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Reproductive Materna
Reproductive Maternal Health
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| In which phase of the uterine cycle does the endometrium begin to accumulate? | Secretory |
| An individual whose inner sense of sexual identity does not match the biological body is know as... | transgender |
| A 22 y/o man protrays himself w/ great masculinity. This action denotes... | gender role |
| What are the basic physiologic changes that occur during the sexual human response? | myotonia and vasocongestion |
| Which sexual dysfx in females is most associated with physiological factors? | dysparenuia |
| The plautea sexual response in older adults is... | prolonged |
| A research article the nurse is reading discusses the prevalence of androgyny in persons 20 to 30 years old. The nurse understands which of the following about androgynous persons? | They do not limit behaviors to one gender over the other. |
| A client is complaining of having heavier than normal bleeding during her menstrual period. Her nurse correctly documents this subjective information in the chart as: | menorrhagia |
| The term “adnexa” is defined as being composed of: | Ovaries, fallopian tubes, and supporting tissues |
| Which method of child birth preparation focuses on body conditioning excercises, disassociation relaxation, and breathing techniques? | Infant stimulation Concepts |
| Danazol for endometrious should be started during the... | while the pt is on her period |
| Health teaching for a client starting on leupride acetate should include | bone loss as an adverese reaction |
| How many calories are recommended for a breat feeding mother? | 200 calories over the pregnancy requirements |
| Which type of childbirth preparation would the nurse recommend to a couple who want the father to be actively involved and to avoid medication during the birthing process? | Bradley Method |
| Spermatozoa become motile and fertile during the two to ten days they are stored in the: | Epididymus |
| What is a common side effect when menotropins are used for infertility treatment? (Repronex) | Moodiness |
| After what gestational age do the male and female reproductive organs begin to differentiate? | eight weeks |
| The nurse correctly responds to a question about mosaicism by stating that individuals who have this chromosomal abnormality may also have: | Normal Intelligence |
| A prenatal client in her third trimester has gained 52 pounds. The nurse's teaching plan should include information on risk factors of abnormal weight gain patterns. What risk does the weight gain present for this client's baby? | A) Congenital malformations |
| For purposes of chromosomal studies, amniocentesis is most commonly performed: | after the 16th wk |
| A pregnant client who is of normal pre-pregnancy weight is now 30 weeks pregnant. She asks the nurse what is an appropriate weight gain. The nurse's best response is: | 20-22 lbs |
| A prenatal client asks the nurse, "How much weight should I gain, and when?" Which response, if made by the nurse, is best in regard to the pattern of weight gain during pregnancy? | You should gain 3.5 to 5 pounds in the first trimester and 1 pound per week in the last two trimesters." |
| The nurse is preparing for pelvic physical examination of a woman who has been medically diagnosed with vaginismus. What equipment should the nurse obtain for this examination? | Smaller than normal vaginal speculum |
| Which is an important consideration in the diagnostic work-up for a young male patient suspected of having a testicular neoplasm? | Alpha Feta Ptn level |
| During ejaculation, which physiological change occurs? | Perineal and bulbourethral muscles contract |
| Men should be taught to seek medical attention after testicular self-examination when the: | Person feels any painless, hard nodule |
| A major function of the cervix is to | secrete mucus to help transport sperm |
| What indicates sexual excitement in a woman? | Increase in vaginal lubrication |
| Oral stimulation of female genitals... | cunnilingus |
| The involuntary climax of sexual tension occurs in which cycle? | orgasmic |
| A woman complains that when she has sex, her vaginal muscles contract, preventing intercourse. This is called: | vaginismus |
| Nurses can most effectively assist clients to deal with sexual problems by: | recognizing their own beliefs about sexuality |
| A pedigree that showed affected individuals in each of several generations with both males and females exhibiting the disease would be of which type of transmission? | A) autosomal dominant |
