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immunology AAB PER
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| immune deficiency characterized by thrombocytopenia at birth | Wiskott-aldrich syndrome |
| T-cell subset enumeration by flow cytometry would be most useful in making the diagnosis of which immune disease caused by congenital thymic hypoplasia | Digeorge syndorme |
| sexlinked immunodificiency disorder with absence of plasma cells resulting in the lack of antibody production | Bruton's agammaglobulinemia |
| disease results from a defect in neutrophils and is characterized by recurrent bacterial infections | chronic granlomatous disease |
| diagnostic laboratory test for aquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) | <200 CD4+ T cells |
| what is the most commonly performed confirmatory method for HIV infection | western blot |
| HIV infection is transmitted in all of the following ways except which one | sneezing and coughing |
| AIDS patients characteristically show a deficiency in which one of the following | T lymphocytes |
| ovarian cancer | CA 125 |
| Mantoux skin test is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction | type IV |
| what is the most popular serological test for the diagnosis of toxoplasma gondii | elisa |
| seriological method is routinely used for rubella testing | elisa |
| good screening test for determining immunity to the rubella virus | IgG antibody test |
| what test for cytomegalovirus has problems with false positives | indirect immunofluorescence |
| cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection can be diagnosed by which of the following serological tests | IgM and IgG antibody test |
| most common seriological test for varicella zoster virus (ZVZ) | elisa |
| which of the following is the cause of chickenpox | varicella zoster virus |
| which of the following methods has a high degree of specificity when typing the herpes simplex virus (HSV) | elisa |
| method is used to serotype the herpes simplex virus | direct fluorescent antibody method |
| which herpes simplex virus (HSV) can cause urogenital infections | both HSV-1 and HSV-2 |
| Hepatitis vaccination for healthcare workers protects against which viral agent(s) | HBV |
| which type of hepatitis is associated with eating shellfish | hepatis A |
| cold agglutinins may develop after an infection cause by which organism | mycoplasma pneumoniae |
| which of the following cold reasting antibodies is present in infections of mycoplasma pneumoniea | anti-I |
| what is the incubation tempurature for a patient sample in the cold agglutinin test | 4c |
| anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies are associated with which autiimmune disease | good pastures syndrome |
| major autoantigen of the thyroid gland | thyroglobulin |
| a positive anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti RNP) in the antinuclear antibody group is suggestive of which autoimmune disease | mixed connective tissue disease |
| which pattern of fluoresence in the anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) test is most closely associated with active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) | homogenous |
| what does the presence of C-reactive protien in a patients serum indicate | inflammation |
| statement is true concerning the rheumatoid factor latex test | synovial fluid may be the source of antibody |
| the rheumatoid factor (RF) latex slide test uses diluted patients serum plas latex caoste with which one of the following | antihuman globulin |
| which of the following antibodies is directed against teh Fc portion of the IgG | RF |
| which of the following can interfere with the cryptococcal antigen latex agglutination test | RF |
| The cryptococcal antigen test is rapidly replacing which lab test | india ink |
| the titer must be greater than 1:512 in order to diagnose which fungal disease | aspergillosis |
| antibodies to brucella abortus will cross-react with which other organism | francisella tularensis |
| what do the widal and weil-felix test detect | febrile agglutinatinins |
| what are the OX19 and the OX2 antigens | strains of Proteus vulgaris |
| the weil-felix tes is used for the detection of which type of antibodies | rickettsia |
| in the widal test | what does the O titer indicate |
| which antigen is used to determine the somatic antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria | O |
| The davidsohn differential test of uses what type of blood cells | horse |
| what is the principle of the davidsohn heterophil antibody test | differentiates three types of heterophil antibodies |
| which statment describes forssman antibodies | absorbed by guinea pig kidney antigen |
| in the heterophil antibody test, which of the following consitutes a positive reaction | agglutination |
| what type of red blood cell is used in the paul-bunnell heterophil antibody test | sheep |
| how is the heterophil antibody test reported | highest dilution that shows agglutionation |
| what is the causitive agent of infectious mononucleosis | EBV |
| which streptococcal extracellular product dissolves firbin clots | streptokinase |
| which of the following is not a streptococcal extracellular product | isomernase |
| how is the serum titer in the antistreotolysin O (ASO) test reported | todd ot international units |
| in ASO, why should Streptolysin O not be rehydrated unitl it is needed | is destroyed by oxygen |
