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New vol 1
2T2 vol 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Managing your assigned personnel requires two types of jobs. What are they? | Strategic and tactical |
| What will inherently improve the overall effectiveness of your work center"s operation? | Keeping everyone within your section informed and establishing shift changeover processes |
| What is the first thing you should do to see what the day's or week's requirements are? | Pull up the day's aircraft/truck schedule and review the mission remarks. |
| Why is it important to pay attention to your e-mail, phone messages, or work center mailbox? | They could contain additional tasks assigned by your supervisor or EPRs |
| Why is it beneficial to review shift logs? | There may be important info from the weekend if it's your first day back, the logs could prepare you for any questions leadership may have |
| Why is it important to ask questions during the shift briefing? | It will help you refine or eliminate certain tasks off your list. |
| Why is it important to know what equipment you have available? | Ensures equipment and personnel are ready to accomplish the mission |
| Name the sort of things you can determine once your shift schedule is firm | You can prioritize. and can determine anything that may need to be postponed or rescheduled |
| Supercisors often find themselves in what type of work environment? | a reactive environment |
| What must be your most important concern when assigning personnel to work crews? | Know your people. Strengths and weaknesses. capabilities and attitudes |
| What must you do to develope your subordinates? | assign duties that challenge them |
| For what is the AMC Form 82 used? | To Justify personnel, equipment and facility levels |
| When does each unit prepare the AMC Form 82 and within how many days must it reach HQ AMC? | 2400z on the last day of the month; should reach HQ in within 20 days |
| Which types of units have to document their workload using the AMC Form 82? | AMC terminals, AMC OLs, Det, AMOGs and any other operation in support of AMC aircraft loading functions |
| Why is it important for you to complete documents such as the AMC Form 56 and the AMC Form 108? | Each of these documents has a direct impact on your unit manpower levels |
| How are all wieght entries made and how are tonnage figures rounded? | in short tons rounded up to the nearest whole ton |
| You air terminal's tonnage is less than .5 tons, what entry do you make on the AMC Form 82? | leave the space blank |
| Passengers airlifted on an AMC SAM or SAAM are shown as which type of traffic? | Number of S/R and S/A passengers moved by category of traffic TWCF or non- TWCF and the total pax moved |
| when are passengers considered rehandled? | When they are off-loaded or reloaded on the same A/C or different mission, reprocessed due to reequirment changes outside the control of the terminal |
| How is cargo and mail data entered on the AMC Form 82? | Enter the total tons of cargo and mail moved by TWCF or non TWCF |
| When a manifest or load list is not available on an AMC or other command special mission, ATOC does what? | Certifies the mission identifier and true weight |
| In the cargo and mail section of the AMC Form 82, which types of equipment are counted in the KC-10 seats column? | KC-10 seats, sub floors, ATGLs DV modules, buffer boads, aircraft assets handled by the port |
| In Section III of the AMC Form 82, which types of passengers are considered special category passengers? | DVs, blue bark, coin assist, Medal of honor holders, dependent students traveling alone |
| How do you report "other" aircraft in Section IV of the AMC Form 82? | Id aircraft types, in a list in Section XII. title "Home Station Other Aircraft Handled" |
| What identifies TWCF military and civilian aircraft? | The first three letters of the basic msn number |
| Information in Section V, Aircraft Fleeted is taken from which source document? | The AMC Form 244 |
| An in-transit aircraft is counted as how many aircraft? | Two |
| In Section VI, Airdrop, what info is entered for the "number off-loaded" column? | The number of airdrop items returned and off-loaded rather than airdropped |
| Who signs the AMC Form 82? | The preparer and reviewing official both sign this report |
| Which orgainizations must complete Section XI, Work Center Data, of the AMC Form 82? | Stations or orgs with personnel authorized on UMD in FAC 42XXX |
| Which type of authorizations from the most current UMD is used for Section XI of the AMC form 82? | Only funded authorizations from your most current UMD |
| Using conversion Chart X in Section XI of the AMC Form 82, 25 min of work equals how many hours? | .4 hours |
| Usin conversion Chart Y in Section XI of the AMC Form 82, 5.5 man hours equals how many man-days? | .7 days |
| Your work center works two 12 hour shifts per day (day and night shift) seven days per week. What would you place in the perating hours block in Section XI for your work center? | 24/7 |
| How many hours of overtime equals one man-day? | eight hours of overtime equals one man day |
| Overtime is defined as how many hours per month? | Workload in excess of 167 hours of work per month per person |
| Name an example of other info that may impact authorized manpower that should be inclueded in Section XII, Remarks | Travel time and/or distances to and from remote aircraft parking spots |
