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Surgical Tech Final
Southern Union Surgical tech final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| A closed system of blood vessels that transport blood away from the heart to the body's tissues and back to the heart" refers to the? A.Cardiovascular system B. peripheral vascular system. C. Urinary System D. Brain | peripheral vascular system. |
| A bier block is used when surgery is being done on the? A. Torso B. Extremities C. Neck D. toe | Extremities |
| A bulky dressing is used post-operatively for a carpal tunnel release to? A.Stop bleeding B. prevent infection C. no dressing is used D. restrict movements of the wrist. | restrict movements of the wrist. |
| A congenital collection of abnormal vessels of the brain that increase in size with time best describes a A. Aneurysm B. Vein C. arteriovenous malformation D. You have no idea | arteriovenous malformation |
| A deep groove in the brain is called a? A. Pit B.fissure C.sulcus D.Groove | fissure |
| A fogarty balloon catheter is used for? A.arterial embolectomy B.Drainage C. prevent injury to other organs D. no such catheter | arterial embolectomy |
| A fracture at the distal end of the radius in which the smaller fragment is displaced posteriorly is called? A. Comminuted fracture B.Colles fracture C.Greenstick fracture D.Compound Fracture | Colles fracture |
| A fracture where healing has not taken place in the usually amount of time is referred to as an? A.Union B. Delayed Union C. restricted union D. Non healing fracture | Delayed union |
| A loosening of a joint with some displacement of the articular surface from the joint capsule is called a/an? A. Subluxation B. Luxation C. Arthritis D. Joint replacement | Subluxation |
| A patient goes in for an anterior cruciate ligament repair. The surgeon plans to use the patients patellar tendon. This is an example of which type of graft? A. Heterograft B. Autograft C. xenograft D. Split thickness graft | Autograft |
| Where is Aqueous Humor found? A. fills the space between the cornea and the iris B. fills the center of the eye C. Iris, ciliary D.Nasal cavity | fills the space between the cornea and the iris |
| Where is Vitreous Humor found? A. fills the space between the cornea and the iris B. fills the center of the eye C. Iris, ciliary D.Nasal cavity | fills the center of the eye |
| What are the intrinsic muscles of the eye? A. fills the space between the cornea and the iris B. fills the center of the eye C. Iris, ciliary D.Nasal cavity | Iris, ciliary |
| What are the 3 tunics of the eye? A. Iris, ciliary, retina, B. Retina, Sclera, iris, C. sclera, the choroid, and the retina, D. Choroid, Retina, Iris | sclera, the choroid, and the retina |
| A person who completely lacks cones suffers from? A. color blindness B. Far sightedness C. Near sightedness D. astigmatisim | color blindness |
| What is the function of the iris? A. Regulate the amount of light that enters the pupil. B. Regulate the amount of color that enters C. keep out dirt/debris D. Regulate fluid | Regulate the amount of light that enters the pupil. |
| What condition is characterized by excess pressure of the aqueous humor? | Glaucoma |
| What procedure is performed to open blocked tear ducts? | Dacryocystitis |
| A patient goes in for an anterior cruciate ligament repair. The surgeon plans to use the patients patellar tendon. This is an example of which type of graft? | autograft. |
| A potential complication of ischemia of the femoral head is | Avascular necrosis |
| A rotator cuff tear occurs in which region of the body? | shoulder. |
| A shallow groove on the brain is called a________. | sulcus. |
| A short distance from its origin, each primary bronchus divides into_________. | lobar bronchi. |
| A softening of adult bone due to a disorder in calcium and phosphorus metabolism is called_______. | osteomalacia. |
| A tear in the lateral or medial knee cartilage is repaired by performing a/an | menisectomy. |
| A thin layer of gray matter that constitutes the outermost portion of the cerebrum is the______. | cerebral cortex. |
| A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the____or the____. | atrium, peritoneal cavity. |
| After exposure of the femoral artery, the surgeon will want to_______the artery and will ask for a _________. | isolate, right angle. |
| An abnormal opening in the wall between the right and left lower chambers of the heart is known as a__________. | ventricular septal defect. |
| An alternative to cannulation of the aortic root is cannulation of the_________. | femoral artery |
| An iliac artery obstruction can be bypassed with an________. | femoral-femoral bypass. |
| Antiemetics helps to relieve_____. | Nausea |
| At its distal end, the tibia expands to form a prominence on the inner ankle called the_________. | medial malleolus. |
| Bending the foot downward at the ankle is referred to as______. | plantar flexion. |
| Bone grafts are usually taken from the________. | iliac crest. |
| Cardiopulmonary bypass is required for which of the following procedures? | ASD. |
| Cellicks maneuver is also known as______. | Cricoid pressure. |
| Cortical bone screws are for_____. | hard outer bone. |
| Delicate polypropylene suture can be tagged with a_________. | rubber shod. |
| For a laminectomy with discectomy, the appropriate specimen is______. | disc. |
| How many components are typically implanted on a total knee arthroplasty? | three. |
| Hypothermia is______. | decreased body temperature. |
| If red blood cells are higher than normal, the blood viscosity increases and the blood pressure__________. | increases. |
| Leroy Raney clips are used on________. | scalp edges. |
| Manipulating fragments into alignment without incising the skin and using manual traction is called____________. | closed reduction. |
| Masses of gray matter located deep within the cerebral hemispheres are called the______. | basal ganglia. |
| Microscopic vessels designed to exchange nutrients and wastes between blood and tissue fluid around the cells are known as________. | capillaries. |
| Most CSF is located within the_____ventricle. | lateral. |
| Name the type and number of ribs that join the sternum directly by their costal cartilages | true, seven. |
| Of the following, which is not one of the three major branches of the aortic arch? | Right subclavian artery. |
| Patient position and baricity (dose) is important with______. | spinal anesthesia |
| Posteriorly, the ilium joins the sacrum at the_____. | sacroiliac joint. |
| Scalp bleeding can be reduced by______. | digital pressure, local anesthetic w/epi, and scalp clips. |
| Screws come in which type(s)? | cortical and kirschner. |
| Systole refers to______. | the contraction phase of the heart. |
| The anterior and posterior tibial veins unite to form the________. | popliteal vein. |
| The aorta bifurcates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra into the_________. | right and left common iliac arteries. |
| The aqueduct of Sylvius (cerebral aqueduct) connects the____and____ventricle. | third, fourth. |
| What does an AP radiographic film show (how taken)? | AP RADIOGRAPHIC Film must be positioned underneath the patient. |
| What is a myelogram used for? | Evaluates the spine for patients with neck, back, or leg pain |
| What is used to enhance visualization of structures during a diagnostic imaging procedure? | Contrast medium |
| Which diagnostic imaging procedure allows the surgeon to view real-time anatomic structures during the surgical procedure? | Fluoroscopy |
| What is another name for the alimentary canal? | Digestive Tract |
| What are the layers of the digestive tract wall? | Mucosa, Submucosa, Muscularis (externa), Serosa |
| Which nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the stomach? | Vagus Nerve |
| What are the 3 portions of the small intestine? | The duodenum, The jejunum, The ileum |
