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What Medal of Honor resepient fell on a flare and flug it out of the plane?
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26 Aug 92 Bush announced no fly zone in Iraq to discourage renewed Iraqi military activity near Kuwiat. What was operation called?
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flashcards for E5
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What Medal of Honor resepient fell on a flare and flug it out of the plane? | A1C John Levitow |
| 26 Aug 92 Bush announced no fly zone in Iraq to discourage renewed Iraqi military activity near Kuwiat. What was operation called? | Operation Southern Watch |
| Who was the first security forces airman to die in Operation Iraqi Freedom from an IED blast? | Elizabeth Nicole Jacobson |
| This command organizes, train, equips, and maintains combat ready forces for rapid deployment an employment while ensuring strategic air defense forces are ready to meet challenges of peacetime. | Air Combat Control (ACC) |
| What is the statement of officially sanctioned beliefs, war-fighting principles, and terminology that describes and guides proper use of air, space, and cyberspace power in military operations? | Air Force Doctrine |
| Who are protected persons not authorized to engage in combatant activities, such as medical personnel and chaplins? | noncombatants |
| What are the actions in response to an unprofessional relationship? | counseling, reprimand, creation of a UIF, removal from position, reassignemt, demotion, admin seperation. Counseling often effective first step. |
| Who is responsible for the care of family members during deployment and TDY? What must they produce within 60 days? | The military member, must produce family care plan within 60 days |
| What is a General Court Martial? | Most serious offenses tried this way, composed of a military judge, at least a 5 member panel with 1/3 enlisted. |
| Describe the Air Force symbol | A star framed with 3 diamonds that represent the core values, elements come together to form symbol of 2 images; eagle for our nation and medal representing valor in service to our nation. |
| Who was Paul Wesley Airey? | CMSAF, only former CMSAF to remain on active duty, served 24 months as CMSAF |
| What is Recruiter Assistance Program? | A way for Air Force members to assist local recruiters in finding quality young men and women, 12 days of nonchargable leave. |
| What are the responsibilitis of the ratee? | Must known when feeback sessions are due, may request a feedback, must notify rater and other evaluators in chain when required sessions do not take place. |
| What is a referral report? | An EPR that contains "does not meet stndars" in and block in section 3 or poor or needs improvement in section 5. |
| What is a Letter of Evaluation? | Written during a period of ratee performance too short to require a performance report, rater must have at least 60 days of supervision |
| What is the Airman Education and Commissioning Program (AECP)? | Member attends a civilian institution full time and remains on active duty, allowed 36 months to complete course work, attends OTS upon graduation. |
| What is the Selective Reenlistment by Catergory? | A process by which commanders and supervisors evaluate all FTA, 2nd term, and career airman. |
| Who may recall a member from leave? | The unit commander may for necessity or in best interest of the Air Fore. |
| What is emergency leave | Chargable leave granted for personal or family emergencies, approved by unit commander, inital period usually no more than 30 days. |
| Who may receive a restricted report? | Only SARC and healthcare personnal, designated victim advocate after being appointed by SARC to act |
| What are the regs on tattoos and brands? | must be appropiate, member with one not meeting standards must maintain complete coverage using current unifrom items, may be asked by commander to remove surgically. |
| What were the changes to the lower ranks in 1952? | Went from private, private first class, corporal and sergeant to AB, A3C, A2C, and A1C |
| Who was TSgt John A. Chapman? | Was awarded the Air Force cross posthumously for actions during Operation Anaconda, saved the lives of his entire rescue team. |
| What happened on 2 May 2003? | President Bush announced victory in Iraq based on assessment of Gen Tommy Franks. |
| Who was Ssgt Scott Sather? | The first airman killed in Operation Iraqi Freedom. |
| What is a strategic attack? | Has overall vision of striking at enemy, allows us to choose fighting conditions, prevents an attack of our vulnerabilities. |
| What is an AEWS? | Can establish and operate airbase using a combat wing structure with mission support, operations, maintennce, and medical groups. |
| What is an AEG | Normally the smallest AETF presented to a theatre, deployed as a tenant unit. |
| Who responds to a financial complaint and within what time? | Usually the unit commander within 15 days |
| When must you report a gift from a foreign government? | Must report within 60 days if valued at over $335. |
| Who may demote? | Group commander may deomte MSgt of below, majcom, FOA, or DRV commander may deomte SMSgt and CMSgt |
| When is an initial feedback due? | Held within 60 days of when rater begins supervision. |
| What is a 623A? | On the job training record continuation sheet document of training progression. |
| What is a member paid while on AFELA? | Member entitled to basic pay only |
| Who is a property custodian? | Any person designated as responsible for govt property in his/her possession. |
| What are the TOS service retainability requirments for CONUS PCS? | At least 48 mths TOS for FTA, at least 48 mths TOS for career airman, 24 mth service retainability regardless of career status |
| What are the retraining eligiability requirments for FTA? | 4 year enlisted must complete 35 mth of enlistment, and 6 years must comlete 59 months. |
| What is the reg on the blues skirt? | Skirt cannot be shorter then top of knee cap and no longer then bottom of knee cap. |
| Who were teh enlisted medal of honor recepiants? | Smith, Maynard Harrison "snuffy" 1943 Vosler, Forrest Lee- 43 Matheis Archibald-44 Erwin, Henry Eugene "red"- 45 Pitsenbarger, William H- 66 Levitow, John- 69 |