| Units with a mobility function that provide info for exercises must include what type of info in the remarks, Section XII? | Breakdown for each exercise supported listing the name designator, length, units and number of personnel used |
| Describle how to submit corrections to previously submitted AMC Form 82 reports | submitcorrections on another Form 82 with only the sections needing corrections. at month and date; anootate "corrected copy" on the top |
| Who established SIPs and to which units does this apply? | HQ AMC establishes guildelines |
| How should SIPs be tailored? What should the programs ensure? | Tailored to each unit's structure and mission. ensure coverage of unit's mission, resources, training and people |
| Who is our focal point and provides valuable cross tell on SIP issues? | HQ AMC/IG |
| When will SI checklist be accomplished for active duty units? when for ANG units? | Every 6 months. 1 year |
| Where will AFRC units receive their guidance concerning SIP? | AFRC/IG Web page |
| What must commanders appoint in writing? What will be accomplished annually by these individuals? | Primary and alt POC for the SIP. A through self-inspection covering all functional areas and key programs |
| Why would HQ AMC intruct a wing/unit to conduct a self-inspection on an SII? | If the wings/unit didn't receive an inspection during an active SII period |
| Why is documenting training important to personnel at all levels? | It validates the status of training and helps management assess mission capability |
| Which documents may the AF Form 623 contain, in addition to any locally determined requirements? | CFETP, Form 797, 623a, CDC enrollment card, score sheets and card, Form 156, 2096 |
| How are duty position requirements , including core tasks, associated with the current duty position, identified on the MTL? | By circling the sub-paragraph number next to the task statement. |
| All personnel authorized to sign off tasks in the STS must be listed where? | The identification block of the CFETP |
| Which columns will you complete to initially certify a trainee? | Training start and complete date and trainer and trainee initials |
| When must you perform an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously assigned tasks? | Each time the Airman changes duty positions |
| You have performed an initial evaluation of an Airman and found that he is no longer qualified to perform a task previously certified. What action should you take? | Retrain him on the task |
| What type of function is transcription? | Administrative |
| Within how many days must you transcribe a record following a revised CFETP? | Within 120 days |
| Describe how to transcribe a task previously certified and required in the current duty position? | Circle the number next to the task statement, enter current date in the completion block, trainee intials and certifier intials |
| Describe how to transcribe a task previously certified but not required in the current duty position | Do not circle and transcribe only the previous certification date, no initials |
| When transcribing, what other document must you annotate besides the CFETP? | Form 623a |
| Describe how to decertify a trainee on a task | Erase previous certification and enter reason in 623a |
| What does a signature in column C of the Form 1098 indicate? | The indiviual signing the form is certifying that the training has been accomplished |
| Which system provides real time home station and deployed visibility into the qualifcations of personnel? | TBA |
| Which type of information must be included in a work center orientation? | Duty hours, shifts, breaks safety requirements in the 55, training requirements, and responsiblity |
| What shoudl an initial trainee qualification evaluation include? | AFSC, duty position, deployment requirments, CDC requirements, formal/informal training |
| Who must sign and date all entries in the AF 623a? | The supervisor and trainee |
| When the AF 623a is used for training related counseling pr progress, what info will you include? | Strengths, weaknesses, attitude, areas to improve and means to improve |
| To whom must the AF 623a be available upon request? | All personnel in the chain of command to include the UTM |
| All entries on documents contained in or on the AF 623a will be documented how? | In pencil |
| The proficiency code key divides learning into what? | Performance and knowledge categories and further divides knowledge into subject and task |
| Which types of entries in or on documents may be made in black, blue ink? | Entries that are not subject to change such as the front cover of the AF 623, signatures and 623a entries |
| How are CDCs developed? | From references identified in the CFETP correlating with mandatory knowledge items listed in the AFMAN 36-2108 |
| When does the UTM order a trainee's CDC's? | Within 45 days(stateside) or 60 days(overseas) of the trainee in-processing |
| Who is responsible for inventorying the CDC's once received? | You and the trainee |
| How many CDC vfolumes will you issue the trainee at one time, and how long does the trainee have to complete each volume? | One at a time, within 30 days |
| You are monitoring a trainee's progress in a CDC and the trainee is making slow progress. what must you do? | Determine the reason, counsel the trainee, document the counseling on the 623a, place them in supervised study |
| Your trainee has completed the last CDC volume. What must you do and whom do you notify to order and schedule the course exam? | review the entire CDC and document the review in the 623a. notify the UTM |