| Portions of the large intestines? | The cecum, The appendix, the colon, The rectum, The anal canal |
| Where is the appendix? | Your appendix is at the Ileocecul junction, It is located on the right lower quadrant of your abdomen. |
| what is it attached to? | Attached to the Large intestine/Cecum |
| What is the function of the omenta? | Stores fat and limits peritoneal function |
| Which gland has both exocrine and endocrine functions? | Pancreas |
| What is the largest parenchymal (essential) organ in the abdominal cavity? | Liver |
| The area between the alveoli and a respiratory bronchiole is the_________. | alveolar duct. |
| The area that usually occurs in the left cerebral hemisphere and coordinates the complex muscular movements associated with speech is________. | Broca's area |
| The best way to control bleeding on the cut edges of bone is with_______. | bone wax. |
| The bony process which can be involved in an ankle fracture is the | medial malleolus. |
| The cardiac cycle refers to the events taking place_______. | during a single heart beat. |
| The cerebellar hemispheres are connected in the mid line by a structure called the_____. | vermis. |
| The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a deep bridge of nerve fibers called the_______. | corpus callosum. |
| The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a deep bridge of nerve fibers called the________. | corpus callosum. |
| The cerebral hemispheres are separated by a layer of dura mater called_________. | falx cerebri. |
| The coronary arteries arise from the_______. | aorta. |
| The coronary veins empty into the_______. | coronary sinus. |
| The distal and proximal ends of long bones are called______. | epiphyses. |
| The dressing applied at the end of an orthopedic procedure which gives compression to the wound is an | ace or elastic bandage |
| The first cervical vertebra is called the______and the second is the________. | atlas, axis. |
| The heart lies______. | slightly to the left within the mediastinum. |
| The inability of the lung to expand and accumulation of air in the pleural cavity is______. | pneumothorax. |
| The initial step in the body's repair of a fracture involves______. | blood. |
| The left hemisphere is usually associated with_______. | verbal abilities. |
| The main bronchi, pulmonary arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels enter the lung on the medial surface through the_______. | hilum. |
| The microscopic air sacs clustered at the distal ends of the respiratory tubes are the_______. | alveoli. |
| The non dominant hemisphere is not usually associated with______. | analytical thought processes |
| The outermost layer of the meninges is the_______. | Dura mater. |
| The outermost layer of the meninges is the_______. | dura. |
| The pacemaker of the heart is referred to as the_______. | SA node. |
| The potential space between the visceral and parietal pleurae is the________. | pleural space. |
| The prep parameters for a posterolateral thoracotomy are__________. | shoulder and arm to the iliac crest, as far lateral as possible. |
| The pulmonary veins number________. | 4. |
| The purpose of a femoral-popliteal bypass is to___. | restore blood flow to the lower limb. |
| The right lung is divided into_____lobes. | three. |
| The sterile tourniquet cuff is applied | during draping but before other drapes are placed over the upper extremity |
| The structure that extends from the level of the foramen magnum to the pons is the_____. | medulla oblongata. |
| The structures within the ventricles that produce CSF are the_____. | choroid plexuses. |
| The suprarenal arteries feed the________. | adrenals. |
| The surgical excision of a dilated portion of the aortic wall with immediate reconstruction using a synthetic graft is known as an__________. | abdominal aortic aneurysm resection. |
| The typical order for compression plating is______. | drill, depth gauge, tap, screw. |
| The use of screw and plate geometry to apply forces at a fracture site is called_____. | dynamic compression. |
| The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is the________. | mitral. |
| The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is the_______. | tricuspid. |
| The venous cannulation for cardiopulmonary bypass is placed in the_______and the arterial cannula is placed in the___________. | vena cavae, aortic root. |
| The________receives unoxygenated blood from the body. | right atrium. |
| The_______artery supplies blood to the walls of the left atrium and left ventricle. | circumflex. |
| The______pumps blood into the aorta. | left ventricle. |
| The______pumps blood into the pulmonary artery. | right ventricle. |
| The_____serves as a relay station for sensory impulses by channeling them to appropriate regions of the cortex for interpretation_____. | thalamus. |
| The____is the largest of the cranial nerves and has three branches. | trigeminal. |
| The____nerve has autonomic motor fibers that supply the heart and a variety of smooth muscles. | vagus. |
| The____nervous system functions independently and continuously without conscious effort. | autonomic. |
| The____plays a key role in maintaining homeostasis by regulating a variety of visceral activities. | hypothalamus. |
| The___nerve supplies the muscles that act in adjusting the amount of light that enters the eyes. | oculomotor |
| To replace a femoral head, which of the following equipment is/are not necessary? | screw driver. |
| Turning the hand so that the palm is upward is referred to as_______. | supination. |
| Typical suture gauge for a femoral vascular anastomosis is________. | 5-0. |
| Visualization of a joint for diagnosis and conservative treatment of joint disease is called | arthroscopy |
| What are the correct prep parameters for a rotator cuff repair? | The entire affected arm, past the shoulder and up to the border of the neck. |
| What degree scopes are used during knee arthroscopy? | 30 and 70. |
| What is the best temperature for irrigation used on the brain? | body temperature. |
| What is the correct position for a total-hip arthroplasty? | lateral, affected side up. |
| What is the correct statement that describes a variation of an aneurysm? | Atherosclerotic aneurysms are classified as true aneurysms. |
| What is the grading scale for the Outerbridge Test used to measure patella synovium? | Grade 1-6. |
| What is the primary reason for performing a total-hip arthroplasty? | degenerative joint disease. |
| What is the widely used amino amide used in surgery? | lidocaine/hydrochloride |
| What is phacoemulsification used for? | Removal of a cataract |
| Which approach would be best for an aortofemoral bypass? | anterior abdominal. |
| Which arteries supply the neck and head outside of the skull with blood? | External carotid. |
| Which arteries supply the pelvis and perineum with blood? | internal iliac. |
| Which artery supplies the upper portion of the digestive tube, the spleen, and the liver? | Celiac. |
| Which bone articulates proximally with the glenoid cavity? | humerus. |
| Which bone articulates with the distal tibia and fibula? | talus. |
| Which choice indicates the correct sequence of events for clamping of the vessels prior to an arteriotomy? | heparinize patient, apply proximal clamp, apply distal clamp, incise vessel. |
| Which clamp is removed last during a carotid endarterectomy? | internal carotid artery. |
| Which condition results from a failure of the bony structures around the neural tube to close properly during embryonic development? | spina bifida. |
| Which condition results from an obstruction of the flow of CSF, overproduction of CSF, or improper absorption of CSF? | hydrocephalus. |
| Which division of the nervous system is responsible for slowing the heart rate? | Parasympathetic. |
| Which gauge suture is appropriate for closing a carotid arteriotomy? | 6-0 |
| Which graft material cannot be safely used in the popliteal space? | porous Dacron graft. |
