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RHIA Exam Prep
AHIMA RHIA exam
Question | Answer |
---|---|
Permission granted by the government to operate a facility or practice health care profession | Licensure |
QI | Quality Improvement |
Publishes Coding Clinics | American Hospital Association |
Responsible for hospital overall financial plan and accounting practice Publishes the CPT coding Manuals | CFO |
Hospital Insurance part of Medicare | Part A |
Hospital are considered __________ care | acute |
State and federally funded health benefits for the low income. | Medicaid |
Addressed issues of insurance portability and also security of health information | HIPAA Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 |
3 Level of care in nursing facilities | skilled, intermediate, subacute |
CCA | Certified Coding Associate |
Agency that administers the Medicare program | CMS (know what this stands for ) |
Voluntary process of meeting standards set forth by an association or agency. | Accreditation (Joint Commission is the most common voluntary accreditation in health care) |
UR | Utilization Review |
Process of determining the appropriateness of care | Utilization Review |
Established Medicare and Medicaid | Public Law 89-97 of 1965 (amendment to the Social Security Act) |
Established Social Security | Social Security Act of 1935 |
RM | risk management |
outpatient care such as emergency visit, outpatient surgery, physician office visit is also called..... | Ambulatory care |
Physicians that practice at the hospital comprise the ______ | Medical Staff |
Provided funding for construction of hospitals | Hill-Burton Act |
Second highest management position in a hospital. | COO (Chief Operating officer) |
Reviews the quality of services provided by the hospital. | quality improvement |
Range of health care services provided to a patient | continuum of care |
# of CE hours required for RHIA | 30 every 2 years |
Which is not considered an Allied Health profession? nursing respiratory laboratory HIM medical staff | nursing & medical staff |
Process of identifying potential causes of liability | Risk Management |
President of the hospital responsible for day to day operations | CEO |
Hospital department where the medical record begins | admitting or registration |
Administrator responsible for the overall information technology and process in a hospital? | CIO |
Medical Insurance part of Medicare | Part B |
what term is used in reference to objective descriptions of processes, procedures, people and other observable objects and activities | Data |
provide vital clinical and administrative support services to patients, medical staff, visitors and employees | ANCILLARY SUPPORT SERVICES |
ancillary function of the health record | BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH |
systematically developed statements to assist practitioner and patient decisions about appropriate healthcare for specific clinical circumstances | CLINICAL PRACTICE GUIDELINES |
To what authority do hospitals report vital statistics? | The National Vital Statistics System |
An attempt to contain hospital inpatient costs and improve quality by restructuring services | PATIENT-FOCUSED CARE |
Level of skilled care needed by patients with complex medical conditions, typically Medicare patients who have multiple medical problems | SUB-ACUTE CARE |
Quality components | ACCESSIBILITY, APPROPRIATENESS, TECHNICAL EXCELLENCE AND ACCEPTABILITY |
T or F: Turnaround times are examples of qualitative standards and error rates are examples of quantitative standards | FALSE |
Specify the level of service quality expected from a function: Accuracy Rate and Error Rate | Qualitative Standard |
Specify the level of measurable work or productivity expected for a specific function: Number of units of work for a specified period of time or turnaround time | quantitative |
Protects medical records and other individually identifiable health information from being used or disclosed in any form | Privacy Rule |
groups that classify patients into clinically cohesive groups that demonstrate similar consumption of hospital resources and LOS patterns | DRG |
based on the grouping of procedures by CPT/HCPCS codes that have similar costs or resource inputs | APC-Ambulatory Payment Classification |
the exchange standard for laboratory results, enabling standards to be developed and adopted relatively quickly | LOINC- Logical Identifier Names and Codes |
Diagnosis described as "possible", "probable", "likely" and "rule out" are reported as if present for which type of patient records | Inpatient |
The Federal physician self-referral statute is known as.... | Stark Law |
Responsible for ensuring the quality of health record documentation | provider |
Codes assigned to a patient who is seeking health services but is not necessarily sick | V codes |
Insufficient and missing documentation and __________ are two areas that the OIG says is responsible for 70 percent of bad claims | Failure to document medical necesity |
If the nonPar physician chooses to accept assignment, he or she is paid ___ of the MFS. | 95% |
reimburses phyicians according to a fee schedule based on predetermined values assigned to specific services | RBRVS -Resource-Based Relative Value Scale |
a number used to multiply each RVU so that it better reflect a geographical area's relative costs | GPCI Geographic Pricing Cost Index |
converts RVUs into payments | National Conversion Factor |
method of grouping patients according to a predefined set of characteristics | Case mix |
average DRG weight for the patients discharged from the hospital | case-mix index |
a measure of the resources used in treating patients in each or group of hospitals | CMI ( case mix index) |
established in 1847 to represent the interests of physicians across the US | AMA |
AMA | American Medical Association |
dedicated to standardizing the curriculum for the US medical schools and to developing the public's understanding | AAMC |
AAMC | American Association of Medical Colleges |
UR | Utilization Review |