| principle of the antitreptolysin O tube test | hemolysis-inhibition |
| what is a positive reaction in the antitryptolysin O slide test | agglutination |
| what does the antistreptolysin O (ASO) test measures the patients serum | antibody to streptolysin O |
| GAS antigen | group A streptococcal |
| in nontreponemal test, serum that gives a reactive serological teat that is not caused by syphilis results in which one of the following | false positive |
| which test is less likely to be reactive in primary and early secondary syphils | MHA-TP |
| What is the purpose of the antibody conjugate (anti-immunoglobulin with a fluorscein isothiocyanate label) in the FTA-ABS test | makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible |
| A FTA-ABS test is used to identify which of the following in the patients serum | treponemal antibody |
| which of the following serves as the absorbent in the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test | treponema pallidum, Reiter strain |
| which one of the following is a requirement of the treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test | living treponema pallidum |
| the RPR test is rotated at what speed for what length of time | 100 rpm for 8 miutes |
| the RPR antigen needle will deliver how many drops | 60drops/mL |
| what is the antigen used in the RPR test | cardiolipin with added charcoal |
| which test for syphilis uses plastic-coated cards | RPR |
| Which statement is true concerning the RPR test | it does not require an inactivation of serum |
| which of the following represents the reported titer in a quantitative VDRL test | highest dilution giving a reactive result |
| when is the quantitative VDRL test performed | to titer reactive and weakly reactive results |
| if the VDRL test shows small clumps of antigen with many free partivles, how should it be reported | weakly reactive |
| what is the serum:antigen ratio in any VDRL test | 3:1 |
| if the interval between heating the serum for the VDRL test and testing exceeds 4 hours, how long should the serum be reheated for | 56C for 30 minutes |
| inactivation of sera for seriological tests is performed for what purpose | destruction of complement |
| what is the stability of the VDRL antigen suspension | 24 hours |
| hoe much should saline needles for the quantitative VDRL test deliver | 100 drops/mL |
| what reaction occurs between the antibody and the antigen in the VDRL test | flocculation |
| what role does cardiolipin play in VDRL test | it is the neotreponemal antigen |
| patients with syphils develop an antibody response to which substance | cardiolipin |
| ina negative complement fixation test, what will happen to the red blood cells | hemolysis |
| how is a positive patient reaction expressed in a complement fixation test | inhibition of hemolysis |
| in the complement fixation test, the positive control should show which reaction | no hemolysis |
| what should occur when controls for complement fixation tests are used to check for anticomplementary factors | hemolysis |
| what is the purpose of antisheep hemolysin in a complement fixation test | sensitizes sheep red blood cells |
| what is used to sensitize red blood cells in the complement fixiation test | antisheep hemolysin |
| what is the indicator in the complement fixation test | sheep red blood cells |
| complement fixation tests contain which two systems | test and indicator system |
| which immunoglobulin is measured in the radioallergosrbent (RAST) test | IgE |
| In the enzyme-linked immunosobent assay (ELISA), what is the antihuman globulin conjugated with | horseradish peroxidase |
| which of the following can be attached to a solid phase support (e.g.,polystyrene) | antibody or antigen |
| which fluorochrome can be used in fluorescent stain technique to give an exceedingly bright fluorescence to rapidly identify microrganisms in tissue or culture | biotin avidin |
| which of the following is the energy source of fluorscence microscopes | mercury vapor lamp |
| which fluorochrome gives off a red emission at 580nm | tetramethylrhodamine isothiocyanate |
| which of the following fluorochromes gives a minimal false reading | fluoroscein isothiocyanate |
| why have ENZYME IMMUNOASSAYS REPLAced radioimmunoassays | there are hazards and regulations associated with radioimmunoassay |
| technique that is the antiserum applied directly to the plaste using strips of agarose or cellulose actate | immunofixation |
| another name for one-dimensional single electroimmunodiffusion | rocket |
| electroimmundiffusion is directed movement of antigen or antigen and antibody in which type of media | semisolid media |
| immunoelectrophoresis is used to identify | bence jones proteins |
| electrophoretically abnormal protein displaced from the normal position | gull wing |
| combonation of electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion | immunoelectrophoresis |
| in double radial diffusion, which of the following shows that the antigens are not identical | lines of partial intersection |
| antigen and antibody are both free to move toward each other to form a precipitate in which immunological technique | one-dimensional diffusion |
| random movement of antigen or antibody to form antigen-antibody complexes in semisolid medium occurs in which immunological technique | immunodiffusion |
| binding strength of antibody for an antigen | avidity |
| antigen structurally similar to the original antigen the induced antibody production | cross-reactivity |