| Which three thing determine if you work center has a training capability? | If your work center can perform the task, certified in the CFETPm and attended the AF training course |
| How are trainers selected? | Based on their experience and ability to provide instruction to the trainee |
| Who is hte trainer required to brief on the training evaluation results? | The trainee and supervisor |
| When is creating a task breakdown or lesson guide worth doing? | If the task is covered under several different regulations, covered under none or is complicated |
| A work center taining rotation should do what two things? | Identify the five W of the rotation, ensure everyone one knows the answers to these. Consider long and short term priorities |
| Before you can determine what the people in your work center need training on you must do what? | Id the tasks you work center is required to accomplish |
| When identifying tasks which areas should you consider to ensure 100% task id and coverage? | day to day mission requirements, special requirements, mandatory qualifications and recurring training |
| What is an MTP? | A strategy that ensures all requirements are completed and identifies which individuals need which training |
| MTP contain which type of information? | Tasks to be trained, how where and when the training will be conducted, when the trainee will be evaluated |
| What is an MTL? | A list of tasks that is required for your work center. Is used to develop individual training plans |
| Which two methods may you use to document or create an MTL? | Color coding or locally developed products |
| Which document must be used as the core document when developing an MTL? | The CFETP |
| For what do supervisors use the CFETP? | Plan, priortize, manage and execute training |
| As a continuation of the CFETP, what does the AF Form 797 define? | Locally assigned duty position, home station, and deployment trainin not in the STS |
| Milestones help who do what? | The supervisor and thrainee stay focused and on track with training |
| In determining a trainee's exact training needs, what is the first step? | Identify duty position requirments for the trainee from the MTL |
| The difference between which two things defines the individual's training requirements? | What the trainee can perform and the work center requirements |
| What may you use to ensure a trainee has the knowledge base to perform a task? | CDCs, AFIs, manufacturers manuals, training references or other materials |
| On the 797, what information is entered in the tasks, knowledge and technical references block? | The task statement and th etechnical reference |
| Which one training method is suitable for all training situations? | no one method is suitable |
| The tasks in the 2T2 STS require trainees to be able to perform each task to what level? | go/no go level |
| Which teaching method is based on the principle that a trainee learns best by doing? | Demonstration-performance |
| Before conducting training, name five steps you must take that can impact safety | Must be qualified, wear PPE, have all equipment and supplies, safe to operate, trainees prepared for training |
| What must you do before you can evaluate a trainee? | Make sure they understand what is expected |
| You cannot ecaluate a trainee's progress without doing what? | Somehow monitoring or observing it |
| While oberving a trainee perform a task, what must ou do if the trainee performs unsafely? | Stop the evaluation and help them understand why you stopped them |
| What is the primary purpose of counseling and feedback? | To improve performance and professionally develop trainees |
| Which feedback approach would you use if your trainee is immature or insecure? | Directive |
| Which feedback approach would you use if you want to develop personal responsibility in your trainee? | Nondirective |
| What is the impact of not being honest with your trainee? | you deny them the opportunity to improve |
| When providing counseling and feedback, which role attitude should you exhibit? | Coach or helper |
| When counseling a trainee, you should remember to focus on what in addition to the recommended improvement areas? | Strengths and accomplishments |
| To be succuessfull you must develop trainee confidence in what before providing feedback? | Your competence, sincerity and fairness |
| Feedback stops when what stops? | Communication |
| What is the last step of counseling a trainee, and what does it help you do? | Documenting the session in the 623a, id recurring patterns of behavior in training |
| Name five ways to evaluate your OJT program effectiveness | Evaluate ; trainees, trainers, training that envolves simulation. Determin the cause of the problem. expose personnel to real life situations |
| What is the - used to show in the STS | No requirement for training currently exists |
| Who completes the surveys that determine what the CDCs are based on? | You and other members of the specialty |
| List four ways to evaluate CDC program effectiveness | Id need for trainin, evaluate trainees and trainees test scores, review CDCs |
| How can you contact the CDC to suggest changes? | by phone and email |
| What info should you include when contacting the CDC writers? | Volume, page, figure and lesson numbers |
| Which two areas must you evaluate to ensure course graduates received effective training? | Military bearing and technical ability |
| Describe three ways you can report deficiencies in trainees skills | the CSIL listed in the CFETP, AETC GAS or FEQ, participate in field interviews |