| Which graft requires preclotting by the surgical team? | Dacron grafts |
| Which instrument is preferred for removal of a foreign body in the bronchial tree of infants and children? | rigid bronchoscope. |
| Which is the correct position for an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion? | supine with head turned away from the affected side. |
| Which is the longest vein in he body? | greater saphenous. |
| Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedures? | intra-aortic balloon pump. |
| Which medication is always added to injectable saline for intra-arterial irrigation? | Heparin. |
| Which of the following accurately describes the layers of an artery from inner to outer layers? | tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia |
| Which of the following articulates with the head of the femur? | acetabulum. |
| Which of the following hemostatic agent(s) is/are not used in orthopedics? | Xeroform. |
| Which of the following is not a positioning aid for intracranial procedures? | Kocher headrest |
| Which of the following is not considered a sterile procedure? | bronchoscopy |
| Which of the following is usually a result from a tear in the branch of the middle meningeal artey and can cause rapid deterioration? | epidural hematoma |
| Which of the following pieces of equipment would not typically be used during a knee arthroscopy? | insufflator |
| Which of the following statements accurately describes the characteristics of a vein? | Veins have specialized structures called valves. |
| Which of the following statements concerning abdominal aneurysms is correct? | Most abdominal aneurysms arise below the level of the renal arteries. |
| Which of the following statements concerning blood pressure is incorrect? | Venous BP is much higher than arterial BP. |
| Which of the following statements correctly outlines the procedure to turn a bone flap? | incision, raise muscle flap, perforator, crainotome. |
| What is Recession or resection the surgical treatment for? | Used to correct strabismus. Recession is more effective when performed on vertical acting muscles. Resection is more effective on lateral rectus |
| What instrument is used to remove the recipient cornea during keratoplasty? | Trephine |
| Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures? | Reduce Edema |
| What does the term congenital mean? | Present at birth |
| Which term is commonly referred to as the throat? | pharynx |
| What is the name of the lowest tracheal cartilage that forms a ridge between the right and left main stem bronchi? | Carina |
| What is the enlargement of a structure due to an increase in the size of its cells called? | Hypertrophy |
| What does otosclerosis describe? | Middle ear inflammation |
| What is the pinna also know as? | Auricle |
| What are the three sections of the pharynx? | Nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx |
| Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called tonsillectomy? | Palatine |
| Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called adenoidectomy? | Pharyngeal |
| What are the conchae? | osseous ridges on the lateral walls of the nasal cavity |
| What terms describe the concavity on the tympanic membrane where the malleus is attached? | Umbo |
| What is one of the most frequent causes of epiglottitis? | Virus |
| What is a reduction of hearing referred to as? | Deafness |
| What is the usual cause of a vocal cord nodule? | Vocal abuse |
| In what position will the adult patient be placed to undergo tonsillectomy under local anesthesia? | Sitting |
| What is the most common autologous site for securing a graft for tympanoplasty? | temporalis fascia |
| What does Panendoscopy involve viewing of? | Esophagus |
| What structures are removed during UPPP? | tonsils, adenoids, uvula, soft palate |
| Name the structure that separates the outer and middle ear. | Tympanic membrane |
| Which of the following is not a normal feature of the tympanic membrane? | Convex |
| Name the ossicles of the middle ear from lateral to medial. | malleus, incus, stapes |
| What does the footplate of the stapes rest upon? | Oval window |
| What fluid fills the spaces of the bony labyrinth? | Perilymph |
| What is the function of the cristae located in the inner ear? | Control dynamic equillibrium |
| What is the seventh cranial nerve also known as? | Facial nerve |
| What is an otoscope used for? | View outer ear |
| Why is nitrous oxide NOT used during reconstructive ear surgery? | It expands the middle ear |
| What is a Tympanotomy? | An incision into the tympanic membrane |
| Which piece of equipment assumes the role of the heart and lungs while undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass? | pump oxygenator (heart and lung machine) |
| Which portion is generally utilized for lobectomy? | Posterolateral |
| Which procedure includes a prep from midabdomen to toes, with the affected leg prepped circumferentially? | femoral-popliteal bypass. |
| Which procedure involves the release of the median nerve from the transverse carpal ligament? | carpal tunnel release. |
| Which solution should never be found on a back table during a CABG? | Water. |
| What layer binds the skin to the underlying structures? | Subcutaneous |
| What is keratinization? | The process by which cells are hardened to make skin, nails, and hair. |
| Which layer contains hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve fibers? | Dermis or Stratum Corium |
| Which layer of skin functions best as a heat insulator? | Subcutaneous (hypodermis) Layer |
| Which cells contribute to the development of hair at the base of the hair follicle? | Epidermal |
| Which skin layer contains blood vessels to aid in the regulation of body temperature? | Dermal |
| What do sebaceous glands secrete? | oil (sebum) |
| Which three nerves innervate the forearm, wrist, and hand? | Radial, Median, and Ulnar |
| Which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist? | palmaris longus |
| What are the two main arteries that supply the forearm and hand? | Radial, and Ulnar |
| What is a common method of determining the percentage of body surface burned? | Rule of Nines |
| What other pathology often occurs in conjunction with cheiloschisis? | Palatoschisos (cleft palate) |
| What medical term refers to the condition in which the digits of the hands or feet fail to separate? | Syndactyly |
| What is Dupuytren's disease? | Disease of the fascia of the palm and digits. The fascia becomes thick and contracted. Results in flexion deformities of the involved digits. (the condition causing the contraction of palmar fascia) |
| Which structure is attached to the valvular cusps and prevent valves from swinging back into the atria? | chordae tendinea. |
| Which structure makes rapid and complex muscular movements possible? | cerebellum. |
| Which structure prevents the trachea from collapsing? | hyaline cartilage. |
| Which structure supplies the myocardium with oxygenated blood? | Coronary arteries. |
| Which style of cast is applied to the trunk, completely around the affected leg, and half of the unaffected leg? | Hip spica. |
| Which suture is not typically used to attach tendon to bone? | Chromic. |
| Which suture type is appropriate for closing an arteriotomy? | polypropylene. |
| Which type of casting material is more expensive, lightweight, and strong? | fiberglass. |
| Which type of fracture is complete and results in several bony fragments? | comminuted. |
| Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a vessel? | taper. |
| Which type of suture would most likely be used to close the dura on an adult patient? | 4-0 Neurolon |
| Which veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions of the face and neck? | Internal jugular |
| Which vessels must be clamped during a carotid endarterectomy? | common carotid artery, external carotid artery, and the internal carotid artery. |
| With what instrument is an arteriotomy initiated? | #11 blade on a #7 handle |
| Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures? | Reduce Edema |
| What does the term congenital mean? | Present at birth |
| Which term is commonly referred to as the throat? | pharynx |
| What is the name of the lowest tracheal cartilage that forms a ridge between the right and left main stem bronchi? | Carina |
| What is the enlargement of a structure due to an increase in the size of its cells called? | Hypertrophy |
| What does otosclerosis describe? | Middle ear inflammation |
| What is the pinna also know as? | Auricle |
| What are the three sections of the pharynx? | Nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx |
| Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called tonsillectomy? | Palatine |
| Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called adenoidectomy? | Pharyngeal |
| What are the conchae? | osseous ridges on the lateral walls of the nasal cavity |
| What terms describe the concavity on the tympanic membrane where the malleus is attached? | Umbo |
| What is one of the most frequent causes of epiglottitis? | Virus |
| What is a reduction of hearing referred to as? | Deafness |
| What is the usual cause of a vocal cord nodule? | Vocal abuse |
| In what position will the adult patient be placed to undergo tonsillectomy under local anesthesia? | Sitting |
| What is the most common autologous site for securing a graft for tympanoplasty? | temporalis fascia |
| What does Panendoscopy involve viewing of? | Esophagus |
| What structures are removed during UPPP? | tonsils, adenoids, uvula, soft palate |
| Name the structure that separates the outer and middle ear. | Tympanic membrane |
| Which of the following is not a normal feature of the tympanic membrane? | Convex |
| Name the ossicles of the middle ear from lateral to medial. | malleus, incus, stapes |
| What does the footplate of the stapes rest upon? | Oval window |
| What fluid fills the spaces of the bony labyrinth? | Perilymph |
| What is the function of the cristae located in the inner ear? | Control dynamic equillibrium |
| What is the seventh cranial nerve also known as? | Facial nerve |
| What is an otoscope used for? | To look into the ear |
| Why is nitrous oxide NOT used during reconstructive ear surgery? | It expands the middle ear |
| What is a Tympanotomy? | An incision into the tympanic membrane |
| What is the apex of the nose called? | Tip |
| What is the name of the structure that divides the two chambers of the nasal cavity? | Septum |
| Where are the frontal sinuses located? | Within the frontal bone |
| What is the main source of blood supply to the nose? | Internal maxillary artery |
| The olfactory bulb is the tip of which cranial nerve? | Third |
| What is the name of the procedure that is used to change the external appearance of the nose? | Rhinoplasty |
| What may hypertrophic turbinates be treated with? | Sclerosing Agents |
| What is the medical term for the Adam’s apple? Thyroid cartilage | Thyroid cartilage |
| What is the only cartilage in the upper aerodigestive tract to form a complete circle? | Cricoid Cartilage |
| Where is Zenker’s diverticulum found? | Esophagus |
| What is “nerve deafness,” a condition that involves the cochlear portion of the inner ear or the cochlear division of the acoustic nerve also known as? | Sensorineural |
| What is the graft harvested prior to the start of a stapedectomy used for? | To cover the oval window |
| Which instrument is routinely used in ear procedures to pass a prothesis or a graft? | Alligator |
| Which salivary gland is the largest and is located on the lateral sides of the face anterior to the external ear? | Parotid |
| What is a major concern when operating on the parotid gland? | Facial Nerve |
| Which digestive enzyme found in the salivary glands breaks down carbohydrates? | Amylase |
| Which salivary gland is located inferior to the jaw? | Submandibular |
| Which salivary gland is located beneath the mucous membrane that covers the floor of the mouth? | Sublingual |
| Which of the following is a symptom of Ménière’s diseases? | Tinnitus |
| What is the name of the radical antrostomy procedure to provide adequate visualization? | Caldwell-Luc |
| What is another name given to the adenoids? | pharyngeal tonsils |
| Where do nasal polyps originate from? | Mucous Membrane |
| Which portion of the ear is responsible for equilibrium? | Semicircular canals |
| Which structure are the vocal cords located in? | Larynx |
| If acute otitis media is left untreated, which condition may it lead to? | Mastoiditis |
| Ulceration of the esophagus is typically seen in patients who? | Are alcoholic |
| Which instruments are used to remove preoperative packing for a septoplasty? | Speculum, Bayonet |
| During a tonsillectomy, which instrument can be used to put tension on the tonsil during dissection? | Long Allis |
| A patient undergoing a Caldwell-Luc is placed in which surgical position? | Modified Supine |
| Which portion of the pharynx is the most superior? | Nasopharynx |
| The term used to define the inflammation of the nasal mucosa is known as? | Rhinitis |
| epistaxis is the term given to which condition? | Nose bleed |
| what describes the condition known as Otosclerosis? | hardening of the tympanic membrane |
| Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window? | Stapes |
| The largest cartilage in the larynx is the? | Thyroid Cartilage |
| What is Cholesteatoma? | Benign cyst in the mastoid cavity |
| Hemorrhage from the nose is described as? | Epistaxis |
| The olfactory sense is the sense of? | Smell |
| What process normally affects the nasal septum throughout the life span? | Deviation |
| What is cerumen? | Ear Wax |
| What are the 3 ossicles in the ear? | malleus, incus, stapes |
| Name 3 of the salivary glands? | parotid, submandibular, sublinguinal |
| What does the pelvic girdle consists of? | Ilia, Ischia, Pubic bones |
| Where are the Bartholin’s glands located? | on either side of the vaginal opening. |
| What is the pH of vaginal fluid? | Acidic |
| What are the layers of the uterus…in order? | visceral peritoneum, myometrium, and endometrium |
| Which ligament supports the bulk of the ovary? | Ovarian ligament |
| Which ligament are the uterine tubes contained within? | Broad |
| What are the uterine appendages? | Fallopian tubes and ovaries |
| What is a synonym for the fallopian tubes? | uterine tubes or oviducts |
| What causes the descent of the fetus through the pelvic canal? | Uterine contractions |
| In which position is the patient generally placed into for a D and C? | Lithotomy |
| The Pfannenstiel incision is which type of incision? | Lower transverse |
| Where is the internal cervical os? | at the junction between the corpus uteri and the cervix. |
| What are the two hormones from the anterior pituitary that stimulate the ovarian cycle? | Luteinizing hormone (LH) and Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) |
| Where is the most common site for ectopic pregnancy? | Fallopian tubes |
| What is the most significant cause of morbidity during a cesarean section? | Anesthetic problems |
| What is a DeLee suction device used for? | Suctioning oral cavity and nares of newborn |
| Why is posterior colporrhaphy performed? | protrusion or herniation of the rectum into the vagina |
| Why is a Foley catheter used routinely during pelvic procedures? | To drain the bladder in order to help prevent puncturing it. |
| Why is the Trendelenburg position is used? | used to displace the abdominopelvic organs cephalad to provide better visualization of the surgiccal site. |
| What structure is removed during Total abdominal hysterectomy? | uterus |
| Why is a Cerclage performed to? | close an incompetent cervix |
| What is the ovaries function? | Production and expulsion of oocytes (ova, or eggs) |
| Why is a Tuboplasty performed? | reverse previous tubal sterilization. |
| What is the external female genitalia referred to as? | vulva |