| Who was Esther Blake? | First woman in the Air Force, enlisted the first minute, first hour, first day of regualr AF duty on 8 July 48. |
| What is the Air Mobility Command (AMC) | Rapid, global mobility and sustainment for America's armed forces. |
| What is the Air Force Space Command (AFSPC)? | Deliver space and missile capabilities to America and warfighting commands. |
| What is the PAcific Air Forces (PACAF)? | Provide ready airspace and information power to promote US interests in the Asia-Pacific region during peacetime, through crisis, and in war. |
| What is the US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE) | directs air operations in a theater spanning 3 continents, covering more than 20 million square miles, containing 91 countries. |
| What is the Air Educaiton and Training Command (AETC)? | Develops America's airmen today for tomorrow. |
| What is the Air Force Material Command (AFMC)? | deliver war-winning experditionary capabilites to the warfighter through development and transition of technology, prefessional acquisition management, exacting test and evaluation, and world class sustainment of all air force weapon systems. |
| What is Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC)? | America's specialized air power, step ahead in a changing world, delivering special ops power anytime, anywhere. |
| Who can an unprofession relationship exist between? | officers and officers, enlisted and enlisted, officers and enlisted, and military and civilian/contractor. |
| Where is union displaye when flag is hung horizontal or vertical | To the observers left. |
| ow is doctrine applied? | Authoritative but not directive |
| Which of the following is the primary giude used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission? | AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services |
| Why is Medical Doctrine necessary? | Guides commanders in using assets |
| What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment? | Operational Doctrine |
| Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by what example? | A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors. |
| What is not one of the three foundational Doctrine statements airman should be familiar with? | Use of Force |
| While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health, and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness? | Every airman |
| When professional knowledge, medical xpertise and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Service Foundational Doctrine is accomplished? | Competency |
| What figure in an Air Force Specialty Code identifies career grouping? | first |
| How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan? | two |
| In what part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan will you locate the Speciality Training Standard? | two |
| Where would you find the specific outline and training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area? | Master Training Plan |
| What is an example of a Special Experience Identifier? | Aeromedical Evacuation Technician |
| Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician? | Aerospace medical service journeyman |
| When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the | apprentice to the journeyman |
| Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service? | Positively influence the patient's visit |
| Who may request a 4N0XX Job Inventory? | career field manager |
| How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed? | three years |
| Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey | supervisor |
| What is the purpose of documenting training? | document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness |
| On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Speciality Training Standard? | AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS |
| When may th AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record? | When the airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level |
| Where would the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicans certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card be filed in the Individual Training Record? | part 6, section b |
| What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training? | evaluate learning through performance or tests |
| What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel? | MEPRS |
| How are activities grouped on the medical expense and performance reporting system? | type and section |
| What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center? | UPMR |
| Which of the following is a funded manpower requirment that define the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade, and any other characteristics needed to clearly define the position? | manpower authorization |
| Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request? | MAJCOM |
| Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force? | each individual |
| Who is the designated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained and discipline of supply use? | commanders |
| By training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent? | equipment damage and injury to a patient |
| What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error? | 70 percent |
| What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section? | Activity issue/turn-in summary |
| What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed? | attempt to cancel the order through MEMO |
| What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days? | Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order |
| When does a new property custodian assume responsibility for items on the property/equipment list? | Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list |
| Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must | condut a physical inventory of equipment |
| When may the AF Form 601 be destoryed? | When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL |
| How often are equipment insepctions usually conducted? | Daily |
| What are the 3 actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment? | inspect, remove, and repair |
| What is the primary source for recording equipment repair? | AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing |
| Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedure and local policy for equipment problems or concerns? | Biomedical equipment repair technician |
| Define nonmaleficence | duty to do no harm |
| Define fidelity | acting in a responsible manner |
| What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field? | STS |
| What are patient responsibilites designed to do? | protect other patients and helath care workers |
| Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which responsibility? | chaperone |
| During which stage of the grieving process is it the most important to allow the patient to do most of the talking? | depression |
| Which form is used to inform the patient the purposes and uses of information collected in their medical record? | DD form 2005 |
| Why is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement-Health Care Records used when providing medical care? | eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document |
| Whcih category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act affect? | anyone handeling patient information |
| For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, use | DOD Regulation 6025.18-R |
| Which phase of the patient relationship is described by establishing the idetity and role of a patient and the health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization? | introductory |
| What is considered a barrier to effective communication? | talking too much |
| Who is considered the patient advocate? | every staff member |
| Who is an excellent rescource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services? | patient advocate |
| What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program? | provide an unbiased third party |
| What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medicla treatment facility? | collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients |
| Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone? | no; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky. |
| How should you handle a non-emergent telephone call for the provider if he/she is with a patient and th caller does not want to hold? | take a message and hand it to the provider at the provider at the earliest opportunity. |
| What is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stree? | remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety |
| Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care management team member? | nurse |
| What 4 components make up the PCM team? | provider, nurse, medical technician and health service management technician |
| Whan a PCM team is successful in achieving the team goal, what must each member do? | contrbute at their highest level of scope of practice |
| It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure | the best care is provided to our customers |
| What is not a habit of a successful PCM team? | being punctual |
| who is untimately responsible for establishing an individual's eligibility for medical care in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System? | MPF |
| At what age are children required to have thier own ID cards? | 10 |
| When a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility, you should | have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment |
| If a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligible for care, you should | provide the patient care and then determine eligibility |
| Patients treated without initial proff of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation with what time frame? | 30 days |
| When confirming a patient's information which of th efollowing information systems would you rely on to capture, edit and maintain sponsor/family demographics? | DEERS |
| Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least | quarterly |
| If you are working in CHCS, what function whould not be available for you to use? | outpatient coding data |
| If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and MHS optimization? | AHLTA |
| When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment? | no care or treatment was accomplished |
| How does the anatomical lateral position differ from the term meidal? | away from the midline of the body or body part |
| A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements? | axis of joint rotation |
| You are double-checking the doctor's orders before going into one of your patients Mrs. Jones room. What would it mean for Mrs. Jones if the doctor's orders are written as NPO? | may not have anything to eat or drink |
| You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vidion n the right eye. How should you document this information correctly? | patient complains of blurred vision-right eye |
| You would not find what component in the cytoplasm of a cell? | nucleus |
| The network of tubules that moves molecules with the cell is | endoplasmic reticulum |
| What part of the cell provides the priary source of cellular energy? | mitochondria |
| What part of the cell plays an important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body? | ribosomes |
| Which phase of mitosis wouls signify that the nuleus of the cell is actually dividing? | anaphase |
| In what part of the cell life cycle would the cell continue to grow until divided again? | interphase |
| The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as | cell differentiation |
| What type of tissue is found in the spinal cord? | nervous |
| What type of tissue can change its shape | muscle |
| because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similat to skeletal muscle tissue | cardiac muscle |
| which muscle is attached to the eyelid | levator palpebrae superioris |
| aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the | iris |
| What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images | rods |
| what nerve is the pathway to vision? | optic |
| The auditory ossicles are located in the | middle ear |
| Movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within in | cochlea |
| What is they system of chambers and tubes within the inner ear called? | Labyrinth |
| What is the nasal air passageway? | Olfactory bulbs |
| Odors are described as belonging to which of groups? | seven primary odors, or a combination of at least 2 of them |
| What part of the nasal cavity does the superior meatus, middle meatus, and inferior meatus make up? | nasal conchae |