| The nurse is working with a student nurse. Which step of the nursing process should the nurse encourage the student to use when creating an appropriate educational session for families who are considering pregnancy? | Planning |
| Niacin intake should increase during pregnancy. Which food would the nurse suggest to increase intake of niacin? | fish |
| The client is a 25-year-old primigravida who is addicted to crack cocaine. Her fetus is at risk for: | congenital anomilies |
| A pedigree that showed affected individuals in each of several generations with both males and females exhibiting the disease would be of which type of transmission? | A) autosomal dominant |
| Which ABX is standard for treating TSS? | |
| The drug Tamoxifen works by... | keeping the tumor from growing by blocking estrogen sites |
| The nurse evaluates the diet of a pregnant client, and finds that it is low in zinc. The nurse knows that zinc intake should increase during pregnancy to promote protein metabolism. Which foods should the nurse suggest in order to increase intake of zinc? | AZinc is found in greatest concentration in meats and meat byproducts. Enriched grains also tend to be high in zinc. |
| The nurse is preparing a prenatal class about infant feeding methods. The maternal nutritional requirements for breastfeeding will be discussed. What should be include? | Breastfeeding requires a continued high intake of protein and calcium." |
| A pregnant client who follows a strict vegan diet asks the nurse to assist her with her diet. The nurse will want to assess intake of which nutrient? | Iron |
| What term should be used for the phase in which the vascularity of the uterus increases and the endometrium becomes prepared for a fertilized ovum? | Proliferative |
| It is important that the nurse understands the hormonal effects on basal temperature in relationship to ovulation. Which of the following responses related to ovulation is correct? | After ovulation occurs, progesterone is produced and causes a rise in basal temperature |
| A nurse is planning a seminar on sex chromosome abnormalities. The nurse should know that a female child born with 45,XO and no Barr bodies most likely has | Turner Syndrome |
| A child born with a single palmar crease and an ulnar loop most likely has which autosomal abnormality? | Trisomy 21 |
| Blood leaves the placenta and enters the fetus through the | umblicial vein |
| After circulating through the fetus the blood returns to the placenta through the | umbilical arteries |
| When does the embryonic stage begin? | In the 3rd week after fertilization |
| When does the fetal stage begin? | In the 9th week |
| What week is every organ and external structure present? | Week 9 |
| When does the fetal heart begin to beat? | Week 4 |
| When does fetal respiratory movement begin? | Week 24 |
| What differentiates to form the respiratory and digestive tract? | Endoderm |
| The gravid uterus compresses the vena cava when the woman is supine. | Vena Caval Syndrome |
| Soften of the isthmus of the uterus | Hegar's Sign |
| A soft spot anteriorly in the middle of the uterus near the junction of the body and the cervix | Laden's sign |
| Process by which the baby is born | Parturition |
| Strong uterine contractions, Cervix stretching, Forcing the fetus through the birth canal | Labor |
| Folic Acid deficiency in pregnancy may result in... | Neural tube defects, spontaneous abortion, SGA |
| AFP is done to detect... | Neural tube defects |
| A 17-year-old primigravida is 20 weeks pregnant. She is 5 feet and 1 inch tall and weighs 212 pounds. The nurse should realize that this weight puts her at increased risk for: | cephalopelvic disproportion. |
| A woman's diagonal conjugate is 11.5 cm. This means that her obstetric conjugate is about: | 10 cm |
| A pregnant woman is having a nipple stimulation test. Which of the following results indicates hyperstimulation? | There are more than three uterine contractions in a six-minute period. |
| uterine souffle is best heard in which location? | Just above the symphysis pubis |
| When does true placental formation begin? | The third wk of gestation |
| A woman has just given birth to a fetus at 18 weeks of gestation. The correct term for this is | abortion |
| _____________is due to an abnormal red blood cell structure, which leads to microcytic anemia with normal ferritin and iron levels. | b-thalassemia intermedia |
| Iron supplements should be avoided to prevent iron overload with __________. | b-thalassemia intermedia |