| What is the dome-like portion of the uterus called? | Fundus |
| What is the fornix? | The annular recess created by the cervical-vaginal junction |
| What are the parts of the uterus? | Fundus, Corpus, Cervix, Internal OS, External OS |
| Why is a Pap smear performed? | Used for the detection of cervical cancer |
| What is endometriosis? | Benign lesions (an abnormal implantation of endometrial tissue) |
| In which position is the patient placed for a total abdominal hysterectomy? | supine |
| What does Marsupialization indicate?. | That a pouch has been created. |
| A fibroid is a benign tumor found in the? | myometrium |
| Why is Indigo carmine used following tuboplasty? | To test tubal patency |
| What does the term D and C represent? | dilation and curettage |
| What is a Cystocel? | Prolapsed of bladder into the vaginal vault |
| What does Vaginal hysterectomy describe the removal of? | uterus through a vaginal incision |
| Where does arterial blood supply to the uterus come from? | uterine arteries |
| What is the most common reason for the performance of a cesarean section? | Failure to progress |
| What is a Salpingectomy? | Removal of fallopian tube |
| Oopherectomy? | Removal of ovaries |
| How can the STSR aid in the prevention of adhesion formation following pelvic surgery? | Gentle tissue handling, Remove talc from gloves |
| What is the name given for the external female genitalia? | vulva |
| How is the external female genitalia vascularized? | Clitoral, perineal, and inferior hemorrhoidal branches of the pudendal artery and nerve |
| What is the name of the female erectile tissue? | clitoris |
| Which female gland secretes a lubricating mucoid substance? | Bartholin’s Glands |
| The perineum in the female is the area between which two structures? | the inferior vaginal opening and anus. |
| What is the name given to the cervical-vaginal junction? | fornix |
| What is the name of the ligament that suspends the uterus anteriorally? | cardinal |
| Arterial blood supply to the uterus is derived from the uterine branch of which artery? | paired internal iliac arteries |
| The fallopian tubes are divided into four regions. Which are they? | fimbria, isthmus, ampulla, intramural |
| What is the name given to where the fallopian tubes enter into the uterus? | Cornu |
| Arterial blood supply to the fallopian tubes is derived from which arteries? | uterine, ovarian |
| Which two hormones do the ovaries release? | Luteinizing hormone (LH)Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) |
| What hormone does the corpus luteum secrete? | progesterone |
| Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the growth of the uterine lining in preparation for the fertilized egg? | progesterone |
| What drugs are used to induce labor? | Oxytocin, Prostaglandins, Methergine |
| What is the best suture choice for closing an episiotomy? | absorbable suture |
| Which instruments are typically placed onto the fascia during a cesarean section? | Kocher |
| How many counts are performed on a cesarean section? When? | 4 |
| What is the surgical procedure that involves the placement of a large-diameter Dacron or Mersilene tape around the cervix at the internal os? | McDonalds Procedure (Cervical Cerclage)((Shirodkar procedure)) |
| What is a colporrhaphy? | Anterior/Posterior repair (Surgical repair of a cystocele and/or rectocele |
| What is the name given to a fistula that forms between the bladder and vagina? | vesicovaginal fistula |
| What is the medial border of the kidneys that receives the renal blood vessels called? | The Hilum |
| Which outer portion of the kidney contains the the glomeruli? | The Cortex. |
| Which structures unite to form the renal pelvis? | Minor calyces and major calyces. |
| Which aretery provides the blood supply to the kidneys? | The right and left renal arteries. |
| Which muscle is responsible for emptying the bladder and closing the bladder? | The detrusor muscle. |
| Which clinical landmark is marked by ureteral and urethral orifices? | Vesical Trigone. |
| Which artery provides blood supply to the bladder? | Internal Iliac Artery. |
| What is the name of the portion of the skin covering the distal base of the penis that forms a free fold? | Prepuce (foreskin) |
| What is the proximal portion of the male urethra called? | Spongy Urethra. |
| Which portion of the male reproductive system can be found passing thru the spermatic cord and eventually conducting semen into the prostatic urethra? | Prostate Gland? |
| Which rare condition is indicated by an overproduction of cortisol by the cortex of the adrenal gland? | Cushing's Syndrome. |
| Know the 4 basic chemical types of urinary calculi and which accounts for the majority of cases? | Calcium-based stones account for 75% of urinary calculi. b) Struvite or magnesium ammonium phosphate c) Uric acid d) Cystine stones caused by metabolic defect. |
| Which disorder is caused by multiple fluid filled, benign cysts in the parenchyma of the kidney? | Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) |
| Which congenital condition is marked by the absence of the anterior wall of the urethra? | Espispadia |
| Which test can indicate the possibility of prostatic cancer? | Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) |
| Which diagnostic tool involves the use of intravenous dye and radiological films to view the urological system? | Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) |
| Which extraperitoneal incisional option can be used to access the lower portion of the ureter? | Gibson Incision. |
| Know the different types of nephrectomy and what pathology is involved. | Radical (malignancy) Subtotal (biopsy, remove small cancers,remove caculi) Simple (small malignancies, chronic obstructive disorders, benign tumors, kidney transplant) |
| Which surgical procedure involves diverting urine flow through an isolated loop of bowel? | Ileal conduit? |
| What is a Koch pouch? | A continent urinary reservoir fashioned from reconfigured bowel to serve as the holding area for urine. |
| How are adrenalectomies performed? | Endoscopically or traditional incision. |
| What type of suture is appropriate for closure of a ureterotomy? | Absorbable? |
| What are some of the procedures perfored on women with stress incontinence? | Colporrhaphy, Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz (MMK), Stamey procedure. |
| What are the following procedures? Radical orchiectomy- | removal of a cancerous testicle. Entire contents of the hemiscrotum, tunica vaginalis, and spermatic cord are removed. |
| What surgical instrument is used to remove tissue fragments from within the bladder during a Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP)? | Resectoscope |
| Which prostatectomy procedure involves an incision into the bladder to remove the prostate en bloc? | Suprapubic prostatectomy |
| Why is the right kidney located slightly lower than the left? | The location of the liver over the right kidney. |
| Know occurrence info on bladder tumors. | usually present with hematuria. tumors can be benign or malignant. May appear as single growth ,but are often seen in multiples.. |
| Know what complications can occur with a TURP. | bleeding,infection,urethral stricture. |
| circumcisions- | removal of foreskin(prepuce) |
| vasectomy- | partial removal of the vas deferens: performed to render a male sterile. |
| vasovasectomy- | revesal of a vasectomy. |
| Which fluid is acceptable when doing a TURP? | glycine |
| working element- | ESU device that recieves assortment of cautery loop,balls and blades |
| What do the medulla and the cortex of the adrenal glands do? | cortex- secrete steroid type hormones essential to the control of fluid and electrolyte balance in the body.Medulla-secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine. |
| Which muscles surround the kidney? | medial side- psoas, laterally-transverse abdominal muscle, posteriorly-quadratus lumborum |