| The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is? | stratum spinosum |
| Which glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and waterproof? | sebaceous |
| The nails grows from the white area at the base called? | lunula |
| What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland? | Sebum |
| Pigmentation is attributed to? | melanin |
| What substance does melanocyte produce? | melanin |
| Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system? | bone ends |
| Where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone? | medullary cavity |
| What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied? | sesamoid |
| What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint? | patella |
| The epimysium is located beneath the | fascia |
| What type of muscle is skeletal muscle? | voluntary, striated |
| The muscle layer that lies just below he epimysium is the | perimysium |
| What attaches skeletal muscles to the bone? | tendons |
| What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula? | syndesmosis |
| What type of joint connects the strnum and first rib? | synchondrosis |
| What fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint? | synovial |
| The vavle that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the | tricuspid vavle |
| What is the term for the muscular portion of the heart? | myocardium |
| What is the vavle between the left atrium and the left ventricle? | mitral |
| What cells are responsible for teh clotting action in blood? | platelets |
| The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the | diastolic blood pressure |
| What vein returns blood back to teh heart from the lower body? | inferior vena cava |
| What is the only vein that carries oxgenated blood? | Pulmonary |
| What is the purpose of the lymphatic system? | defends the body against infection and removes waste products |
| vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called | efferent lymphatic vessels |
| what is the largest lymphatic organ? | spleen |
| Lymph is transported through the lymphatic trunk directly to the | collecting ducts |
| What special organs do the larger lymphatic vessels lead to? | lymph nodes |
| What part of the lymph system acts as a filter? | nodes |
| what lymphatic organ is located in the mediastinum between the aorta and the sternum? | thymus |
| Where does the lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty? | right subclavian vein |
| Once excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatic capillaries, it is known as | lymph |
| The larynx is composed of how many cartilages? | three single and three paired |
| What part of the lower respiratory system does air travel to and from the lungs through a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage? | trachea |
| During inhalation, the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move | forward and slightly upward |
| The amount of air that enters and and leaves the lungs with each natural respiration is known as | tidal air |
| The small spaces between neurons are called? | synapses |
| What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending fromk the other? | bipolar |
| The part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord is the | medulla oblongata |
| What are the three major parts of the brain? | cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem |
| What is the function of the inferior of the cerebrum? | storing knowledge |
| What is the name of the large intersection of interlaced spinal nerves? | plexus |
| What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight? | optic |
| what cranial nerve conveys taste? | glossopharyngeal |
| The "fight-or-flight" reaction is controlled by the | sympathetic nervous system |
| The parasympathetic nervous system is designed to | prevent extensive overworking of the body |
| Where is the sigmoid colon located in the abd cavity? | LLQ |
| The layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substances through the canal is the | muscular |
| What part of the alimentary canal is between the pharynx and the stomach? | esophagus |
| The ileocecal vavle in the small intestine connects to the | jejunum |
| What is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth? | frenulum |
| What is the difference in the number of pirmary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will develop? | 12 |
| Where will undigested chime go after leaving the ileum? | cecum |
| Which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body? | colon |
| What glad secretes a substance to moisten food particles and help with swallowing? | salivary |
| What liquid is produced by the liver and stores in the glaabladder? | bile |
| Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the | thoracic to the lumbar spinal region |
| What is the primary function of the renal cortex? | protect kidney functions in the renal medulla |
| Backflow of the urine into the ureters is prevents by | a flap of mucous membrane |
| The urge to urinate is usually first experienced with the bladder contains app. how many millimeters of urine? | 250 |
| What part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations? | nephron |
| The tests are two oval shaped structures that are made of? | connective tissue |
| The coiled tubule located on the top and to the side of each testis is the | epididymis |
| What is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body? | urethra |
| Where are sperm cells produced? | testes |
| Fluid is secretes from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the | ejaculatory duct |
| What is the inner wall of the uterus called? | endometrium |
| What happens to the ovum after a sperm fertilizes it? | travels to the uterus and attaches to the endometrium |
| The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when | ovum is released from one of the ovaries |
| What is the term used to describe the firist menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached? | menarche |
| What hormone is secreted during the menstrual cycle? | progesterone |
| The pituutary gland is divided into 2 sections called the | anterior lobe and posterior lobe |
| Which organ secrets the adrenocorticotrophic hormone? | anterior lobe of pituitary gland |
