1 level rises ___ hours after myodcardial damage and stays elevated for ____ days. | 3 hours 7 days |
| CK increases begins ___-____ hours after MI, peaks in ____-____ hours and returns to normal by ___ days. | increases in 3-9 hours peaks in 12-18 hours Normal by 3 days |
| CKMB will drop after ____ hours | 12 hours |
| What blood test is the early marker for cardiac injury -- increasing within 1 hour of the cardiac injury? | Myoglobin |
| What wave on the EKG shows depolarization of the atria? | P wave |
| If a U wave is present it is indicative of | electrolyte imbalance |
| What wave shows depolarization of the ventricles? | QRS complex |
| What wave is produced when the ventricles repolarize? | T wave |
| What produces the heart sounds? | Closing of the heart valves |
| What happens when the ventricles constrict? | bicuspid and tricuspid valve close --> lupp |
| What happens when the ventricles relax? | aortic and pulmonic valves close --> dupp |
| Amount of blood ejected per min. from left ventricle | cardiac output |
| amount of blood ejected by the left vent. into the aorta per beat | stroke volume |
| calculation for stroke volume | SV = EDV - ESV stroke volume = End of diastolic volume - end of systolic volume |
| volume of blood distending the ventricles at the of diastole | preload |
| tension developed by the left ventricle during contraction in response to arterial pressure and ventricular size | after load |
| What does right sided cath evaluate? | CHD and valvular DO |
| What does left sided heart cath evaluate? | pressure of left side of heart, valvular competency, left atrial function |
| What change occur on a EKG due to MI? | ST segment depressed or elevated, q wave change permanent, T wave inversion |
| What can happen if catapress is discontinued suddenly? | rebound htn |
| Catapress is a _______ acting alpha blocker. | central |
| Why are alpha adrenergic blockers (Cardura, Minipress/Prazosin, Hytrin) given first at HS? | syncope |
| Why can Nifedipine not be used in hypertensive crisis? | severe adverse risk of causing ischemia |
| What drug is used in a hypertensive crisis? | Nitroprusside |
| What is are some SE of Nitroprusside? | severe hypotension, potassium depletion |
| What are the side effects of direct acting vasodilators? (Hydralazine/ apresoline, minoxidil) | increase NA and fluid retention, reflex tachycardia, nasal congestion and teraing, constipation |
| Vasospastic DO -- intermittent vasospasmas of the arteries in the fingers and toes | Raynaud's Syndrome |
| What medications are used for Raynaud's Syndrome? | Long acting Ca channel blockers, NTG, ASA |
| What is the antidote for heparin? | Protamine sulfate |
| similar to plasma and moves freely from the intravascular space into the tissue | Cystalloid flds |
| Examples of cystalloid flds | LR, NS, 1/2 NS, D5W |
| Contains ptns that give a higher osmotic pressure nd attract fld form the tissues into the vascular space | Colloid |
| What is an example of a colloid solution? | 5-25% salt poor albumin and plasma |
| Use beta blockers cautiously with pts that have _______ | asthma |
| check pulse prior to administration of | beta blockers / dig |
| Evaluation of alternative and complementary therapies is difficult because: | Clinical trials are not conduced for these therapies |
| Homeopathy is based on the "similar principle" that treatment of the specific disease involves: | giving dilute doses of the substance that causes the disease |
| What fxn does hgb serve in the body? | carries oxygen and CO2 to and from cells |
| The QRS complex which phase of the cardiac cycle? | systolic |
| Which mechanism must be properly functioning to for cardiac cells to respond to a cardiac impulse? | sodium potassium pump |
| Pacemaker cells in the myocardium are unique because they posses the property of: | automaticity |
| The main purpose of an inotropic drug (digoxin) is to | increase contractility |
| Isolating components of an herb leads to more reliable dosing and results in which of the following forms? | Extract |
| Which of the following herbs does not decrease platelet aggregation? | goldenseal |
| Which drug will the nurse prepare to give to the patient with hemophilia who is experiencing uncontrolled nasal bleeding? | Cryoprecipitate |
| A patient who has exertional dyspnea is fatigued, has a yellow skin color, and is experiencing which other problem? | hemolytic anemia |
| Which clinical manifestations are likely to be observed when assessing the patient with iron deficiency anemia? | Brittle nails; smooth, shiny tongue; and cheilosis |
| Which of the follow statements is true about saw palmetto? | it has antiandrogenic properties |
| Patients are at increased risk for anemia if they cannot produce: | erythropoietin |
| Which laboratory data support the presence of aplastic anemia? | Reduced RBCs, reduced WBCs, and reduced platelets |