| When is the GAS sent out to supervisors? | 90 days after graduation |
| How often are FEQs conducted; and how many months after graduation are they sent to supervisors? | every 2 years; 4-6 months after graduation |
| Before recommending a member for a xourse with confidence,what are some issues you must consider | If your work center needs the course |
| Before recommending a member for a course with confidence, what are some issues you must consider? | If your work center has a need for the course and if your members meet the prequisites |
| When considering a member for a formal coursem which website lists the prerequisites and requirments? | The ETCA Website |
| Before finalizing formal training recommendations, which two things should you consider? | Trainee availablility and resources |
| What has never been mre important for a supervor to understand in today's Air Force? | Understanding Joint operations around the world |
| What is the glue that binds a multinational force together? | Trust and agreement; common goals and objecties are needed to ensure operational success |
| What will US commanders that are part of multinational force under OPCON of a foreign cammander always maintain | The capability to report separately to higher US authorities in addition to foreign commanders |
| What are the three levels of war? | stratigic, operational, and tactical |
| Forces or assets can be employed for each of the three levels of war based on their contribution to acheieving what? How can these labels be determined? | Their contribution to achieving stategic, operational or tactical objectives; historical studies |
| CCDRs will participate in strategic planning discussions with whom? | The President and SECDEF through CJCS |
| What provides the framework for conducting stategic operations? | Military stategy derived from national strategy and policy and shaped by dctrine |
| What do commanders and their staffs use to organize and employ military forces? | Their skills, knowledge and experience |
| Which level of war gocuses on planning and executing battles, engagements and activities to achieve military objectives | The tactical level |
| What operations primarily involve irregular warfare? | Counterinsurgency , support to insurgency and combating terrorism |
| What now enables small groups and countries the ability to threaten the US sirectly or indirectly? | Emerging technoligies |
| How do military operations vary? | Size purpose and combat intensity |
| For what types of missions do commanders combine and sequence offensive, defensice and stability to achieve overall mission objectives? | Individual major operations and campaigns |
| Name the two types of airligt our air trans units may be involved with simultaneously | stategic and tactical |
| What is the most frequently used method of delivering peronnel, supplies and equipment? | Airland operations |
| How does the aerial delivery method work? | Airdropping personnel, equipment and supplies from an airborne aircraft |
| What is the cornerstone in providing global reach dominance and with what does it provide our commanders? | Airlift, the means to rapidly deploy and redpley forces on short notice to anywhere |
| What performance measures will the CRAF categore of airlift provide? | Airlift services during emergencies and contingencies through contractual arrangements with selected airlines |
| Which type of airlift must be able to rapidly deploy full squadron support? packages? | Stategic airlift |
| What additional capabilities will tactical airlift allow commanders to accomplish? | To reposition forces expeditiously, achieve surprise and control the timing and tempo of ops |
| If forces are engaged in combat operations, what will happen to resupply efforts? | They will increase dramatically and become more unpredictable |
| When would long-range cargo requirement forecast be sumitted for fiscal year 2010? | 1 Nov 2007 |
| When are short-range requirements submitted? | 100 days before the operating month |
| To whom will problems with airlift space assignments be referred? | The JCS Joint transportation board |
| Whan will the AMC passenger schedule be published? | 75 days before the operating month |
| Which AMC schedule will be published at least 15 days before the beginning of the operating month? | The cargo schedule |
| Why is the AMC traffic movement report sent to the services and DLA? | To assist the services and DLA in approving their forecasts of airlift requirements |
| The info used to produce the initial and final transportation movement report is extracted from where? | From the TWCF database |
| Who is resoponsible for overall direction and surveillance of deployment operations for all unit on a base or installation? | The host unit or wings commander |
| What is the IDO reponsible for keeping updated and establishing diring deployment operations? | Base-spacific |
| Which deployment work center is the focal point for all deployment operations on a base or installation? | DCC |
| What functions are accomplished under the DCC? | IDO, Log plans, Personnel, Transportation, DSOE monitors, Supply, Admin, runners and selected unit reqresentatives |
| All DCC personnel must have what type of security clearance? | Secret |
| What function is responsible for all DCC transportation requirements if personnel or equipment are being airlifted from home station without and aerial port or air mobility SQ? | TMF |