| What is the vascular supply for the ureters? Kidney, Bladder? | renal artery,superior and inferior vesical arteries |
| How long is the male urethra approximately? Female? | male urethra-20cm -- female urethra- 4cm |
| 41. What is the function of the tunica albuginea? | thick connective tissue that covers most of the testes and turns into the testicular substance at posterior border, forming a mesh like mediastinum testis. |
| 42. What is Cushing’s and Addisons disease? Symptoms? | addisons- under production of cortisol..Symptoms= Weight loss, weakness, fatigue,GI disturbances, low BP, darkening of the skin,Hair loss, dramatic mood & behavior changes.Cushings- over production of cortisol..Symptoms=Central body obesity, Glucose intol |
| What is Pheochromocytoma? | Tumor affecting the medulla of the adrenal gland |
| What is diabetic nephropathy? | Sclerosis(hardening/thickening) of the glomeruli due to uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. |
| What is phimosis? Cryptorchidism? Testicular Torsion, ESRD? | Condition affecting the prepuce, or foreskin.Prevents it from retracting over the glans penis. Cryptorchidism? One or both testicles fail to descend to the final destination in the scrotum after the 1st year of life. Testicular Torsion? Twisting of the Sp |
| Metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) is a nuclear medicine study that is specifically designed to detect which condition? | Detects & locates pheochromocytoma |
| What is the purpose of using an O’Connor shield? | Digital Manipulation |
| What is a Wilm’s tumor? Who does it affect? Treatment? | a malignancy affecting the kidney Who does it affect? children 3-4 YO Treatment? Removal, radiation, chemo |
| If the pleural cavity is entered, what should the STSR anticipate? | Chest Tube insertion is necessary. |
| If seeding of malignant cells is a concern, what might the bladder may be filled with prior to the urethral transaction? | formalin solution |
| The Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz procedure may be performed in conjunction with what procedure? | Stamey Procedure |
| What is a Varicocelectomy repairing? | Performed to prevent a decrease in sperm count |
| If the ureters are difficult to identify when the bladder is opened, what may be used intravenous to facilitate locating the orifices? | Indigo Carmine |
| layers of the skin | epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous |
| layers of the epidermis | stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and stratum basale |
| stratum corneum | approx 20 layers, dead, only keratin |
| stratum lucidum | palms of the hands and soles of the feet |
| stratum granulosum | keratinization begins, keratin is found in hair and nails |
| stratum spinosum | receives the daughter cells |
| stratum basale | reproductive layer, contains melanin |
| layers of the dermis | reticular & papillary layers |
| reticular layer | provides collagen for strength & elastin for pliability |
| papillary layer | contains papilla for fingerprints |
| subcutaneous layer | serves to anchor the skin, adipose & loose connective tissue, provides protection |
| sebaceous glands | secrete oil called sebum |
| sudoriferous gland types | merocrine, apocrine, ceruminous |
| merocrine sweat glands | most of the body, secrete water with some salts |
| apocrine sweat glands | larger, limited to the external genitallia & the axillae |
| ceruminous gland | secretes earwax |
| development of the nose & mouth | first trimester |
| volar surface | palm of the hand |
| dorsal surface or dorsum | back of the hand |
| radial | thumb side of the hand |
| ulnar | medial side of the hand |
| nerves in the hand | radial, median, and ulnar |
| radial nerve | feeling to skin of the forearm & hand, innervates the extensor muscles of the forearm |
| median nerve | innervates the skin of the lateral 2/3 of the hand, flexor muscles of the forearm & several intrinsic muscles of the hand |
| ulnar nerve | feeling to the skin of the medial 1/3 of the hand & some of the flexor muscles of the hand & wrist |
| flexion of the hand | muscles on the anterior aspect |
| extension of the hand | muscles on the posterior aspect |
| sources of burns | heat, radiation, chemicals, gases, or (electricity being the worst) |
| first-degree burn | epidermis |
| second-degree burn | epidermis & dermis to varying degrees, can be deep, blisters |
| third-degree burn | full thickness of the skin & underlying structures |
| fourth-degree burn | damage all tissues & can affect bone density |
| body surface area of burns determined by | rule of nines |
| blepharochalasis | lack of tone or relaxation of the skin of the eyelid |
| dermachalasis | hypertrophy of the eyelid skin |
| ptosis | drooping of the lid due to weakness or paralysis of the levator ooculi |
| neoplasm | new or abnormal growth, can be benign, premalignant, or malignant |
| benign skin lesions | warts, cysts, moles, granulomas & hypertrophic scars |
| malignant skin lesions | basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma |
| cheiloschisis | cleft lip or harlip |
| palatoschisis | cleft palate |
| genetic cleft deformities | 20% |
| radial dysplasia or hypoplasia | club hand, congenital, failure of the radium to develop |
| syndactyly | webbed digits, hands or feet |
| polydactyly | extra digits |
| de quervain's disease | stenosing tenosynovitis, inflammation of the tendons in the first dorsal compartment of the wrist |
| trigger finger | inflammation of the synovial sheath, enlargement of the tendon or narrowing of the annular band or pulley |
| ganglion cyst | benign lesion, containing synovial fluid, most common mass in the hand |
| rheumatoid arthritis | autoimmune disease in the joints |
| gynomastia | man boobs |
| dermatome | instrument used to cut thin slices of skin for grafting, can be oscillating or drum type |
| lidocaine | 0.5, 1, or 2% with or without epi |
| bupivacaine | 0.25, 0.5, or 0.75% with or without epi |
| cocaine | 4% lasts 1-2 hours |
| tetracaine | 2% lasts 1-3 hours |
| sedatives | diazepam and midazolam |
| narcotic analgesics | fentanyl and meperidine |
| hyaluronidase | injected prior to liposuction to reduce bleeding, pain & swelling |
| mineral oil | llubricate graft site for dermatomes |
| liposuction complications | more than 1000cc can cause hypovolemia & other fluid/hemodynamic complications |
| abdominoplasty incisions | low transverse then umtilicus "cookie cutter" |
| types of skin grafts | full-thickness and split-thickness |
| full-thickness skin grafts | 1mm, epidermis & all dermis may include some sub q |
| split-thickness skin graft | epidermis & 1/2 of the dermis |
| dermabrasion | physical sanding of skin with dermabrader, chemicals, and CO2 laser to remove tatoos, wrinkles, embedded dirt or lessen elevated scars |
| incisions for mammoplasty | periareolar line, inframammary fold, axillary crease, or the umbilicus |
| free flap | totally remove the tissue |
| pedicle flap | makes a pocket to stretch the skin to accept an implant |
| dermis | has nerves and blood vessels that supply the skin, hair follicles, nails, and certain glands |
| muscle responsible for flexion of the hand | palmaris longus |
| dupuytren's disease | contracture of the palmar fascia |
| blepharoplasty | surgical repair of the eyelid |
| instruments used in blepharoplasty | small scissors, jewler's forceps, castroviejo needle holders |
| liposuction | not for weight loss |
| abdominoplasty | tummy tuck, for removing fat and excess skin from the mid to lower abdomen |
| homograft | from another person or cadaver |
| heterografts | xenograft from a dissimilar species, pig or calf |
| autograft | from the patient |
| microtia | congenital absence of part or all of the outer ear |
| graft used for microtia | costal cartilage |
| instrument set for microtia | thoracotomy instrument set |
| first step in replantation surgery | bone to bone |
| procedure for radial dysplasia | centralization |