| Which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones? | thyroxine |
| Which part of the adrenal gland makes up the most of it? | adrenal cortex |
| Which would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit? | obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight |
| What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process? | patient's condition and the facility policy |
| While admitting a patient, you notice the patient seems dizzy and unstable. What should you do? | inform the murse that the patient is at risk for falling |
| Who authorizes transfer of a patient care for an interservice transfer? | both service chiefs |
| during the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, how are patient's valuables safeguarded? | designated custodians sign for the property, and forwards the items by registered mail. |
| Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours | pass |
| Verbal orders must be coutersigned by the physician within | 24 hours |
| The most common forms that the medical technician will be responsible for completing are the | intake and output flow sheet and vital signs record |
| What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet? | circle last accumulated total |
| In an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, you would assume the | vital signs were not completed |
| Which nursing activity is the main aspect for resolving nursing diagnoses? | planning |
| Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal? | a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior |
| Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals most effectively? | nursing interventions |
| What is a way to help realive most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery? | preoperative teaching |
| What has a significiant impact on the patient's percieved quality of care and treatment? | prifessionalism and a caring attitude |
| The surgery patient is given medication to | dry mucous membranes |
| Which surgical case would likely be performed in a Same Day Surgery clinic? | odonectomy |
| Without provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed | 30 |
| What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant? | isolation is necessary |
| When performing a neurological check on a patient, which examination would indicate an appropiate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes? | pupils equal, round, reactive to ligts and accommodations (PERRLA) |
| With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient's transfusion on | Standard Form 518 |
| What component of blood is involoved in the clotting process? | platelets |
| How is whole blood normally supplied? | 450 cc units |
| What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products? | 30 |
| If patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspena. What should you do first? | stop the transfusion |
| A post-operative patient who is agitated, thrashing violently or crying incessantly is most likely experiencing | emergence delirium |
| Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning? | semisitting |
| A fracture that results from disease such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called | pathologic |
| Orthopaedic deformities such as clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as | congential |
| military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what ortopedic problems? | traumatic injuries |
| The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it | promotes flexion deformities of the hip |
| What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness or aching? | muscular pain |
| Which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture? | gender |
| The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as | phantom limb pain |
| What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb? | tourniquet |
| rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally | a life-long process |
| Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause | cardiac arrest |
| During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to | sustain life |
| During which child developmental stage is seperation anxiety the most stressful? | preschool |
| Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control? | established daily rituals and routines |
| The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they loose their sense of control is | regression |
| When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be | dehydration |
| What is not a appropiate reason to restrain a child? | you have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child |
| The amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally | less because of frequent daytime naps |
| How would you help stimulate the appetit of an elderly patient? | ceter to the patient's customs |
| The first stage of dying is | denial |
| What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissues | extravasation |
| all that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed | personality |
| What affects an individuals feeling about themselves? | self perception |
| Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions? | compulsion |
| Which psychiatric term defines a functional disorder where there is not gross disorganization of personality or a loss of contact with reality? | neuroses |
| a paitent who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of | withdrawl |
| How are behavior disorders and snydromes grouped into categories? | shared characteristics or established criteria |
| When does the rehabilition process begin with mentall ill patients? | as soon as patient is admitted |
| What major problem affects mental health treatment? | attitude of society |
| When observing and reporting mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is | behavior |
| If you see a mentally ill patient sneek out of the nursing unit, what would you not want to do? | leave the other patients to following the one escaping |
| Who is at fault for the sexual abuse of child? | abuser |
| What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of show signs of abuse such as burns and bruises? | report the suspected abuse |
| What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse? | spouse states it will never happen again |