| Within the DCC, which function is responsible for monitoring the processing of passengers and cargo using LOGMOD? | The air transportation function |
| The main focus of the air transportation representative in the DCC is to accomplish what? | To launch each aircraft chalk on time |
| What communication equipment should DCC key staff be procided? | LMRs and cell phones when availible |
| The host LRS or APS commander on an AMC strategic port base is reposnible for providing what for the CDF operation? | Manning and training that includes local deployment management documents and functional expertise in their CDF duties |
| What personal protective equipment must personnel working in the CDF have availible? | Hearing protection, gloves and refletive belts |
| When performing the incheck function you are responsible for what? | Verifying all equipment for each aircraft chalk has been receive for processing, is properly marked or labeled, packaged and meets safety and ITV requirments |
| What function is responsible for the placement of cargo in load plan sequence by chalk, normally according to chalk departure times in preparation for the JI? | Cargo marshalling |
| Before accomplishing what function you must be on a signed letter from your commander and complete the proper training | JI |
| What is the cargo manifesting and documentation function responsible for ensuring? | Cargo documentation validity and for passing correct info to the final load planner |
| When assigned to perform the load planning function you must ensure what for each aircraft chalk? | Maximum utilization of the aircraft ACL, ease of cargo on /off load and safety of flight |
| What load planning system provides deplying units with the ability to estimate airlift requirements airlift movement summary data and load reports? | AALPS |
| Prior to performing load planning functions you must be identified in writing by whom as fully qualified to load plan aircraft? | Unit commander or desifnated representative |
| In most situation the OIC/NCOIC of the CDF will perform what functions | Quality control |
| At the beginning of the shift the team chief will conduct a safety briefing covering what? | Safe operation of MHE, Safe cargo handling, Safety equipment, and safety procedures during EROs and concurrent refueling |
| Who will deliver the aircraft commander package to the aircraft commander/loadmaster and brief them on special cargo handling requirements, cargo to be loaded and passenger info? | Ramp controller |
| What base agencies make up the passenger processing line in the PDF? | MPF, Finance, Chaplain, legal office and medical services |
| Who direct the passenger processing line to provide services such as emergency data documentation, ID card , Geneva Convention card, shots and Dog tags? | The IDO |
| Who is generally the senior ranking person assigned to a group of two or more personnel that are deploying on the same means of transportation? | troop commander |
| Which deployment function will brief the troop commander to turn in the information contained in the PAK to the reception PERSCO team upon arrival at the deployed location? | |
| The info within the PAK is used for what? | used to account for all personnel and support the redeployment planning process |
| What is the APT responsible for during deployment operations? | Manifesting pax, building baggage pallet, coordinating belly loads and briefing, securing and loading pax |
| what are the categtories of deployment training? | Initial, new procedures, refresher, weak area |
| Name the type of training needed for individuals who have no experience in the area they have been assigned within the deloyment process? | Initial training |
| Who will consider the scope of changes and their impact when scheduling what type of training? | IDO new procedure training |
| Name the type of training needed for individuals who need further training due to poor performance? | weak area training |
| ITV is defined as the ability to track the id, status and location of what from origin to destination? | DOD unit and nonunit cargo, pax, patients in all modes of travel |
| What does ITV give commanders the capability to do? | To determine is a particular force or capability has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission |
| Trans info collected in GTN is provided to which agencies to support planning and decision making? | SECDEF USTRANSCOM, its component commands and other DOD customers |
| What is GTNs mission and what does it provide? | To deliver comprehensive data support to customers located anywhere in the world. |
| What issues or problems can be xaused by personnel imputting inaxxurate shipment info into systems that feed GTN | Commanders will not be able to make informed decisions |
| Which AMC system is used by large fixed aerial ports, smller en route locations and remote bases | GATES |
| Which aerial port personnel are required to verify successful ITV by querying GTN data by the aircraft mission number no later than when after mission departure? | ATOC, one hour after block |
| Idividual units that own the cargo or are moving passengers have a responsiblity to provide what? | Accurate data to the agency enering the data into GATES or other systems |
| Who must aerial port personnel contact if the data is not present or is inaccurate or any reason in GTN? | GTN help desk |
| GATES allows two ways to input data via disks for passenger movements, what are they? | MANPER-B or X-man |
| What are the three parts within RFID tech? | RFID tag, interrogators, data servers |