| A woman is experiencing preterm labor. The client asks why she is on betamethasone (Celestone). The best response by the nurse would be, "This medication; | Is effective in stimulating lung development in the preterm infant." |
| Her previous births include two large-for-gestational-age babies and one unexplained stillbirth. Which tests would the nurse anticipate as being most definitive in diagnosing gestational diabetes? | A 100 g, three-hour glucose tolerance test |
| What is the purpose of Doppler velocimetry? | assess placental function by studying blood flow changes |
| located between the frontal and parietal bones, extends transversely left and right from the anterior fontanelle.. | coronal suture |
| Located between the two frontal bones, and becomes the anterior continuation of the sagittal suture | frontal suture |
| premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall | abruptio placenta |
| provides perineal anesthesia for the second stage of labor, birth, and episiotomy repair | pudenal block |
| Presenting part occurs when the largest diameter of the presenting part reaches or passes through the pelvic inlet | engagement |
| The most common type of version | external cephalic |
| At birth of a neonate, a placenta percreta is noted. The nurse should be alert for the possibility that the woman will need: | hysterectomy |
| early deceleration is indicative of | fetal head compression |
| decreased variability is caused by... | fetal hypoxia |
| late decelerations are caused from ... | deterioration of the placenta and maternal hypoxia |
| The fetus changes position in the following order: | descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation, extension, restitution, external rotation, expulsion. |
| Assessment data of the newborn includes: large amounts of vernix, hypotonic position,generalized edema of the entire scalp. These findings are consistent with... | preterm infant and caput succedanum |
| A nurse is preparing the delivering of an immenient birth. She turns the warmer on to... | reduce heat by conduction |
| Ergot alkaloids, ergonovine maleate and methylergonovine malate are used when the uterus does not contract effectively after delivery. An observation consistent with ergot toxicity is... | hypertension |
| A new parent reports to the nurse that the baby looks cross-eyed several times a day. The nurse teaches the parents that this finding should resolve in: | 4 months |
| Which of the following is the correct procedure for oral-pharyngeal suctioning of the newborn? | mouth first then nose |
| After administration of an epidural anesthetic to a woman in active labor, it is most important that the nurse assess immediately for maternal: | hypotension |
| The sustained pressure of the presenting part against the cervix results in compression of local blood vessels and venous return is slowed causing an increase in edema and occasional bleeding under the perineum. | A caput Succedaneum overrides the suture lines which |
| A client in labor tells the nurse that she thinks her water has broken. Which tests will the nurse perform to confirm? | nitrazine test |
| Which nursing interventions would protect the newborn from the most susceptible form of heat loss? | dry thoroughly |
| Normal newborn physiologic jaundice occurs when and for which physiologic reason? | Within the 2nd or 3rd day of life due to normal hemolysis and the liver's inability to process and excrete bilirubin |
| The nurse desires to demonstrate to a new family their infant's individuality. Which assessment tool would she use? | A) Brazelton Behavioral Scale |
| The client vaginally delivers an infant weighing 4750 g. During the initial assessment of this infant, the nurse should look for: | Erb's palsy. |
| The nurse determines the gestational age of an infant to be 40 weeks. Which characteristic is most likely to be found? | plantar creases over entire sole |
| The student nurse notices that the newborn seems to focus on his mother's eyes. The nursing instructor explains that this newborn behavior is: | orientation |
| After inserting prostaglandin gel for cervical ripening, the nurse should: | position the client supine with a wedge under her right hip. |
| The nurse is caring for a client who was given meperidine (Demerol) during labor. In planning care for the client's newborn, the nurse should closely assess the newborn for: | A) Body temperature. |
| An infant is 24-hours-old. The nurse palpates a mass on the head that is blue in color, is fairly well defined, and does not cross the suture line. This finding is most likely a: | cephalohematoma. |