goal is to ensure that services provided to Medicare beneficiaries were medically necessary | UR (Utilization Review) |
CMS | Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services |
NPDB | National Practitioner Data Bank |
Provides a clearinghouse for information about medical practitioners who have a history of malpractice suits and other quality problems. | NPDB (National Practitioner Data Bank) |
Hospitals are required to consult the _______ before granting medical staff privileges to healthcare practitioners | NPDB (National Practitioner Data Bank) |
maximum number of inpatients the hospitals can care for | bed capacity |
IDS | Integrated Delivery System |
fastest growing sector of Medicare | Home care service |
Goal is to organize the continuum of care from health promotion and disease prevention to hospice care to maxmize its effectiveness across episodes of illness | IDS (Integrated Delivery System) |
LTCH | Long Term Care Hospital |
RAI | Resident Assessment Instrument |
PHI | Protected health information |
a category of PHI which may be used or disclosed only in certain circumstances or under certain conditions | Privacy Rule |
RDBMS | relational database management system |
a database management system in which data are organized and managed as a collection of tables | RDMBS relational database management system |
a type of database that uses commands that act as small self contained instructional units that may be combined in various ways | Object-Oriented Database |
UHDDS | Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set |
NCHS | National Center for Health Services Research and Developement |
help coding supervisors become aware of coding errors so that they can be corrected | coding audits |
if the diagnosis documented at the time is qualifiable as "probable", "suspected" or likely in this setting the condition should be coded as if it existed or was established | outpatient |
In what year did the US begin using ICD-10 to report mortality statistics under its agreement with WHO | 1999 |
factors that need to be addressed when assessing data quality | validity, reliability, completeness, and timeliness |
refers to the accuracy of the data | validity |
the extent to which data can be reproduced by subsequent measures or tests | reliability |
used to increase the accuracy and efficiency of the coding process | encoder |
patients who are admitted for an HIV-related illness should be assigned a minimum of two codes: | 042 to identify the HIV disease and additional codes to identify the related diagnoses. (in that order) |
NEC | not elsewhere classifiable |
NOS | not otherwise specified |
type of health record that is compiled about a person from birth to death | longitudinal record |
advantages of a longitudinal record | avoids repetition of details and repeat testing prevents medical errors |
Who is responsible for for ensuring entries made into the health record are of high quality? | the provider of care |
In what part of the health record would a microscopic description of tissue excised during surgery be found? | pathology report |
MDS | Minimum Data Set 2.0 |
preventative or corrective healthcare services provided on a nonresident basis in an a provider's office, clinic setting or hospital outpatient setting | ambulatory |
medical care of a limited duration that is provided in an inpatient hospital setting to diagnose and/or treat an injury or short-term illness | acute care |
medical and surgical care provided to patients who return to their homes the same day they receive the care | ambulatory care |
UACDS | Uniform Ambulatory Care Data Set |
This data set includes optional data elements to describe patients' living condition and marital status to manage at-home care (if needed) | UACDS (Uniform Ambulatory Care Data Set) |
data set used for long-term care | MDS |
federally mandated standard assessment form used to collect demographic and clinical data on nursing home residents | MDS |
Data collected via the MDS are used to develop a _____ summary for each resident which assists in creating the plan of care. | RAP (Resident Assessment Protocol) |
OASIS | outcomes assessment information set |
data set used in home healthcare setting | OASIS (outcomes assessment information set) |
DEEDS | Data Elements for Emergency Care Services |
Data set used in the Emergency Department | DEEDS (Data Elements for Emergency Care Services) |
Patient care plans, pharmacy consultations, and and transfer summaries are likely to be found on the records of acute care/ ambulatory patients? | acute care |
collaborated integration of health care providers | integrated health system |
the combination of everyone's effort accomplishes more than one person acting alone | synergy |
For financial reasons, a fiscal year is divided into how many quarters? How many months in each quarter? | 4, 3 |
Influence by force of personality in which the leader inspires commitment, loyalty, faith, and vision. | charismatic leadership |
health care payment method in which providers receive one lump sum for all the services they provided related to a condition or a disease | episode-of-care |
a chronological set of computerized records that provides evidence of information system activity used to determine security violations | audit trail |
a liability that is created when the organization has received goods or payment, but has not yet remitted the compensation | accounts payable |
Steps to evaluating an ethical problem | 1.determine the facts 2.consider the values and obligations of others 3.consider the choices that are both justified and not justified 4. identify prevention options |
occurs when the actual results are worse than what was budgeted | unfavorable variance |
considers sentence structure(syntax), meaning (semantics), and context to accurately process and extract free-text data, including speech data for application purposes | natural language processing |
medicare restructuring of reimbursement of inpatient hospital admissions | MS-DRG |
NCVHS | National Committee on Vital Health and Statistics |