| When teaching about the pain associated with sickle cell crisis, it is correct to explain that the pain occurs from: | Occlusion of arteries by sickled cells |
| Which is the correct sequence for coagulation following trauma or surgery? | Prothrombin, thrombin, fibrinogen, fibrin |
| Herb that can be used as a laxative | aloe |
| herbs may lower seizure threshold if taken with anticonvulsants? | evening primrose |
| Electrolytes imbalances of loop diuretics are... | low potassium, low calcium, low sodium, low magnesium |
| The acid base imbalance that can occur with loop diuretics is...h | hypochloremic metabolic alkosis |
| What juice is contraindicated when taking calcium channel blockers? | grape fruit |
| A common side effect of ARBs | dizziness |
| IV t-PA is a... | thrombolytic |
| Antidote for digoxin | digibind |
| African Americans do not respond to ACE inhibitors due to... | low renin hypertensive response |
| Direct-acting arterial vasodilators are potent antihypertensive drugs. The vasodilator effect decreases blood pressure, and peripheral edema may occur because of: | NA and H2O retention |
| Angiotensin II receptor antagonists (A-II blockers) are similar to ACE inhibitors, but differ by: | blocking the angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor |
| A client is ordered to receive propranolol (Inderal) for a blood pressure value of 140/90. The nurse is aware that propranolol is a: | nonselective betablocker |
| The herbs that interfere with platelet aggregation are | garlic and ginko |
| The action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is to: | inhibit the formation of angiotensin II |
| The nurse is aware that when a thrombolytic is administered, the thrombus should disintegrate within: | 6 hours |
| Surgical closure of the ductus arteriosa... | prevents oxygenated blood from going back into the lungs |
| The American Heart Association and the American College of Cardiology have classified heart failure into four stages. The patient with shortness of breath and fatigue is at which of these four stages? | 3rd stage |
| The adrenergic receptor that causes the greatest increase in blood pressure is: | alpha 1 |
| The mixed-acting sympathomimetics act by: | stimulating the adrenergic receptor sites and stimulating the release of norepinephrine |
| Another name for sympatholytics is: | adrenergic blockers |
| A client takes digoxin and furosemide (Lasix), a potassium-wasting diuretic, for peripheral edema resulting from CHF. Hypokalemia, caused by furosemide, has what effect on digoxin? | Increases the action of digoxin |
| Which of the following defects results in increased pulmonary blood flow? | ASD and VSD |
| The general sympathetic responses to adrenergic drugs include: | increasing heart rate and constricting blood vessels |
| During the process of ventilation air enters the lungs when... | intrathoacic pressure is less than atmospheric pressure |
| Alveoli are most like to collapse (resulting in atelectasis) under what condition... | decreased surfactant |
| Decreased lung compliance means that lungs have a difficulty time inflating because... | they are stiff |
| In a pt who has a solid tumor or lung consoladation from pneumonia the nurse expects to find... | increased fermitus |
| Best analgesic of choice for a pt with pneumonia c/o pleurtic pain | codeine |
| For the first few days after sinus surgery the pt can anticipate | tarry stools |
| It is essential to assess patients for which complication if they develop cough and progressive dyspnea following lung transplantation? | obliterative bronchiolitis |
| Nursing notes state that the patient’s respirations are deep, regular, and occurring at a rate of 28 per minute. This pattern of respiration is known as: | hyperpnea |
| To maintain a patent airway postthoracotomy, the patient should be taught to: | Cough until congestion clears every hour for 24 hours |
| An alkaline pH of the sputum indicates | blood in the sputum |
| An acidic ph of the sputum indicates | hematemis |
| How does the nurse know that the SQ administration of G-CSF was effective? | increase in neutropils |
| The airway has been sufficiently sealed after inflating a traceostomy cuff when... | auscultation finds gurgling during ventilation Chover the trachea |
| Chemotheraputic agents classified as cycle cell nonspecific work by destroying... | Tumor cells through out the cell cycle |
| Person's with B cell def have a reduced # of... | circulating antibodies |
| Best position to administer nose drops | supine with pillow under shoulders and head tipped back |
| Which signs and symptoms are consistent with an acute, grade 3 radiation reaction of the skin? | Moist desquamation, pitting edema |
| A tumor marker commonly present in lung cancer is: | A) Carcinoembryonic antigen |