| What does LATCH stand for? | Latch, Audible Swallowing, type of nipple, comfort, hold |
| the loss of heat form the warm body surface to the cooler air currents | convection |
| serious disorder, results in a right to left shunting of blood away from the lungs and through the fetal ductus arteriosus and patent foramen ovale | persistent pulmonary hypertension |
| Jaundice within 24 hours of birth is due either to ________ or ___________, and requires phototherapy. | Rh incompatibility or ABO incompatibility, |
| Infants born to mothers with chlamydia infections are at risk for | neonatal pneumonia and conjunctivitis, thus require close observation of the respiratory status and eyes |
| Clients who are HIV-positive are considered high-risk pregnancies. Therefore, beginning at about 32 weeks, these clients have weekly nonstress tests to assess for placental function and an ultrasound every two to three weeks to assess for | intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR) |
| vascular connection that, during fetal life, short circuits the pulmonary vascular bed and directs blood from the pulmonary artery ot the aorta | patent ductus arteriosus |
| harsh grade 2-3 machinery murmur upper left sternal border just beneath clavical; increased difference b/t systolic and diastolic pulse pressure; Can lead to right heart failure and pulmonary congestion | PDA |
| Increased left atrial and left ventricular enlargement, dilated ascending aorta, increased pulmonary vascularity | PDA |
| This heart defect is commonly seen with Down's Syndrome. Initially asymptomatic; systolic murmur second left intercostal space; Infants commonly have failure to thrive, URI, poor exercise intolerance | Atrial septal defect |
| Loud, blowing systolic murmur between the third and fourth ICS blood flow; Right ventricular hypertrophy; CHF right side at 6 wks to 2 months of age | Ventricular Septal Defect |
| Families progress through various stages of reactions when a child is diagnosed with a chronic illness or disability. After the shock phase, a period of adjustment usually follows. This is often characterized by which of the following responses? | guilt or anger |
| A mother who intended to breast-feed has given birth to an infant with a cleft palate. Nursing interventions should include which of the following? | Encourage and assist mother to breast feed |
| The parent of a child with cystic fibrosis calls the clinic nurse to report that the child has developed tachypnea, tachycardia, dyspnea, pallor, and cyanosis. These symptoms are suggestive of... | A) Pneumothorax |
| Because an infant with a myelomeningocele has lower motor neuron damage to her lower extremities, you would expect to provide which aspect of care? | Observing legs for good body alignment because of muscle laxity. |
| Which of the following is characteristic of an X-linked, recessively inherited disorder? | There is a 50% chance that a carrier mother will pass the gene to the male offspring. |
| What would be most important to implement for an infant who develops heart failure? | Place infant in semi fowler's position |
| Infants with congenital heart disease should not be allowed to become dehydrated because this makes them prone to... | CVA |
| The association of cleft palate with otitis media is primarily due to? | Inefficient function of eustachian tubes and improper middle ear drainage |
| To assess for cyanosis in an infant with cardiovascular disease, it would be best to assess the child’s | tongue and buccal membrane. |
| fetuses exposed to intrauterine infections such as rubella and cytomegalovirus are affected by direct invasion of the brain or other vital organs by the offending virus | Intrauterine infection |
| associated with an acute compromise of uteroplacental blood flow | asymmetic IUGR |
| caused by long term maternal conditions such as chronic HTN, sever malnutrition, chronic intrauterine infection or fetal gentic abnormalities | symmertric IUGR |
| What is the earliest clinical manifestation of biliary atresia? | Jaundice |
| 6. Austin, age 3 years, has cerebral palsy and is currently hospitalized for orthopedic surgery. His mother says he has difficulty swallowing and cannot hold a utensil to feed himself. What is the most appropriate nursing action related to feeding? | Stabilize his jaw with one hand (either from a front or side position) to facilitate swallowing. |
| is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism | Chronic renal disease |
| A child with hypoparathyroidism is receiving vitamin D therapy. The parents should be advised to watch for which of the following signs of vitamin D toxicity? | weakness and lassitude (fatigued or strained) |