advisory body on health data, statistics and national health information policy | NCVHS |
Works to improve data collected in the ambulatory care setting | UACDS |
UACDS | Uniform Ambulatory Care Data Set |
HIPPA | Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 |
Legislation in 1996 whose focus is health insurance and health information | HIPPA |
ANSI | American National Standards Institute |
Oversees and accredits private standards developing organizations in the US | ANSI |
DEEDS | Data Elements for Emergency Department Systems |
Uniform specifications for data entered in ED patient records | DEEDS |
OASIS | Outcome and Assessment Information Set |
Standardized reproducible assessment instrument used to monitor home health care | OASIS |
concerned with communicable diseases and environmental health | CDC |
CDC | Center for Disease Control and Prevention |
DHHS | Department of Health and HUman Services |
Branch of the federal government who has responsibility for regulatory programs affecting the health care industry | DHHS |
JCAHO | Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations |
private accrediting organization whose goal is to improve the quality of patient care through the developement/assessment standards of performance by health care organizations | JCAHO |
NCQA | National Committee for Quality Assurance |
Accrediting agency for MCOs | NCQA |
HEDIS | Health Plan Employer Data and information Set |
standardized set of performance measures designed to allow purchaser /consumers of managed care plans to compare performance | HEDIS |
ASTM | American Society for Testing Materials |
National standard development body | ASTM |
AMIA | American Medical Informatics Association |
Provides leadership and developement of information systems to improve patient care | AMIA |
HIMSS | Health Information Management and Systems Society |
focuses on optimal use of health care information technology and management systems for the betterment of human health | HIMSS |
committed to the creation of quality health record reports from dictation by health care providers | AAMT |
AAMT | American Association for Medical Transcription |
AHRQ | Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality |
a formally recognized list of preferred medical terms and their corresponding definitions | clinical vocabularies |
a set of standardized terms and their synonyms that record patient findings, circumstances, events, interventions, with sufficient detail to support clinical care, outcomes research and quality improvement. | clinical terminology |
a recognized system of terms used in a science or art that follows pre-established naming conventions | nomenclature |
SNOMED-CT | Clinical and anatomic pathology clinical vocab |
NDC/NDF-RT | Pharmaceuticals vocab |
NIC/NOC | Nursing vocab |
process of identifying/describing the link between two or more distinct databases | data mapping |
cross linking between current terminology and new terminology between organizations or in an organization | data mapping |
provides a graphical depiction of the sequencing of the steps in a process | flowchart |
illustrate hierarchical relationships between entities | organizational chart |
useful to present projected indications of achievement of deadlines | time lines |
used to provide likely completion times for projects to accmplish larger goals | PERT charts |
a common project scheduling tool used to emphasize the work time needed to meet an identified goal | Gantt Charts |
According to the Joint Commission in what time frame should a chart be fully completed? | 30 days |
finding a better, more proficient way to perform a process is known as | work simplification |
when analysis of a patient chart evaluates the proper correction of entry error in the chart, the t ype of analysis performed is | legal |
occurs when data are correct and valid | accuracy |
four data components to ensure accuracy are; | education, training, communication, and timeliness |
indicates the data are true to source, there have been no alterations or destruction by unauthorized users in an unauthorized manor | integrity |
IRB | Institutional Review Board |
protect the rights and welfare of human subjects as they engage in research activities | IRB -Institutional Review Board |
a standards development organization that addresses issues at the seventh or application level of healthcare system interconnections | HL7 |
For Medicare Patients how often must the HHAs assessment care plan be updated? | at least every 60 days or as often as the severity of the patient's condition requires |
the time required to recoup the cost of the investment | payback period |
a healthcare payment reimbursement method in which providers receive on lump sum for all the services they provide related to a condition or a disease | episode-of-care |
RBAC | Role Based Access Control |
control system in which access decisions are based on the roles of individual users as part of an organization | RBAC |
MMA | Medicare Modernization Act of 2006 - medicare part d offers outpatient drug coverage |
ASP | Application Service Provider |
service firms that deliver, manage, and remotely host through centralized servers via a network | ASP |
SDLC | Systems Development Life Cycle |
What Act expanded CMS quality initiatives to hospital outpatient departments and and ambulatory surgical centers | tax relief and health care act of 2006 |
the proportion of persons in a population who have a particular disease at a specific point in time or over a specified period of time | prevalence rate |
members of a team offering ideas as they come to mind | unstructured brainstorming |
rectangle with double lines on either side in is a flowchart is a ______ ______ _____. What does it represent? | predefined process icon A formal procedure that is to be carried out the same way every time. |
a graphic tool used to organize and prioritize ideas after a brainstorming session | affinity diagram |
services rendered and billed to customers for future payment create transactions that are posted to: | accounts receivable and revenue |