| If a patient is being restrained, what position should he or she be in if the patient is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extreely agitated? | prone |
| For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to | plan activities in conjunction with pain medications |
| When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, you primary goal should be to | develop a good rapport |
| What should you do to help patients who are becoming angry and hostile? | allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression |
| To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every | 2 hours |
| Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing | maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and neck strain |
| Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your | base of support |
| Which technique for moving the patient up in bed is not used to a patient who has back or chest injuries? | shoulder-lift |
| When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient? | raise the far side rail |
| When trasferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by | using goods teamwork and proper body mechanics |
| a patient's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent | pressure on the back of the legs |
| Which devices can be used to slide a patient from teh bed to a stretcher? | drawsheet and roller board |
| When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands? | beside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient;s near arm |
| Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs? | four-point |
| Which gait is used by patient's who ca bear full body weight on one foot and parital or no weight on teh other? | three-point |
| isometric exercises are activities that involve | muscle contraction without body movement |
| Care must be taken to ensure patients do not hole their breath while performing isometric exercises as they may cause | heart attack |
| What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty shewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract? | liquid |
| The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be gien for more than 3 days is | clear liquid |
| What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage? | room temp |
| What most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease? | micro-organism |
| Which classification of organism is responsible for the diesaes malaria? | sporoza |
| Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the paticular disease? | incubation |
| The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through | cilia |
| Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure? | airborne |
| What is the most serious type of meningitis? | bacterial |
| One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is | pelvic inflammatory disease |
| Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms? | surgical asepsis |
| Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue? | antiseptic |
| What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in? | contact |
| What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department? | give patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport |
| An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is | isolation cart |
| When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on | before entering, and take it off before leaving |
| What is the first step in preparing objects for steriliaztion? | cleaning |
| How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic? | 12 minutes |
| What is not a commonly used disinfecting agent? | hydrochloric acid |
| How often do you clean and inspect steam steralizers? | daily and weekly |
| Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic sterilizer every | 24 hours |
| How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers? | at least once per day |
| Which basic human need category is rest included in? | psychological |
| Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells? | B-complex vitamins |
| What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis? | Iron |
| plasma lipid include what 3 substances? | triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol |
| What 2 actions are included in the physiological need for rest? | pain free and rest |
| What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs? | Moro |
| A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age? | 24 months |
| What is most likely to be part of a work site wellness program? | blood pressure screenings |
| What substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12? | intrinsic factor |
| B12 deficiency are first noted by? | pernicious anemia |
| vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through? | freezing |
| Large doses of vitamin C will not cause | constipation |
| Vitamin D will not interact with | calcium |
| A primar sign of a vitamin E overdoes is readily seen through the disease process of | prolonged clotting times |
| vitamin K is not used to treat what ailment? | heparin overdose |
| What vitamin is not fat-soluable? | vitamin C |
| signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen | through an excessive amount of fluid loss |
| Half-normal saline solution is represents by | 0.45% |
| potassium helps to maintain | heartbeat regulation |
| oral iron supplements should not be taken with | tea, milk, of coffee |
| Which route is injectable iron administered? | Z-track |
| When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as | anabolism |
| Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of | enzyme |
| electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called | acids |
| When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by | acetone in the breath and urine |
| What is an accurate definition of leukocytes? | protect against disease at the cellular level |
| the two main categories of leukocytes are | granulocytes and agranulocytes |
| neutrophils are also known as | polymorphonecular leukocytes |
| The life span of a lymphocyte is | years |
| What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisma? | lymphocytes and macrophages |
| When a child scrapes his or her hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will become enlaged? | supratrochlear |