| A 3-month-old former 25-week premature baby has been exposed to prolonged oxygen therapy. As a result of the oxygen therapy, this baby is at high risk for developing: | Retinpathy of Prematurity |
| Exophthalmos (protruding eyeballs) may occur in children with which of the following conditions? | hyperthyoidism |
| Cerebral palsy may result from a variety of causes. It is now known that the most common cause of cerebral palsy is which of the following? | prenatal brain abnormalities |
| EMLA is an effective analgesic agent when applied to the skin ____________. | 60 minutes before a procedure. |
| __________ provides skin anesthesia about 15 minutes after application to nonintact skin. | TCA |
| Eliminates or reduces the pain from most procedures involving skin puncture | EMLA |
| The nurse is caring for an infant whose cleft lip was repaired. Important aspects of this infant’s postoperative care include which of the following? | Cleansing suture line, supine and side-lying positions, arm restraints |
| The nurse caring for the ill newborn is aware a metabolic consequence of cold stress in the newborn includes: | increased oxygen utilization. |
| The nurse is working with a child with a chronic condition. The nurse observes that over time, the parents have experienced a pattern of periodic grieving alternating with denial. The nurse would recognize this pattern as: | Chronic sorrow |
| The newborn screening programs test for inborn errors of metabolism that are usually transmitted by which of the following methods? | autosomal recessive gene |
| Which ligament causes menstural cramping? | uterosacral ligaments |
| A 58-year-old man has an elevated PSA value and enlarged prostate. The most appropriate conclusion is that the patient: | A) Requires further screening |
| Postprocedural instructions for the patient undergoing endometrial biopsy include: | Avoidance of heavy lifting. |
| Semen analysis indicates a sperm count of more than 20 million/ml. An appropriate conclusion is that: | Sperm counts are within normal range. |
| What rubella titer or is evidence of immunity? | 1:18 or greater |
| The __________ is measured from the lower edge of the symphysis to the sacral promontory. | diagonal conjugate |
| The ___________ and ___________are measurements of the pelvic inlet, and cannot be directly measured. | true conjugate and obstetrical conjugate |
| The _________ diameter is measured externally. | transverse outlet |
| An infant with hydrocephalus is scheduled to have a ventriculoperitoneal shunt inserted. Immediately following the procedure, the nursing action that would best prevent decompression from excessive CSF flow is | keeping the head of the infant level with the body. |
| Which of the following most accurately describes bowel function in children born with a myelomeningocele? | Some degree of fecal continence can usually be achieved. |
| What changes are associated with juvenile hypothyroidism? | constipation, Dry skin, mental decline and myxedematous skin |
| ___________ is the medication of choice to increase maternal blood pressure. | Epinephrine injection |
| A baby is born with ambiguous genitali | their child’s true sex can be determined by a genetic karyotype. |
| __________ is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage | Uterine atony |
| When examining a newborn for developmental hip dysplasia, which of the following motions would the newborn’s hip be unable to accomplish? | abduction |
| The ______ Leopold's maneuver determines the location of the fetal back. | second |
| The _______ maneuver determines what part of the fetus is in the fundus. | first |
| The _______ maneuver determines which fetal part is in the pelvic inlet. | third |
| The _________ maneuver determines the flexion of the fetal neck and descent into the pelvis. | forth |
| The nurse is examinaing a client who is 12 weeks gestation. The examiner would expect to find the fundus at which of the following locations? | The level of the symphasis pubis |
| Which s/s support a dx of nonbacterial prostatitis? | perineal pain and dysuria |
| Urinary frequency and urethral discharge are clinical manifestations of ___________. | bacterial prostatitis |
| ________________prepares the uterus for implantation by decreasing the motility and contractility imparted by the estrogens during the menstrual cycle. | Progesterone |
| A ___________requires spermicide for each act of intercourse. It can be left in for up to 6 hours, but if a second act of intercourse is desired during that time, new spermicide must be inserted | diaphragm |