| purpose for breast reduction | removal of hypertrophic male or female treast tissue |
| Cutaneous | the skin is a membrane |
| basale | the layer of the epidermis that undergo mitosis is the stratum |
| corneum | the outermost layer of the epiderrmis that is composed of dead epidermal cells is the |
| subcutaneous | what layer binds the skin to the underlying structures? |
| melanin | the pigment that occurs in the epidermis and absorbs light energy is |
| dermis | which layer contains hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve fibers |
| epidermal | which cells contribute to the development og hair at the base of the hair follicle |
| dermal | which skin layer contains blood vessels to aid in the regulation of body temperature |
| sebum | sebaceous glands secret |
| fisrt degree | what burn classification involves only the epidermis |
| deep second-degree | a burn that destroys the epidermis, dermis, and accessory organs of the skin is |
| homograft | what type of graft is skin harvested from a cadaver |
| autograft | if skin taken from an unburned area of the patient and used as a transplant, it is called |
| radial, ulnar, median | what three innervate the forearm, wrist and hand? |
| palmaris longus | which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand in the wrist |
| radial and ulnar | what are the two main arteries that supply the hand and the forearm |
| rule of nines | what is a common method of determining the percentage of body surface burned |
| palatoshisis | what other pathology often occurs in conjunction with cheiloshisis |
| syndactyly | what medical term refers to the condition in which the digits of the hands and feet fail to separate |
| Dupuytren's disease | the condition causing the contraction of palmar fascia is known as |
| Rhytidectomy | what medical term refers to the surgical procedure commonly known as a face lift |
| Blephoaroplasty | a cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid |
| FTSG | which type of donor skin graft includes the epidermis, dermis, and possibly subcutaneous tissue |
| Rhinoplasty | which procedure may involve the use of the local anesthetic cocaine? |
| ganglion cyst | which of the following is a synovial fluid-filled cyst that can rise from a tendon sheath or wrist joint |
| Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery 1. What type of membrane is the skin? | cutaneous |
| What layer binds the skin to the underlying structures? | Subcutaneous |
| What is keratinization? | The process by which cells are hardened to make skin, nails, and hair. |
| Which layer contains hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve fibers? | Dermis or Stratum Corium |
| Which layer of skin functions best as a heat insulator? | Subcutaneous (hypodermis) Layer |
| Which cells contribute to the development of hair at the base of the hair follicle? | Epidermal |
| Which skin layer contains blood vessels to aid in the regulation of body temperature? | Dermal |
| What do sebaceous glands secrete? | oil (sebum) |
| Know the burn classifications. | 1st Degree – affects just the dermis 2nd Degree – affect the dermis to varying degrees. 3rd Degree – Completely penetrate the full thickness of the skin. 4th Degree – Char burns |
| What bones form the hard palate of the mouth? | Consists of palatine processes of each maxilla, palatine bones. (Palatine and Maxillary) |
| Which three nerves innervate the forearm, wrist, and hand? | Radial, Median, and Ulnar |
| Which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist? | palmaris longus |
| What are the two main arteries that supply the forearm and hand? | Radial, and Ulnar |
| What is a common method of determining the percentage of body surface burned? | Rule of Nines |
| What other pathology often occurs in conjunction with cheiloschisis? | Palatoschisos (cleft palate) |
| What medical term refers to the condition in which the digits of the hands or feet fail to separate? | Syndactyly |
| What is Dupuytren's disease? | Disease of the fascia of the palm and digits. The fascia becomes thick and contracted. Results in flexion deformities of the involved digits. (the condition causing the contraction of palmar fascia) |
| What is blepharoplasty, septoplasty, rhytidectomy, dermabrasion? | blepharoplasty- Surgical repair of the eyelid septoplasty- surgical procedure done to straighten the nasal septum rhytidectomy- Facelift dermabrasion- Planing of skin, either mechanically or chemically, to smooth a skin surface |
| Which type of donor skin graft includes the epidermis, dermis, and possibly subcutaneous tissue? | Full Thickness Skin Grafts |
| Which body site(s) is/are ideal for a split-thickness skin graft? | Lateral & ventral thighs Back Abdomen Chest |
| Know the following conditions: ganglion cyst, carpal tunnel syndrome, trigger finger, Dupuytren’s disease. | ganglion cyst- A benign lesion filled with synovial fluid. carpal tunnel syndrome- compression of a nerve in the carpal tunnel trigger finger- Stenosing tenosynovitis that affects digits. Dupuytren’s disease- tightening of the tissue of the palm of the h |
| What is the order of the procedure for reimplantation of a digit? | Bone to bone, |
| What surgical procedure is performed to remove hypertrophic breast tissue? | Reduction Mammoplasty |
| Which procedure involves an initial skin incision within the hairline beginning in the temporal region superior to the ear? | Rhytidectomy (face-lift) |
| Which instrument is responsible for expanding the surface area of a skin graft? | Mesh Graft device |
| Which nerve must be avoided during a rhytidectomy? | Facial Nerve |
| Why is mineral oil used during procurement of a skin graft using a dermatome? | to reduce friction & provide smooth surface |
| What type of dressing is required for the recipient skin graft site? | Wet dressing |
| Which type of suture is most often used to close the skin in plastic surgery to achieve a cosmetic closure? | Nylon |
| What happens during the aging process? | Elastin fibers decrease in number & adipose is lost – causes wrinkling & sagging. Collagen is lost, Slow healing. |
| Which layer of epidermis is found only in the thick skin areas such as the palms of the hands and soles of the feet? | Stratum Lucidum |
| What is the thick-strength layer of the dermis known as? | Reticular Layer |
| Which sudoriferous glands are found in the axillae? | Apocrine |
| Which sudoriferous glands are distributed over most of the body and open directly to the skin. | Merocrine |
| What is the anterior portion of the palate that consists of the palatine processes of each maxilla called? | Hard palate |
| Congenital malformations of the palate occur during which part of the pregnancy? | 1st Trimester |
| How many phalanges are in a normal hand? | 14 |
| What is a diarthrosis joint? | synovial joints |
| Which artery provides blood to the medial side of the forearm? | Ulnar |
| What is radial dysplasia? | club hand, congenital, failure of the radium to develop |
| Which surgical procedure is performed to improve the cosmetic appearance of the chin by correcting micrognathia? | Mentoplasty |
| What is microtia? | congenital absence of part or all of the ear |
| Where would an autograft be taken from to replace the congenital absence of an ear? | Costal Cartilage |
| Which instrument set(s) should a surgical technologist open for an autograft to treat microtia? | Thoracic Set |
| Which instrument would a surgeon need to dissect the nasal mucosa during a cleft palate repair? | Cottle Elevator |
| Which plastic surgical procedures are considered a “clean” and not sterile procedure? | Rhinoplasty |
| During replantation, which drug may be used to prevent vasospasm? | Papaverine |
| Which type of flap allows the tissue to be transferred to remain attached to its blood supply? | Pedicle flap |
| Which type of instrument will be attached to the Mayo stand during a cleft palate repair? | Self- retaining mouth gag |
| How many carpal bones compose each wrist? | 8 |