| What system is used by non-AMC desifnated ports for accomplishing ITV for their customers? | CMOS |
| Which AMC C2 system provides accurate near real time mission data required for making decisions about AMC resources? | GDSS 2 |
| Who has the responsiblity to provide ITV when units deploy without this capability? | HQ/AMC |
| What are the four methods deployed ITV teams can submit cargo and passenger data using the DGATES computer system? | LAN line, DSN, Comm line, INMARSAT |
| Successful ITV cannot occur unless DGATES/RGATES or INMERSAT systems accomlish what with the main GATES server at Scott? | Replication |
| What ITV system is szet up and used until the capability is no longer necessary or until DGATES?RGATES have been set up? | DGATES |
| What type of planning is a process that requires extensive coordination, communication and flexiblity long before any forces or equipment deploy? | Joint Operation planning |
| Coningency ops involve what types of cirumstances? | Military forces in response to disasters, terrorist, forgeign military ops or as directed by the Pres or SECDEF |
| What type of situation is idenified as a significant threat to the US, territories, citizens and military forces of vital interest? | Crisis situation |
| What system is used to monitor, plan and execute force mobilization deployment employment and sustainment ops? | JOPES |
| What are OPORDS? | Directives issued by a commander to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the corrdinated exiution of an operation |
| What type of plan is a written description of the CCDRs concept of operations to counter a perceived threat? | OPLAN |
| What type of info does a TPFDD provide? | A prioritized list of combat forces, support and combat service support UTCs required supporting a particular op plan |
| Which type os planning develops sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an OPORD if necessary? | Concept planning |
| Name the three national planning systems | JSPS BppS, JOPES |
| The CJCS uses what top-level system to advise whom on military stategies? | JSPS, Pres and the SECDEF |
| What JSPS document is the primary concern of logistics planners? | JSCP |
| Within the BPPBS system we translate our long range requirments into what? | Resources available for inclusion into our op plans |
| How often is a new DOD budget presented to Congress for approval? | every two years |
| In which phase of the BPPBS do we traslate our national military strategy into misions goals and objectives for each military service? | Planning phase |
| Programs are consolidated for presentation to the SECDEF and the CJCS in what format? | POMs |
| Who will review POMs and compare each against the requirements in the JSPS? | CJCS |
| Within the vudget phase of BPPBS who will establish the final priorities to establish a unified and balanced program? | SECDEF assisted by high level review boards |
| Which planning system starts the operational planning cycle under JOPES? | JSPS |
| What is the DOD directed single integrated joint C@ system for planning and executing contingecncy, crisis and peacetime ops? | JOPES |
| JOPES allows effective management in execution across the spectrum of what types of ops? | Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment and redeployment |
| JOPES is supported by a networked suite of ADP apps, tools and databases that reside on what system? | GCCS |
| What are the four databases essential to managing our mobilization of forces within the DOD? | GSORTS, GEOLOC, TUCHA, TUDET |
| Name the six character alphanumeric code that is used to id each active and reserve component unit in the armed services | UIC |
| What does the GEOLOC file provide? | Geographic locations associated with the movement of forces |
| The CCCs are used by who to determine the trasportation assets needed to move a unit? | USTRANSCOM |
| For each item of equipment under the TUDET file there is a separate line entry that includes what info for each CCC? | The items description, its applicable CCC, is length width and height stons etc |
| A PID directly corresponds to which two plans and contains all of the unit line numbres and force modules associated with that plans movement of forces? | OPLAN or CONPLAN |
| What unnamed day associated with the movement of forces depicts when the deployment operatio will commence? | the C day |
| What date indicates the number of days preceding the C day? | the N day |
| Name the alphanumeric field consisting of two to seven characters that describes a particular force in the TPFDD? | ULN |
| What are the five major types of movement info ULNs contain? | Deploying units, dates, locations, number of personnel and type and quantity of cargo, type of transportation required |
| Name the two types of info needed to plan and execute the strategic movement of forces | Force requirments and sourceing info |
| Personnel who determine and enter ULN data into JOPES are know as what? | JOPESTERS |
| What do force modules provide? | a means of organizing ULNs into groups useful to commanders and staff |
| Define UTC | A capablity and is id by a five digit alphanumeric code |
| Aerial port UTC prefixes typically start with what letters? | UFB |
| What is the capability of the aerial port UTC UFBBS? | 15 person aerial port team |
| If you needed to task night vision goggles for a deployment, which UTC would you request? | UFBNV |
| What system and source data information are used to plan AEF deployment taskings? | JOPES and the TPFDD, encompassing ULNs and UTCs |