| malignant neoplasms differ from benign tumors in that they: | Infiltrate surrounding tissues |
| Which vital sign must the nurse monitor while giving Interferon? | Blood pressure |
| The cystostomy tube facilitates: | Drainage of the bladder directly through a suprapubic incision |
| Small, frequent voiding patterns generally indicate: | Retention with overflow |
| Why are patients with urinary diversions at greater risk for the development of UTIs? | The distance from the pouch to the kidney is shorter |
| Which warning is given to patients undergoing segmental bladder resection for bladder tumors? | They may need to void as often as every 20 minutes initially |
| A malignancy identified as a carcinoma originates from: | epithelial lining |
| malignant tumor of epithelial cells | carcinoma |
| malignant tumor of connective tissue | sarcoma |
| Identified with the prefix adeno | grandular epithelium |
| Which problem occurs in patients with acute pancreatitis but does not occur in patients with chronic pancreatitis | Ascites |
| Which is the drug of choice for pain control for the patient with pancreatitis? | Meperidine hydrochloride |
| In addition to gastric distress, flatus, and nausea, which other symptoms are associated with gastric cancer? | Gastric pain and cachexia |
| Two days after intracranial surgery to remove a tumor, a patient’s urine output drops to 150 ml/day. The patient’s urine specific gravity is 1.032, serum sodium level is 129 mEq/L, and osmolarity is low. These findings are consistent with: | Syndrome of inappropriate release of antidiuretic hormone |
| Which is a specific manifestation of carcinoma of the gallbladder? | It causes few symptoms referable to the gallbladder |
| Most commonly, obstructions occur in the: | Small intestine |
| Patients going home after biliary surgery are taught to report: | Pain recurring within 24 hours |
| Which laboratory finding is associated with cholecystitis? | Decreased serum potassium |
| Which is a sign of early bowel obstruction? | Vomitus with fecal odor |
| Which of the following is considered a “mechanical” obstruction? | Intussusception |
| After cardipulmonary bypass, the side effect from use of the bypass machine that causes the most concern is... | damage to major organs (other problems: low HCT, low SBP, low perfusion to body's organs) |
| The drug of choice for angina pectoris... | NTG |
| Which assessment findings would indicate thrombophlebitis of the patient's lower extremity? | skin warm, aching pain |
| Why id diltiazem HCL (Cardizem ) given to a pt with rapid afib? | Decreases myocardial contractility and work load / calcium channel blocker and reduces oxygen demand |
| Vascular changes occurring with HTN can be directly observed in what part of the body? | neck |
| In acute but contained blood loss the transfusion therapy usually indicated is: | Packed red cells |
| The clinical symptoms of polycythemia are caused by: | increased blood viscosity |
| What is a common sequela of disseminated intravascular coagulation? (DIC) | hemorrhage |
| What is the normal prothrombin time for a pt on Coumadin? | 11-15 seconds |
| What type of exercises are used for pts with advanced arterial occlusive dz? | Buerger-Allen |
| What is the mechanism of action for these drugs: Alkylating agents, Antitumor antibiotics, Hormones | Cell-cycle nonspecific |
| What is the mechanism of action for these drugs: Antimetabolites and Mitotic inhibitors | Cell specific |
| A client is scheduled to receive doxorubicin (Adriamycin) as part of his treatment for cancer. You note in his medical record that he is taking a calcium channel blocker (e.g., verapamil). As the nurse you will monitor closely the client because: | calcium channel blockers increase the risk of cardiac toxicity |
| ˜Your client is scheduled to receive fluorouracil (5-FU) to treat colon cancer. Which of the following statements made by your client indicates a need for additional teaching about 5-FU? | “I should examine my mouth occasionally for soreness or ulceration.” |
| Dumping syndrome after gastric surgery: | Is caused by rapid emptying of hypertonic chyme into the jejunum |
| A positive Murphy’s sign exists when the patient’s: | Pain increases and temporary inspiratory arrest occurs |
| Which are known risk factors for developing colorectal cancer? | Genetic predisposition and environment |
| The statement “the gallbladder is enlarged and tense, with necrotic walls” best describes: | Acute cholecystitis |
| A patient has a permanent demand pacemaker. Which finding should the nurse report immediately? | slows suddenly |
| Why should the nurse plan to maintain a preschooler who is in sickle cell crisis on bed rest? | to minimize oxygen consumption |
| A patient who exhibits ventricular asystole on the cardiac monitor will usually be given which medication? | epinephrine |