| What is blepharochalasis? | A condition in which there is a lack of tone or relaxation of the eyelid skin, causing the lid to appear thin and wrinkled |
| Which analgesic can be given to a patient who is about to undergo plastic surgery? | Meperidine |
| Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery All Key Terms Skeleton – page 386 – Study guide 1. What is the longest & most complex of the synovial joints? | The Knee |
| 2. Which ligament originates from the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia and extends to the lateral condyle of the femur? | anterior cruciate ligament |
| What is pronation? Supination? | Pro- pointing a body part downward.. Sup-pointing a body part upward |
| Know examples of a cartilaginous Joint? | Manubrium, ribs, Sternum, pubic symphysis |
| Osteochondritis- | inflammation of bone and cartilage. |
| Osteomalacia- | Abnormal condition characterized by softening of the bone due to a loss of calcification of the bone. |
| Osteonecrosis- | Destruction and death of bone tissue. |
| What is Pott’s, Colle’s, and Transcervical Fx? | Pott's fracture- fracture of the fibulia near the ankle. Colle's Fracture- fracture of the distal radius that occurs at the epiphysis within 2.54 centimeters of the wrist joint, forcing the hand into a dorsal & lateral position. |
| Which bone articulates with the distal tibia & fibula? | Talus |
| Where is the medial malleous? | medial prominence medial side of tibia (ankle) |
| Where is the sacroiliac joint? | between the sacrum and the ilium of the pelvis |
| What is the anterior portion of the coxal bone? | Pubis or pubic bone |
| What articulates with the head of the femur? | Tibia Acetabelum |
| Which bone articulates with the glenoid cavity to form the shoulder joint? | humerus |
| The end of which bone articulates with the manbrium? | Clavicle |
| What articulates with the distal clavicle and provides attachments for muscles of the arms and chest? | Acromion Process |
| What medical term is used to refer to the first seven rib pairs? | true ribs |
| Which bones are attached to each thoracic vertebrae? | Ribs |
| What is the initial step in the body's repair of a fracture? | Fracture Hematoma(BLOOD CLOT) |
| Which type of cells break down and assimilate bone? | osteoclasts |
| Where are the osteocytes located? | LACUNA |
| What are the distal and proximal ends of long bones called? | EPIPHYSES |
| Which bone is posterior to the mandible and anterior to the trachea? | HYOID bone |
| What is the name of the second cervical vertebra? | AXIS |
| The first cervical vertebra is? | atlas |
| During total hip replacement surgery, which instrument is used to replace the femoral head? | FEMORAL COMPONENT |
| Which hemostatic agents are used in orthopedics? | GELFOAM, AVITENE, THROMBIN, BONE WAX. |
| Where are BONE GRAFTS usually taken from? | ILIAC CREST |
| Which instruments could be used to take a bone graft? | BASIC ORTHOPEDIC SET, STRAIGHT AND CURVED OSTEOTOMES,GOUGE SET, CURETTES, MALLET, POWER SAW. |
| What is manipulating bone fracture fragments into alignment without incising the skin called? | Closed Reduction |
| What are the clinical signs and symptoms of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome? | TINGLING IN THE FINGERS, NUMBNESS IN THE FINGERS,LOSS OF SENSATION IN THE FINGERS, DECREASE IN MOTOR CONTROL. |
| What does ORIF stand for? | OPEN REDUCTION-INTERNAL FIXATION |
| What is the process of using screw and plate geometry to apply forces to a fracture site called? | Dynamic Compression |
| What is the correct sequence of surgical instruments for the insertion of a bone screw? | Drill, Depth guage, Tap, Screw |
| Know types of casts and casting material. | FIBERGLASS-PLASTER >>STOCKINETTE, CAST PADDING, SOF-ROL,WEBRIL, PLASTER. |
| Which suture can be used to attach tendon to bone? | Polyester (ethibond) braided sututre, polypropylene (prolene), nylon (nurolon) |
| Which muscles are part of the rotator cuff? | Infraspinatus, Teres minor, Subscapularis, and Supraspinatus |
| What is the primary reason for performing a total joint arthroplasty? | Restore normal function and relieve chronic pain |
| Which instrument is used to prepare the acetabulum? | Acetabular reamers |
| On which bone is the chamfer cut performed during a total knee arthroplasty? | femur |
| Know different graft types | allograft-from same species (human) xenograft- from dissimilar species (pig, cow skin), autograft- from ones-self, homograft-same as allograft |
| Which piece of equipment would not typically be used during a knee arthroscopy? | Insufflator |
| What can be used as an allograft for an ACL reconstruction? | A cadavers patellar tendon, Achilles tendon, anterior tibialis tendon |
| Which procedure is performed to correct impingement syndrome? | Shoulder joint arthroscopy |
| During a rotator cuff repair, the suture anchor is placed into the bone and then it is passed through the? | tendon and tied |
| Femoral shaft fractures are immediately treated by? | traction |
| An ACL reconstruction is performed to repair the stability of the knee? | Anterior |
| What is the primary purpose of meniscus surgery? | leave the rim of meniscus intact to aid in cushioning and stabilizing the knee joint. |
| What is a broach used for? | Remove cancellous bone |
| What is contained in the pectoral girdle? | Acromioclavicular, sternoclavicular,glenohumeral joints |
| What is contained in the quadriceps? | Rectus femoris and vastus lateralis |
| What is the name of the concave indentation that serves as the socket for the head of the femur? | acetabulum |
| The acromion is part of which bone? | clavicle |
| When is the pneumatic tourniquet routinely inflated? | After exsanguinations |
| What can be used to reduce a fracture? | traction |
| What chemical is also referred to as bone cement? | Methyl methacrylate |
| During an ACL reconstruction, which instrument might a surgeon use to remove excess bone from the femoral tunnel? | Pituitary rongeur |
| In an ACL reconstruction, which device is used immediately following the insertion of the tibial guide? | Guide Pin |
| Which muscles are used for an autograft ACL reconstruction? | Semimembranosis, gracilis |
| What two bones are involved in a patella tendon harvest for an ACL reconstruction? | Tibia and Patella |
| The goal of ulnar nerve transposition is to free the ulnar nerve from the? | Epicondyl groove and move it anteriorly |
| What is a name given to a bunion repair? | Chevron Repair |
| Which medical condition is characterized by a lateral curvature of the spinal column and may require a posterior spinal fusion with the use of Harrington rods? | Scoliosis |
| what is claudation? | Cramping |
| Which artery supplies blood to the walls of the left atrium and left ventricle? | left anterior descending |
| intraluminal stents are made from? | stainless steel, titanium, polypropylene |
| Define Diastole? | Relaxation |
| Define Systole? | Contraction |
| What is the purpose of a femoral-popliteal bypass? | restore blood flow to the lower limb |
| which arteries supply blood to the spinal cord? | lumbar arteries |
| pace maker of the heart is referred to the ? | SA Node |
| pertaining to the diaphragm? | Phrenic |
| no name, former name of bronciocephalic artery? | innominate |
| small compress which may be sewn into place? | Pledget |
| blood clot within a vessel? | thrombus |
| pertaining to the diseased, # of sick to # of population? | Morbidity |
| sepration or splitting of an artery wall? | dissecting |
| division into two branches? | bifurcation |
| makes less intense, severe, or painful? | mitigate |
| drug used to relax the muscle of blood vessel wall? | papaverine |
| accumulation | infiltrate |
| no heart rhythm? | Arrthemia |
| slow heart rate- less then 60 | Bradycardia |
| fast heartrate more then 100 | Tachycardia area of dead tissue caused by inadequate blood supply? |
| C-Shaped rings? | Hyline |
Created by:
starbliss27