| Which units will bare base or tactical aerial port operational tasking requirements be sourced through? | CRWs |
| SORTS is an internal management tool used by what agencies? | CJCS, Services, unified commands and combat support agencies |
| What system has a threeforld purpose? | SORTS |
| All units with that type of code will be registered in SORTS? | PAS |
| Measurement criteria is designed and developed by whom, and what will this info provide? | FAMs, valid assessments pertaining to each unit's readiness |
| When unit commanders identify areas rated less than desiredm what are they required to accomplish? | Corrective action that may include funding, personnel and equipment allocations |
| what responsibility do both you and your unit commander have when completing the SORTS report? | To tell it like it is and not mask deficiencies |
| When are you required to submit your unit's SORTS report? | NLT every 30 days or when changes affect their overall C-level |
| While working with SORTS data you will need to become very familiar with what procedures? | Handling, marking and safeguarding classified info |
| What is the classigaication associated with the SORTS database? | Secret |
| Whate are the time-line requirements for declassifying the different classifications or SORTS docs? | Confidential is four years, Secret is 8 and other sources direct a higher classifcation, list the guidance and sources on file copy |
| You must complete all SORTS DOC statements on which form? | AF Form 723 |
| Who will units with more that eight secondary missions coordinate with to obtain additional DOC numbers? | HQ USAF SORTS |
| What type of SORTS DOC staement will reflect all resources necessary to undertake ancillary missions? | Tertiary mission DOC Statements |
| Who will review your unitls SORTS DOC statements annually? | MAJCOM staff and the measured unit commander |
| After SORTS DOC statements annual review has been completed what des your commander's signature signify? | Indicates the review has beeen accomplished and that the designated they and alts understand the SORTS reporting req |
| When projecting your unit's UTC resource status, what are you required to take into account? | All resources available that are expected to be ready by the response time |
| What C-level would your commander assign when your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission for which it is organized or designed to accomplish? | C-2 |
| As a minimum, what factors will ou take into account when calculating your unit's resource status? | Deployment posture, emergency recall and increase work shift length, delivery schedules for outside agencies won't change, Allocate resources to units under parent org |
| Why are you responsible to track discrepancies in subsequent SORTS reports? | To ensure corrective action was accomplished |
| Who is authorized to assign the overall C-level for your unit? | Unit commander or equivalent |
| When using the ART system how are today's units tasked? | VIA modular or by scalable UTCs |
| Why is accurate ART reporting essential? | For smooth AET execution |
| How often are readiness assessments completed when using ART? | Every 30 days on all assigned UTCs |
| Describe the role of an ART approver? | Unit CC approves UTC status, mayb be delegated to ART monitor, Must be requested for each UIC, Approved by the wing |
| Which Function within the ART system is responsible to ensure unit ART monitors are trained on policies for ART status reporting? | Unit commander or equivalent |
| Which function within ART updates UTC readiness status for specific unit? | Unit ART monitor |
| At the unit level, the UDM is the FAM and is the primary liaison to whom regarding what type of issues? | The unit training manager, sq superintendent and wing training functions regarding deployment issues |
| As a UDM you will perform all dutes that deal with what? | Preparing for planning, posturing, executing, analyzing, reporting and monitoring deployment activities |
| Who will ou notify when UTCs cannot be supported due to changes in manpower or equipment? | Your wing IDO and MAJCOM FAM |
| As a UDM you must contact redploying personnel within how many days after deployment to complete what activity? | 90 days PDHRA |
| Define in-garrison expeditionary site plan | A plan that outlines its capabilities and how to best apply them during contingency ops |
| In what four areas does the IGESP concentrate? | how we move through bases, what functions are maintained when we leave, how forces are received at war locations, how the combat bvase will survive and operate in conflict |
| What governing doc is used to breakdown the IGESP? | AFI 10-404, Base Support and EXpeditionary Planning |
| The IFESP is broken down into how many parts? | 2 |
| Part one of the site plan consists of what? | The identified resources and capabilities of a location by functional area |
| Which part of the IGESP primarily focuses on the expeditionary site survey process? | Part one |
| How is the survey site process defined? | In operational and tactical terms |
| The ESSP provides what kind of info and to whom? | Decision makers with reliable site survey information |
| When is the ESSP used? | When planning employment, reception, bed down and sustainment of all AF forces. |
| What are the objectives of part two of the IGSP? | Allocates resources previously id in part one, assesses the ability to support the operation, Ids LIMFACs, shortfalls and overages |
| Whose responsibility is the IGESP? | Wing commander |