| Regarding diet what should the nurse teach the pt about preeclampsia? | The patient needs to eat a moderate- to high-protein diet to replace protein lost in the urine and prevent dietary deficiency. |
| What L/S ratio indicates that fetus lungs are mature? | 2:1 |
| _____________is needed for hemophilia A. Compatible whole blood is kept on hand during delivery for the mother. | Factor VIII replacement |
| A ______________ evaluates the relation of fetal movement to fetal heart rate. When movement increases, there should be an acceleration in the fetal heart rate. | nonstress test |
| ____________presentations often cause significant back pain due to the position of the heaviest part of the fetal head. | Posterior |
| Why does pregnancy frequently cause anemia? | circulating blood plasma level increases |
| Once the cervix is dilated to 5-6 cm, the pytocin drip should be ________ gradually. | decreased |
| __________ is failure of the uterus to maintain a steady state of contraction. It causes postpartum hemorrhage. | uterine atony |
| In _________the uterus gradually returns to its prepregnant size by the end of the puerperium. By the tenth postpartum day the uterus should not be palpable because it has returned to the pelvis. | uterine involution |
| In uterine __________the uterus fails to return to its prepregnant state promptly and healing of the placental site is delayed. Palpation of the uterus above the symphysis pubis at the tenth day indicative. | subinvolution |
| Macrosomia (very large fetus/infant) is usually attributed to fetal exposure to the .... | mother's insulin and sugar imbalances. hyperinsulinisma / hyperglycemia |
| The pt becomes introverted and comtemplative. She often ask many questions about her and her infant. | Taking in phase |
| The mother attends to her own needs, child care needs, and her changing role. | Taking hold phase |
| The time when the mother views the infant as a seperate individual. | Letting go |
| What is the status of the mother's insulin need immediately after delivery? | Remain unchanged |
| __________ is allergy with a hereditary element, usually manifested by a skin inflammation like eczema / hives. | atopy |
| The nurse adminsters Idocin to a premature neonate with PDA. The nurse should assess for which side effect? | oliguria |
| What drug is contraindicated in hemophila because it inhibits platelet fx? | Indocin |
| Which nursing action should be included in the POC for an infant following ventroperitoneal shunt? | observe for abd distention |
| What pt outcome may occur following a varicocelectomy? | increased fertility |
| Utrerine rigidity and tenderness present upon exam / severe abd pain | placenta abruption |
| Bright red vaginal bleeding is a classic sign soft, relaxed, non tender uterus Fundal hieght may be more than expected for gestational age | Placental previa |
| What is a sign of an imminent delivery? | crowning |
| What is a sign of an imminent delivery? | crowning |
| Which factor can cuae a neonate to develop hemorrhagic disease? | absence of intestinal flora |
| ____________ decelerations occur most frequently during the active phase of labor and are considered benign. | Early decelerations |
| considered a nonreassuring FHR patterns, whether or not fetal movement is a factor. | Late decelerations |
| Has spermicide built in. Activated by wetting. Can be used for 24 hours | vaginal sponge |
| The nurse would expect to see fetal heart accelerations in response to fetal movement | Reactive stress test |
| Response is indicative of intact central and autonomic nervous system | reactive stress test |
| Response of the fetus is receiving insufficient uteroplacental oxygenation | nonreactive stress test |
| A pt in labor reports that she feels light headed and her lips are tingling. What should the nurse do? | Have pt to breath in her hands--These are signs of hyperventilation |
| What is the best time to obtain blood from a newborn for PKU? | 72 hours old |
| Which instructions should the nurse give to the parents of a neonate before discharge regarding neonatrium ophalmia? | Watch for redness at 3 days old |
| Which pt should the nurse consider at risk for disemminated intravascular coagulation? | premature separation of the placenta (abrupto placenta) frequently results in fetal death. Retention of the dead fetus increases the risk |
| Which type of sound is the newborn most receptive too? | high pitched |
| Which findings should the nurse expect with a 10 year old male with spastic CP? | Poor balance skills pronounced startle reflex |
Created by:
smcook