| The nurse is assessing a pt with a tension pneumothorax. What data indicates the need for emergency measures? | profuse diaphroesis (other characteristics are hypotension, tachycardia, air hunger, cyanosis) |
| What is an indicator of an untreated basal cell carcinoma? | invasion and erosion of adjoining tissue |
| CCS (Cell Cycle Specific) agents are most effective against... | rapidly growing cancer cells |
| A pt is to receive 3 different anticancer drugs to treat his cancer. Why does he need combination chemo? | Increases tumor cell kill |
| Pt is scheduled to receive chemo durgs that will cuase myelosuppression. What is the most important intervention for this pt? | montior for a change in temperature |
| Your client has low platelet counts secondary to admin of chemo. What is the most important nursing action? | assess for occult bleeding; apply pressure to injection sites |
| What information would be important for a pt taking Cytoxan? | drink 2 to 3 L of fluid a day |
| Produced in teh laboratory and desgined to recognize and bind to specific antigens expressed on the surface of cancer cells | monoclonal antibodies (MoAbs, mAbs) |
| work by blockign the grwoth of the tumor and / or alertying teh body's immune system to attack the cancer cell | monclonal antibodies (MoAbs, mAbs) |
| Pt is receiving gefitnib(Iressa). Which medciaitons decrease teh rate of drug metabolism, resulting the potential for increased toxicity? | ketoconazole |
| Common side effect of gefitinib... | hypertension |
| Standard tx for TSS -- (ABX of choice) | naficillin |
| Which type of testicular neoplasm responds best to radiotherapy? | stage one seminoma |
| Nonseminous neoplasm are __________ resistant. | radio |
| Tamoxifen works by... | keeping the tumor from growing by blocking estrogen sites |
| A client is on G-CSF, or filgrastim (Neupogen). Which of the following nursing interventions is indicated for the most common side effect of this medication? | Nonnarcotic analgesia and comfort measures for pain |
| A client demonstrates an ANC (absolute neutrophil count) of zero. Which of the following nursing interventions is warranted? | Maintain protective isolation |
| A chemotherapy agent is effective in the G0 stage. This is known as the: | A) resting phase |
| A client is ordered to receive chemotherapy. The nurse is aware that the tumors that respond best to anticancer drugs are those with: | high growth fraction |
| A client is ordered to receive interferon-alpha. The nurse counsels the client that the major side effect of interferon-alpha is: | flulike syndrome |
| client is ordered to receiving an angiogenesis inhibitor call bevacizumab (Avastin). The nurse instructs the client that the function of this medication is to: | prevent blood vessel growth in cancer tumors |
| A client is to receive filgrastim (Neupogen) as a granulocyte-stimulating factor. This medication should not be given: | within 24 hours of cytotoxic agents. |
| A client is ordered to receive cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). The client is advised to drink increased water and fluids to: | prevent hemorrhagic cystitis |
| Estrogen therapy is treatment for progressive prostatic cancer and breast cancer (postmenopausal women). The nurse administers the estrogen, with the awareness that the proposed action of estrogen is to: | suppress tumor growth |
| A nurse teaching a client is evaluating the client’s knowledge of his medications. The nurse confirms that the client understands the function of oprelvekin (Neumega) if he states: | it prevents severe thrombocytopenia. |
| Growth fraction plays a major role in the cancer cell response. Growth fraction means: | percentage of the cancer cells actively dividing |
| A client is to receive oprelvekin (Neumega). One of the chief side effects of this medication is fluid retention. Which of the following assessments would confirm this condition? | Peripheral edema and exertional dyspnea |
| The first sign of pulmonary edema is: | pallor and restlessness |
| Results from severe ventricular failure and causes blood tinged sputum.. | Pulmonary Edema |
| Gas exchange within the pulmonary system from teh blood occurs through... | diffusion |
| In normal respiratory function, the major stimulus for control of ventilation is an: | increase in levels of CO2 |
| Hypoventlation will cause which conditions? | atelectasis, pneumonia, respiratory acidosis |
| Which assessment date determines the need for suctioning of a patient's tracheostomy tube? | noisy respirations, increased pulse,increased respiratory rate |
| When suctioning the respiratory tract, teh nurse should limit suctioning to periods of no more than: | 10 seconds |
| Paradoxical respiratory movement, severe chest pain, and tachypnea with shallow respirations are signs of: | flail chest |
| When a pneumothorax occurs, the lung collapse is related to: | increased intrapleural pressure |
