click below
click below
Normal Size Small Size show me how
TEST 1 MLT1525
TEST 1: Chapter 16, 1, 2, and 3
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Biosafety levels determine the degree of _____ for certain areas of a health care facility to expose to _____ _____. | risk, infectious diseases |
| The flash point of a liquid may be defined as the _____ at which an adequate amount of ____ is produced, forming an _____ _____ with air at the liquid's surface. | temperature, vapor, ignitable mixture, |
| _____ _____ should be performed by all personnel who routinely perform the procedure. | Proficiency testing |
| The technical manual often used for principal guidlines in the blood bank is a publication of _____. | AABB |
| _____ _____ is the policy of treating all body substances as potentially harmful, regardless of the patient diagnosis. | Universal precautions |
| Ultimately the responsibility for safety on the laboratory belongs to: a. CDC b. the employer or laboratory director c. OSHA d. the employee | b. |
| Using US mail for sending diagnostic specimens requires meeting specifications of the: a. USPS for all specimens b. DOT for all specimens c. USPS for HIV- and HBV- positive specimens only d. DOT for HIV- and HBV- positive specimens only | a. |
| Clsses of med waste as stipultd by the EPA inclde: a.micro & path lab waste, blood spcmns & prodcts & lab gowns & coats b.all blood specmns & prdcts, soiled lab gowns & coats, & tissues c.micro & path lab waste, blood spcmns & prdcts, & all sharps | c. |
| The Technical Manual often used for principal guidlines in the blood bank is publication of: a. CAP b. TJC c. AABB d. OSHA | c. |
| All blood banks as mandated by law must have a: a. water fountain b. written laboratory safety program c. BSL d. foot-operated hand wash | b. |
| Googles, face shields & splash barriers are: a. PPE b. not necessary unless working with HIV- or HBV- positive specimens c. mandated at all times when working with blood specimens and blood products d. provided by the employee if needed | a. |
| Laboratory work in a BSL 1, as defined by the PHS, includes: a. the preparation of a 0.9% sodium chloride solution b. aliquoting patient plasma or serum c. antibody testing by immediate spin d. anti-D rapid test tubes | a. |
| The policy of treating all body substances as potentially harmful, regardless of the patient diagnosis, is known as the: a. OSHA exposure program b. isolation guidlines c. AABB safety policy d. universal precautions | d. |
| The most effective defense for infection control and safety is wearing gloves and: a. goggles b. laboratory coats c. posting warning signs d. handwashing | d. |
| One of the most economical and easy disinfectants to use is a: a. 1:10 fresh solution of sodium hypochlorite (bleach) b. 1:5 solution of household lysol c. 1:15 solution of sodium hydrooxide d. detergent and water mixture | a. |
| A substance that can cause visable destruction or irreversible alteration in human tissues at the site of the contact is: a. corrosive b. ignitable c. toxic d. reactive | a. |
| The reporting of an accident or injury should occur when any: a. injury may result in a fatality b. injury involves possible infection with HIV or HBV c. accident involves nonemployees or jeopardizes a patient d. accident or injury occurs | d. |
| One of the best ways to protect employees and keep a safe laboratory environment is to provide employees with: a. health insurance b. safety education c. rest breaks d. fluid-repellent laboratory coats | b. |
| All employees whose tasks carry risk of infectious exposure are required to participate in the blood bank safety program yearly as a condition of: a. the AABB b. OSHA c. CAP d. the FDA | b. |
| OSHA rqrs emplyers to prvde all emplyees w/ the fllwng fndmntl knwldge excpt: a.expsr ctrl plan for HIV/HBV expsre b.access to med recrds whn there's a ptntial expsre to HIV/HBV c.exrcsng the rht to know act on emplyees med rcds d.PPE to use all prcdr | c. |
| _____ bound to _____ is responsible for the activation of the classical pathway of complement. | antibody, antigen |
| Antibodies that react at 37C are considered the ____ _____ clinically. | most dangerous |
| In a gel test, a well delineated pellet at the bottom of the microtube is _____. | negative |
| The initial response to a foreign antigen is known as the _____ _____. | primary response |
| The primary response usually takes _____ days to occur. | 7-14 |
| If a mother passes an antibody to her fetus through the placenta, the fetus is said to have ____ ____ passive immunity. | naturally acquired |
| ____ immunoglobin class is primary associated with ABO antibodies. | IgM |
| ______ is an example of innate immunity. | phagocytosis |
| _____ are involved in aquired immunity. | lymphocytes |
| Contains 10 antigen-binding sites: a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM | c. IgM |
| Produced early in an immune response: a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM | c. IgM |
| Found in mucosal linings: a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM | a. IgA |
| Able to cross the placenta: a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM | b. IgG |
| Highest plasma-serum concentration: a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM | b. IgG |
| Pentameter shape: a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM | c. IgM |
| Activates the complement cascade most efficiently: a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM | c. IgM |
| Select the blood group antibody that loses reactivity with ficin-treated panel cells: a. anti-D b. anti-B c. anti-K d. anti-M | d. anti-M |
| How does ficin enhance the antigen-antibody complex formation? a.by remving negative charges from the red cell mmbrn b.by reducing the ionic strngth of the test envrnmnt c.by forming a bridge btwn sensitized red cell d.by rdcing the pH of test envrnmn | a. by removing negative charges from the red cell membrane |
| How does PEG enhance the agglutination reaction? a.it increases the dielectric constant of the medium b.it reduces the net negative charge on the red cells c.it concentrates the antibodies in the test environments d.it redces the pH of the test enviro | c.it concentrates the antibodies in the test environments |
| Select the antibody-potentiating reagent that functions by increasing the rate of antibody uptake: a.LISS b.saline c.PEG d.ficin | a.LISS |
| The IAT requires incubation at 37C, what is the purpose of this step? a.allow time for IgM antibodies to attach to antigens on the red cells b.allow time for IgG antibodies to attach to antigens on the red cells c.allow time for antiglobulin reagent to | b.to allow time for IgG antibodies to attach to antigens on the red cells |
| Why are patient red cells washed before the addition of AHG reagents in the DAT? a.to remove traces of bacterial proteins b.to wash away traces of free hemoglobin c.to expose additional antigen sites d.to remove unbound serum proteins | d.to remove unbound serum proteins |
| Complement activation can result in: a.cell lysis b.enhanced cell clearance c.neutrophil activation d.generation of vasoactive amines e.all of the above | e.all of the above |
| Which of the following is an example of innate immunity? a.phagocytosis b.graft rejection c.allergic reaction d.antibody production | a.phagocytosis |
| Agglutination reactions characterized by many small agglutinates in a background of free cells would be graded in tube testing as: a.1+ b.2+ c.3+ d.4+ | a.1+ |
| An epitope is also termed a(n): a.binding site b.allotype c.antigenic determinant d.immunogen | c.antigenic determinant |
| Molecules that bind to an antigen to increase phagocytosis are: a.opsonins b.cytokines c.haptens d.isotypes | a.opsonins |
| Hemagglutination can be enhanced by increasing: a.the temperature above 37C b.the incubation time c.antigen concentrations d.pH above 7 | b.the incubation time |