basic accounting principle that requires that organizations follow the same accounting rules from year to year | consistency |
stages of reflective learning | doing, reflection, interpretation, and application |
collects information on all goods and services the facility provides to its clients | charge description master |
Fayol's management functions | Planning Organizing Leading Controlling |
Describe the Acceptance Theory of Authority | Theory of Chester Barnard that states that people have the free will to choose whether or not to follow work orders |
a situation that can affect the success of the project | risk |
cost that does not vary with changes in volumes or units of production | variable |
when a company compares their processes to other companies or industries | benchmarking |
a decision making process in which the decision maker accepts a solution to a problem that is satisfactory rather than optimal | satisficing |
a graphic tool used to organize and prioritize ideas | affinity diagram |
a belief that employees will advance to their highest level of competence and then be promoted to their level of incompetence where they will remain | Peter Principle |
a formal document sent to vendors inviting them to submit bids for the organization's EHR project | RFP (Request for Proposal) |
Systems Development Life Cycle | Analysis Design Implementation Maintenance/Evaluation |
Most common language used for relational databases. A nonprocedural or fourth-generation, language. The user specifies what must be done, but not how it must be done | SQL structured query language |
What is considered a primary data source? | Health record |
data taken from the primary health record and entered into regestries and data bases is considered _______________ data. | secondary |
data on groups of people or patients without indentifying any particular patient individually | aggregate data |
contains patient identifible data: name, address, birthdate, dates of hospitalization, etc. | MPI |
the health record is organized according to the source or the dept that rendered the service | source-oriented record |
type of record where the problem list serves as the table of contents-- uses the SOAP method of progress notes | problem-oriented health record |
SOAP | Subjective Objective Analysis Plan |
health record where the content is arranged in strict chronological order | integrated health record |
accuracy of data | validity |
consistency of data | reliability |
data quality elements | validity, reliability, completeness, and timeliness |
HITECH | Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health |
HITECH ACT | in the event of a breach of PHI, the CE must notify each patient who's unsecured PHI has been acquired or used or disclosed as a result of the breach |
Types of PHI that can NOT be provided w/o signed consent | -patient's HIV/AIDS status -mental helath treatment -drug or alcohol treatment |
Minors can consent to non-emergent treatment in the following situations: | -HIV testing -Dx and treatment for a venereal diseas -DX and treatment for diseases caused by alcohol or abuse -abortion |
Law of the Land | the constitution |
takes precedence over constitutions and laws in the individual states and local jurisdictions | constitutional law |
unwritten law originating from court decisions where no applicable statute exists | common law |
law established by federal and state legislatives | statutory law |
Medicare Conditions of Participation are published in the ________. | Federal Register |
the party bringing the action or complaint in a civil case | plaintiff |
an entity or individual against whom the civil complaint has been filed | defendant |
an action brought when one party believes that another party caused harm through wrongful conduct | tort |
careless conduct that results outside of the standard of care | negligence |
what an individual is expected to do or NOT to do in any given situation | standard of care |
negligence or carelessness of a professional | malpractice |
reckless direguard for the safety of another | criminal negligence |
execution of an unlawful or improper act | malfeasance |
the improper performance of an act resulting in an injury to another | misfeasance |
the failure to act when there is a duty to act as a reasonably prudent person would act in a similar situation | nonfeasance |
4 things that MUST be present to recover damages from negligence: | -duty of care: patient-caregiver relationship must be present -breach of the duty of care -plaintiff must have suffered an injury -plaintiff must show that the defendent caused harm |
the person committed the act knowing that harm would likely occur | intentional tort |
a deliberate threat that is combined with the apparent present ability to cause physical harm to another person | assault |
intentionally touching another person in a socially impermissable manner without the person's consent | battery |
a false communication about someone to a person other that the person defamed that tends to injure the person's reputation | defamation of character |
the written form of defamation | libel |
the spoken form of defamation | slander |
to recover damages in an action for defamation,these must be present: | -the defendant made a false and defamatory statement about the plaintiff -the statement was not a privelaged publication and was made to a third person -at least negligence occured -actual or presumable damages occured |
gives individuals some control over the information collected about them by the federal government | Privacy Act of 1974 |
According to the Privacy Act of 1974 people have the right to: | -learn what information is collected about them -view and have a copy of that information -maintain limited control over disclosures of that information |
a federal law through which individuals can seek access to information without authorization of the person to whom the info applies | Freedom of Information Act |
what does RHIA stand for | registered health information administrator |