| The most significant signs of pleural effusion are: | sharp pain on inspiration |
| When a chest tube is necessary and connected to water sealed drainage, the purpose is to restore which pressure in the pleural space? | negative pressure |
| In a "three-bottle" / 3 chamber closed - chest drainage system, which of actions is appropriate if the water seal bottle breaks? | clamp the chest catheter until reconnected to a new sterile chamber /system |
| In partially compensated respiratory acidiosis, it can be expected that the: | pH will be decreased or near normal, pCO2 will be increased, and HCO3 will be increased |
| Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning occurs because: | CO overwhelms oxygen transport |
| Reed-Sternberg cells is characteristic of... | Hodgkin Disease |
| An alteration in adult cells characterized by changes in the size, shape, and organization is called | dysplasia |
| Benign (nonmalignant tumors) may cuse harm through: | pressure on vital organs |
| Benign tumors are characterized by... | cells similar to cells of the parent tissue, enclosed by a fibrous capsule, rarely recur after removal |
| At what age shoud men start getting PSA? | yearly over 50 |
| Alkylating agents are chemotherapy drugs taht act by: | preventing DNA replication |
| When Cytoxan is used as a chemotherapeutic agent, the first toxic effect(s) the nurse is most likely to observe is: | nausea, vomiting, diarrhea |
| Anemia, petechiae, and ecchymosis, are side effects of chemotherapy due to: | bone marrow suppression |
| Interferon works best | inconjunction with other cancer therapies |
| The parts of the body that are most sensitive to side effects of chemotherapy are: | bone marrow, GI tract, and hair follicles |
| TPN is given IV to maintain ptn systhesis when: | additional nutrients to enteral feedings are required |
| Adenocarcinomas are related to | smoking |
| Ability to modify the body's response to cancer or cancer therapy | biotherapy |
| produced by leukocytes in resonse to viral infections or other stimuli | Interferons |
| Interferons can best hlep patietns whose immune system has not been previously weakened by chemotherapy and radiation by: | activating natural killer cells, working synergistically with certain cancer drugs and radiation |
| Side effects of biotherapy: | fever, chills, malaise HA and rigors anxiety / depression |
| The major immunosuppressive drugs, given to prevent rejection of transplanted organs | prednisone, Imuran, Cyclosporine |
| Which type of lung cancer responds best to cytotoxic chemotherapy? | small cell lung cancer |
| What lab reort would the nurse be monitoring to assess the therapeutic resonse to Neupogen? | WBC |
| The drug that will most likely be used to treat prostate cancer | Lupron |
| Abalative surgery may be performed for a pt with prostate cancer: | to remove excess tissue that may worsen the patient's condition |
| Pt's taking steroids for cancer should be advised to decrease what in their diets? | Sodium |
| The nurse would expect to find a diminished pCO2 level in the assigned client who has which of the following physical findings? | Hyperventilation |
| Hypercalcemia caused by bone destruction is a priority concern in the client with _________ | multiple myeloma |
| The nurse is developing a plan of care for the client with multiple myeloma and includes which priority intervention in the plan? | Encouraging fluids |
| A child with lymphoma is receiving extensive radiation therapy. Which of the following is the most common side effect of this treatment? | Fatigue |
| A client's white blood cell count differential shows a "shift to the left." The nurse recognizes that the client needs to be examined for what type of infection? | Bacterial |
| Cancer cachexia is characterized by a decreased albumin level (< 3 g/dl) which indicates | protein loss, increased protein breakdown and a reduction of protein stores despite a normal protein intake. |
| An anaplastic cell is best described as | a cell that has undergone an irreversible change |
| How should the nurse differentiate left and right heart failure? The client would: | Present with dyspnea and crackles bilaterally with left heart failure. |
| If an aortic aneurysm ruptures, the patient develops... | severe pain, signs of shock (increased pulse, decreased blood pressure), decreased red blood cell count, and increased white blood cell count. |
| A double contrast barium enema is used as a diagnostic tool in which cancer condition? | Colon cancer |
| Stage ____ hypertension is characterized by systolic blood pressure readings of 140 to 159 mm Hg and diastolic readings of 90 to 99 mm Hg. | one |
| Continual use of ACE inhibitors can cause: | hyperkalemia |
| A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) not found with enteral feelings is: | vascular occlusion. |