| Children who receiveroutine immunizations are protected by | artifically acquired active immunity |
| The body's first step in the healing precess is | inflammation |
| During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed? | inflammation |
| The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage? | reconstruction |
| full maturation of a wond is evident when | the scarring is white and glossy |
| FOr many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medicla conditions, their first psychological reaction is | shock and disorientation |
| What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or repiratory arrest? | hyperkalemia |
| What acid-based imbalance is likely to occur when a patient has excessive vomiting, excesive suctioning or ingested too many antacids? | metabolic alkalosis |
| Which acid-based imbalance is caused by hyperventilating? | respiratory alkalosis |
| Deficiency is respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called | respiratory acidosis |
| TO avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer than | 8 hours |
| When selecting an IV solution, what size bag in cc would you possibly be able to select from? | 100 to 2000 cc |
| Normally, how high above patients should you hang an IV solution bag? | 24 to 36 inches |
| If at patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an IV solution, what should you do? | slow the infusion |
| How much fecal material should you collect to send to the laboratory for a stool specimen? | 2 tablespoons |
| after obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for | 2 to 3 minutes |
| During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away? | it contain epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results |
| What step should you take before operating a glucose meter? | read the operating instructions |
| The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dl) is | 70 to 115 mg/dl |
| In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's | complaints |
| A proctoscopy is an inspection of the | rectum |
| What position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy? | sims |
| When educating the patient with PFB on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patietn to avoid all but | shaving in the opposite direction of hair growth |
| How do you measure the visual field? | determine the degrees away from fixation |
| When asking if the patient wears glasses, contact lenses, or ever had an eye problem prior to conducting an Optic 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patient's responses will determine | sequence of test performance |
| How many test slides are included in the standard test category of the Optec 2300 Vision Tester (OVT) | seven |
| How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the PIP test? | 30 |
| When preforming a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at 1 second or forced vital capacity percentage is less than | 80 |
| During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are | 2; 3 |
| Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate? | sinoatrial node |
| Where are the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate? | left ventricle |
| any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called | artifacts |
| If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of the electrocardiogram must be sent to the | US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library |
| For orthostatic vital sign measurements, what is the correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse; and what is the correct time interval between readings? | lying, sitting, standing; 3 minutes |
| Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation falls below | 97% |
| When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils should | constrict quickly and simultaneously |
| When can the minor surgery procedure begin? | after the consent form is signed |
| When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step? | flush the wound |
| After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires reatment, what should you do next? | assess sensory awareness |
| In the AF how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance? | daily |
| How much vacuum must sunction units provide when the tube is clamped? | 300 mm Hg |
| Which emergency response refers to an emergency, responding with lights and sirens on? | code 3; hot |
| When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what informaiton should you not broadcast? | name |
| In the AF you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only | when local protocol authorizes it |
| The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the EMT is called | scene sizeup |
| If a patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than 8 breaths per minute, provide | ventilations with a BVM and high flow O2 |
| A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with | significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are |
| When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about | provocation |
| While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine? | quality |
| When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first | make sure all straps are secured on the patient |
| If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should | not block the fluid from draining |
| While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect? | basal skull fracture |
| Which acronym is used by EMTs in the field to describe a possible fracture? | painful, swollen deformity (PSD) |
| While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he has spalahed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first? | if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type |
| In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system? | right atrium |
| When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay paticular attention to and fix if it is not correct is the | electrocardiogram tracing date and time |
| A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a | clinical pharmacist |
| Out of the several names given to each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacurer? | trade name |
| What is not considered one of the patients' legal and ethical rights? | choose the method of administration |