| clinical test to be positive in the absence of its homologous antigen | sensitivity |
| why cant monoclonial antibodies be used in complement fixation tests | they cannot fix complement |
| all of the following are limitations of monoclonal antibodies from a hybridoma except | can be adapted to many immunological binding assays |
| hybridoms are formed from which one of the following | b lymphocytes |
| how are monoclonal antibodies prepared | fuse b lymphocytees with a plasma myeloma cell |
| effective phagacytosis occur in the presence of which | opsonins |
| hemagglutination test | agglutination test in which the antigens are located on the red blood cells |
| precepitation reaction is converted to an agglutination reaction by increasing the size of the antigen | indirect agglutination |
| when the most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen | zone of equivalence |
| proxone effect | excess antibody |
| combination of soluble antibody with soluble antigen to produce insoluble complexes in the principle of | precipitation |
| reaction caused by IgG antibody binding to the surface of a red blood cell causing a reversible reaction | sensitization |
| antigen-antibody binding is affected by all of the following excpet | enzyme concentration |
| end product of complement activation | cell lysis |
| complement present in the highest concenrtation | c3 |
| component not involved in the alternate pathway | c1 |
| strong chemotactic factor as well as as anaphylatoxin | c5a |
| complement complex is know as the membrane attack unit | c56789 |
| order of activation of complement | c1,c4,c2,c3 |
| complement component of the recognition phase | c1q |
| not a characteristic of complement | they are all designated by numbers |
| small peptide formed during complement | anaphylatoxin |
| not true concerning complement | complement proteins are heat liable |
| not a function of the complement system | involved in the production od antibodies |
| rapid antibody production to an elevated level the persists for a long time | anamnestic response |
| secondary response | IgG |
| first immunoglobulin | IgM |
| immunoglobulin molecule referred to as the hinge region | CH1 and CH2 |
| Fc which fragment of the antibody molecule | crystallizable |
| denotes the antigen-binding fragment | Fab |
| proteolytic enzyme the fragments IgG in three fragments | papain |
| how many IgG classes | 4 |
| antibody determined by the antigenic variation found primarily in which region | constant region of heavy chain |
| region contains the disulfide bridge | constant |
| resonsible for antigen binding | variable |
| basic immunoglobulin structure | 2 light 2 heavy |
| serve as a screening test for allergies | IgE |
| Immunoglobulin in decreasing order in normal serum | g,a,m,d,e |
| associated with secondary component | IgA |
| predominant in body secretions | IgA |
| immunoglobulin dimer | IgA |
| J chain | IgM and IgA |
| most effective agglutination | IgM |
| function as an antigenic receptor site on the surface of B lymphocytes | IgM |
| not ture concerning IgG | it has four subclasses |
| increases during the convalescence phase of infection | IgG |
| good precipitation | IgG |
| abundant plasma immunoglobulin | IgG |
| most antibodies migrate in which region during serum protein electrophoresis | gamma |
| heterologous antigen react with | an antibody whose production it did not induce |
| reactive sites on an antigen known as | determinants |
| substance is the most potent antigen | proteins |
| macromolecule that is capble od elicting formation of immunoglobulins | antigen |
| not a class II gene products | HLA-DD |
| not a class I gene product | HLA-DR |
| major histocompatibility complex is important in all of the following except | acute hemolytic transfusion reaction |
| major histocompatibility complex | the genes that control expression of the HLA antigens |
| main function of polymorphonuclear white blood cells | phagocytosis |
| WBC becomes macrophages | monocyte |
| B lymphocytes tranform into cells that produce antibody molecule | plasma cells |
| surface immunoglobulin receptor | B cells |
| humoral immune response | plasma cells |
| lymphoid stem cell that differentiate in the bone marrow | B cells |
| not a surface markers for T cells | CD16 |
| T cell acts specifiacally to kill tumor cells and virally infected cells | cytotoxin t cells |
| regulate the function of phagocytosis cells | lymphokines |
| production of antibodies is turned off by which cells | supressor t cells |
| main function of T-helper cells | assist B cells in producing antibody |
| T cells are involved with which of the following | cell-metiated immunity |
| differentiation of T cells occur | thymus |
| thymus-dependent | t cells |
| B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes produced | bone marrow |
| organs or system are capable of responding to circulating antigens with the production of specific lymphocytes and plasma cells | lymph nodes and spleen |
| considered to be a primary lymphoid organ | thymus |
| mediated by antibodies | humoral immunity |
| recieving a vaccination is a example of | artificail active immunity |
| capable of eliciting an immune response | immunogen |
| nonspecific killing of tumor cells | NK cells |
| important role in making bacteria susceptible to osmotic lysis | lysozymes |
| elevated tempurature during an infection | innate immunity |
Created by:
geebs28