| The nurse understands that phosphorus levels may be abnormal in the client with which of the following conditions? | Impaired renal function |
| Which risk factor is most commonly associated with the development of stomach cancer? | Diet high in smoked and preserved food |
| A chest tube is in place following a thoracotomy. Which finding should the nurse report to the physician? | Leakage of bright red blood through the dressing |
| Mohs micrographic surgery is done to: | Excise Squamous cell carcinomas |
| In a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), the nurse should monitor for high white blood cell counts caused by the complications associated with leukostasis. The most common and most lethal complication of leukostasis is: | Intracerebral hemorrhage. |
| The nurse should question an order for which beta agonist used to treat respiratory disease in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation accompanied by intermittent heart rates of 100/min or greater? | Isoproterenol (Isuprel) |
| A client receives hydromorphone (Dilaudid) following an operative procedure. The nurse assesses the client's urine output in order to monitor for which of the following side effects of this medication? | Orthostatic hypotension |
| Which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor for when developing a plan of care for a client with hypernatremia? | Complaints of thirst |
| A client has a phosphorus level of 5.3 mg/dl. The nurse plans to closely monitor the client for: | Signs of tetany. |
| An African-American’s hypertension can initially be controlled with: | a diuretic. |
| A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma and the client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which description of this disorder? | Malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone |
| A client's medical record indicates that a client has a positive Philadelphia chromosome. The nurse plans care for which of the following disorders? | Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) |
| Administration of corticosteroids such as fluticasone suppresses the immune system and the administration of these drugs is contraindicated in clients with | suppressed immune systems (as in AIDS). |
| The child's hemoglobin is 8 grams/dL and hematocrit is 23%. A blood transfusion is ordered. While assisting with care of this child during the transfusion, the nurse's priority Data Collection | Pulse rate. |
| The primary purpose of the inflatable cuff of a tracheostomy tube is to: | Prevent aspiration of mucoid secretions |
| What are the main sites for osteogenic sarcoma? | Humerus, femur, and tibia |
| What is the common site of metasis in osteogenic sarcoma? | lungs |
| A pt with cancer wants to know the fxn of interleukin 2. What should the nurse say? | It strengthens the immune response |
| Cancer cells cause metastasis by | cancer cells entering blood vessels and going to other parts of the body |
| Neuropathy and alopecia are expected side effects of | vincristine chemotherapy |
| Nausea, vomiting, and hemorrhagic cystitis are common side effects of | alkalating agents like cisplatin |
| What is an appropriate intervention for for a pt with lung cancer who develops superior vena cava syndrome? | Monitor neurological status |
| Contains wide and bizarre QRS complexes and sometimes no pulse | v tach |
| What intervention is appropriate for a client with multiple myloma? | prepare for hemodialysis |
| What lab test is ordered to evaluate the effectiveness of a transfusion? | Coagulation times (platelets) |
| Cigarette smoking increases the risk for forming a clot by causing... | platelet aggregation |
| Inderal may cause | insomnia |
| Crackles, dyspnea, and pulmonary edema are associated with | left sided heart failure |
| Dependent edema is associated with | right sided heart failure |
| What is an early sign of CHF in an infant? | tachycardia |
| What is the purpose of pursed lip breathing? | prolongs exhalation and increase airway pressure during exhalation |
| Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates a | the possibility of an air leak |
| Classic sign is knife like chest pain | pleurisy |
| Which nursing intervention can most help a client control anxiety? | relaxation therapy |
| Which assessment is most indicative of cardiac tamponade in the client who has had cardiac surgery? | cessation of chest tube drainage |
| Asthma is associated with airway obstruction caused by which physiological factor? | swelling of the bronchial lining and filling of the bronchi with mucus |
| What are the signs of a pneumothorax? | air hunger and agitation |
| What is the expected outcome of administering cromolyn sodium (Intal)to a pt with asthma? | to prevent the allergic reaction |
| Which type of vent support prevents aveloar collapse? | positive end expiratory pressure |
Created by:
smcook