| What is not included in the five rights of medication administration? | right documentation |
| What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once? | stat |
| A provider can initiate a drug order in how many ways? | 2 |
| drug administration is controlled primarily by | federal law |
| what classification of drugs is not acceptable for medical use | schedule 1 |
| narcotics, such as codine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have accpetable medical uses are classified as | schedule 2 |
| What law requires periodic inventory of all controlled substances? | controlled substances act |
| Penicillin administration to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs? | curative |
| the purpose of most drug therapy is to | maintain constant level of the drug in the body |
| why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting | lower digestive system content |
| how do ambient temperatures affect drug action? | warmer temps increase circulation and cause rapid drug action |
| what is a common refrence source for drugs? | physician's desk reference |
| What publication contains a list of medication availiable from the MTFs pharmacy, recommended dispensing instructions, and administration guidelines? | local facility formulary |
| Any oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preparation called a | liniment |
| what type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregulat heart action | antiarrhythmics |
| what type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content | cathartics |
| What is not required on a medication order? | patients age |
| howmany pounds are equal to 65 kg | 143 |
| What is true regarding subcutaneous injections? | only small amounts of a drug may be administered |
| the method of perenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into the muscle is? | intramuscular (IM) |
| where are subcutaneous injections commonly administered? | upper arms |
| what method of administration delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system? | oral |
| to prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medication being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location? | at the patient's bedside |
| what is a disa | monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult |
| What is proper procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient? | asses patient's vital before, during, and after therapy |
| into what body cavities are otic medications administered? | external auditory canal |
| to administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you generally pull the earlobe | down to straighten the canal |
| When administering a vaginal douche, how high above teh patient's vagina do you hang the bag? | 12 to 18 inches |
| opioids are contraindicted with | head injury treatment |
| anit-inflammatory actions are associated with | curing joint dysfunctions |
| What is not true of teh nonsterodial anti-inflammatory drugs? | raises prostaglandin levels |
| what central nervous stimulant is obtained over teh counter, taken frequently in prolonged doses producing habituation and psychological dependence? | caffeine |
| selective serotonin inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which chemical neurotransmitter? | serotonin |
| antianxiety medications are prescribed for | the treatment of insomnia |
| antipsychotic medications are categorized as | major tranquilizers |
| which medication potentiates the effects of analgesics when combined with antipsychotics? | phenergan |
| the effects of cardiac glycosides is to | strengthen the heartbeat |
| before the administration of digitalis, what pulse point is important to check? | apical |
| adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with | lung conditions that cause bronchospasm |
| calcium channel blockers suppress the action of calcium during contration of the heart by | reducing the cardiac excitability and dilation of the main coronary arteries |
| contraindications for procainamide include persons with known | congestive heart failure |
| quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to | maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion |
| the most common side effect of antihypertensives is | postural hypotension |
| angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by | decreasing vasoconstriction |
| when ACE inhibitors are taken in conjuction with diuretics or vasodilators, what affect is produced? | potentiate hypotension |
| central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are combines with | diuretics |
| the antidote for bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy is to administer | vitamin K |
| undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatmetn post surgically to prevent | deep vein thrombosis |
| the most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is | bleeding |
| antiacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of what | constipation |
| what type of laxative is sorbitol? | hyperosmotic |
| among the endocrine medications, what drug action category do adrenal corticosteroids fall within? | supportive |
| acute adrenal insufficiency, shock and possibly death can result from | an abrupt withdrawal of adrenal corticosteroids therapy |
| Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with | alcohol an dsalicylates |
| What is not a symptom og type 2 diabetes | excessive weight loss |
| Which of the following medication can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest? | theophyline |
| the influenza vaccine is manufactured | to cure the flu strain for the year |
| What vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products? | influenza |
| hepatitis a is contracted through the transmission of | contaminated food or water |
| how many doses are given in a series of hepatitis B vaccine regiment? | 3 |
| which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the air force? | tetanus |
| which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit? | yellow fever |
| what type of a medication would you expect a patient with seasonal allergies to take on a regular basis? | anithistimines |
| when a patient has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing, what patient education would be appropiate? | do not chew the capsule |
Created by:
mandycheer101