| Who will planning committees include as a minimum? | Each functional area and tenant unit with wartime support requiremnets |
| What responsiblilities are delegated to the logistice plans function by the installation wing commander? | Developing and managing site plans |
| What is the ultimate goal of the IGESPC? | to ensure each installation is properly supported-neither too little nor too much |
| WRM is divided into how many separate stocks? | two |
| Where can information on positioning of starter stocks and other assets be found? | Component USAF war and mobilization plan, vol 4 (WMP-4) |
| When can swing and starter stocks be used simultaneously? | When needed to sustain the mission |
| Why is it important for transportation supervisors to know which resources are WRM? | You must ensure they are separately maintained |
| Who maintains WRM assets and support equipment? what must they ensure? | The unit to which it belongs, to enure readiness for any aurthorized cntng that may arise |
| What should be done to ensure technical competence and familiarity with asset storage and maintenance req? | Should be maintained by organizations possessing similar assets |
| Who is appointed to monitor basewide WRM pallet and net assets? | Pallet and net monitor |
| When should you initially inspect WRM equipment? | Within 60 calendar days of acceptance |
| How often should you conduct inspections to prevent damage and corrosion? | At regular intervals |
| How do you inspect assets that have no inspection procedures outlined? | Annually by selecting a random sample of 25 percent |
| The type of parts tool or equipment used to properly operate WRM are called what? | Support Equipment |
| When are the following inspections required to be accomplished? Visual? Serviceability? technical order? | Quarterly; annually and as necessary |
| What type of base is usually used to store WRM? | Wartime planned operating bases |
| How will WRM be marked to ensure easy identification? | Mark each piece iwht a large solid black triangle |
| What is the primary purpose of a support agreement? | To identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another |
| Who ensures all support agreements are correctly prepared and properly maintained? | Base logistics office |
| Support agreements fall within how many primary categories? | three |
| Intraservice agreements are used to document arrangements between whom? | Two AF agencies |
| Define interservice support agreements? | Designed to document all action that result in the provision of support by one DOD component to another or federal department |
| For what reason was the international support agreement created? | Because an agreement is needed anytime the AF needs or provides assistance to a foreign government |
| When will you negotiate a separate agreement idenifying the receiver as a supplying activity? | When a receiving agency is providing support to the installation on which it is housed or to another receiver. |
| What form is used to document all AF support agreements? | DD Form 1144 |
| What sumary will be included in all DD Form 1144? | Of the savings and cost to the federal goverment |
| When will support agreements supersede AFIs? | At no time |
| When developing agreements, what must each party do? | Identify and agree on the type o fsupport required |
| Define MOA | A document that defines the general areas of responsibilty and agreement between two or more parties |
| When is an MOA required? | The actions of one party directly affect the additional party |
| What is the FAAC responsible for doing? | provide and review all support agreements to determine impact, negotiates with second party, annually reviews agreements, informs base of any changes |
| Who is the receiver? | the party "receiving" support |
| Who ensures the installation can support deployment operations? | Installation/wing commander |
| What tool defines local processes, procedures, infrastructure and resources used when deploying forces? | IDP |
| When is the installation deployment plan developed? Who develops it? | After analyzing inputs from all units assigned ot the installation; IDO |
| What kind of guidance does the IDP provide? | Guidance on how the deployment process works |
| How are IDOs appointed? | In writing and signed by the wing/installation commander |
| IDOs staff consists of which personnel? | Log planners, personnel readiness experts, manpower reps, and trans personnel |
| What is the goal of deployment exercises? how often are they conducted to reach this goal? | to ensure the deployment process runs efficiently. at least every 20 months |
| What items are considered to determine the maximum personnel and equipment that can deploy simultaneously? | UTC posturing, AEF alignment, Planned AEF tasking |
| What does the IDO document during each exercise? | ALL UTCs |
| Base support operations can come in which three forms? | Cntng, exercises or ORI |
| What does the IDP define? | Local processes, procedures, infrastructures, and resources to be used when deploying |
| Once complete IDPs must id how the installation works withing the AEF construct. How is this accomplished? | By defining who receives the tasking , notification procedures validation time lines, shortfall processes |
| What must deployment plans consider first? | Providig clear, concise and detailed deployment guidance in terms of the bases mission and deployment processes |
| What is the second consideration when depeloping the IDP? | ensuring flexibility |
Created by:
alphablue06