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Instructor Training
ACE Home Study Course Flashcards
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What 3 muscle groups makes up the erector spinae group? | Iliocostalis, longissimus, and apinalis |
| Match each trunk action with the plane in which it takes place: A. Flexion 1. Frontal B. Lateral Flexion 2. Sagittal C. Rotation 3. Transverse | A-1 B-2 C-3 |
| List the 4 segments that make up the shoulder joint complex. | sternoclavicular (S/C), joint acromioclavicular (A/C), joint glenohumeral (G/H), joint scapulothoracic (S/T) articulation |
| Why is the teres major sometimes called the "little lat"? | Because both the teres major and latissimus dorsi act concentrically to produce adduction, extension, and internal rotation of the glenohumeral joint |
| List, from left to right, the six food groups found within the MyPyramid Food Guidance System. | 1. Grains 2. Vegetables 3. Fruits 4. Oils 5. Milk 6. Meat and Beans |
| What is the correct sequence of fuel sources used during physical activity? | ATP and CP, glycogen, fatty acids |
| What is the energy content of each of the four classes of nutrients? | Carbohydrates 4 kcal/g Protein 4 kcal/g Fat 9 kcal/g Alcohol 7 kcal/g |
| What are the two categories of simple carbohydrates? Give examples of each. | 1. Monosaccharides ("single sugars") like galactose, glucosem and fructose 2. Disaccharides ("double sugars") like lactose, maltose, and sucrose |
| What are the 3 types of dietary fat? | Triglycerides, cholesterol, and lecithin |
| What is the difference between saturated fat and unsaturated fat? | Saturated fats (butter, margarine) have no double bonds, which makes them typically solid at room temperature. Unsaturated fats (corn oil, sunflower oil) have at least one carbon-carbon double bond, which makes them typically liquid at room temperature |
| What is the daily recommendation for calcium intake for adult women? | 1000 mg per day |
| What are the fluid-intake recommendations during exercise? | 2 hours prior to exercise, drink 500-600 mL, every 10-20 minutes during exercise, drink 200-300 mL, following exercise, drink 450-675 mL for every 0.5kg of body weight lost |
| What are two types of dietary fiber? | Viscorus fiber and incompletely fermented fiber |
| What is the energy deficit in calories/day necessary to lose 1 lb per week? | 500 kcal/day |
| What are 4 lifestyle factors that affect hypertension? | obesity, high-salt diets, alcohol consumption, and smoking |
| What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes? | Type 1 diabetes usually strikes younger individuals and is caused by the non-functioning of the insulin producing beta calls in the pancreas, while Type 2 is more common and results from an inability to use insulin produced by the pancreas |
| Define osteoporosis. | A condition in which the bones become soft and later brittle, making them very prone to breaking |
| What are the effects of caffeine on the body? | Stimulates the CNS and causes fluid loss and elevated blood pressure. Side effects include headache, nausea, muscle tremors, anxiety, nervousness, irritability, and insomnia. |
| What is the general recommendation on nutrition for fitness? | Consume a diet rich in carbohydrates, particularly complex carbohydrates, and moderate in protein and fat. |
| Name and describe three eating disorders. | Anorexia nervosa: self-starvation, disoriented body image, intense fear of obesity Bulimia nervosa: binge and purge, use of diuretics or laxatives Binge eating disorder: binge without purging |
| What percentage of Americans will have some form of cardiovascular disease by age 55? | 33% |
| Describe high-risk individuals, according to ACSM. | Individuals with one or more signs or symptoms OR individuals with known cardiovascular, pulmonary, or metabolic disease. |
| Name the negative risk factors for coronary artery disease. | A high serum HDL cholesterol score of >60 mg/dL |
| What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death? | Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
| What are the 2006 ACSM Programming Guidelines for Healthy Adults for cardiovascular training? | 3-5 days per week, 40/50-85% of HRR 55/65-90% of HRmax and RPE of 12-16, for 20-60 continuous minutes |
| What are the 2006 ACSM Programming Guidelines for Healthy Adults for resistance training | 2-3 days per week, one set of 3-20 reps, 8-10 exercises that include all major muscle groups |
| What are the 4 outcomes of teacher-centered instruction? | Dependence, intimidation, unattainable goals, and quick fixes |
| What is considered to be the "gold standard" of body-composition assessment? | Hydrostatic weighing |
| What is a metabolic equivalent (MET)? | A system for classifying physical activities. One MET is equal to resting oxygen consumption. |
| What is the formula for body mass index (BMI)? | BMI= Weight (kg)/ Height2 (m) |
| 220 lbs is equal to how many kilograms? | 100 |
| What does the half sit-up test evaluate? | Muscular strength and endurance |
| What is the goal of the cardiorespiratory segment? | Follows warm-up and aims to improve cardiorespiratory endurance and body composition and keeping the heart rate elevated for 10-30 minutes. |
| What are the recommended decibel (dB) levels for the music and the instructor's voice during a group fitness class? | no more than 90 dB for music and 100 dB for the instructor's voice |
| What are the 3 main reasons to gradually increase intensity? | Allows blood flow to be redistributed from internal organs to working muscles, allows the heart muscle time to adapt to the change in pace, and allows for an increase in respiratory rate. |
| What are the 3 recommended locations for heart-rate monitoring? | Carotid pulse (neck), radial pulse (wrist), and temporal pulse (temple) |
| What are the 5 major components of physical fitness? | muscular strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, and body composition |
| What is ATP? | Adenosine Triphosphate: The immediately usable form of chemical energy needed for all cellular function, including muscular contraction |
| what are the 3 nutrients of a given diet and what the their simplest components | Foods are made up of carbohydrates, fat, and proteins. The process of digestion breaks these nutrients into glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids. |
| What is creatine phosphate? | Creatine phosphate is a high-energy phosphate compound found within muscle cells. It is used to resynthesize ATP for immediate muscle contraction. |
| What is anaerobic glycolysis? | A metabolic pathway that does not require oxygen, the purpose of which is to transfer the energy contained in glucose (or glycogen) to the formation of ATP |
| What are the characteristics of slow-twitch muscle fibers? | Exceptionally well equipped for oxygen delivery and have a high quantity of aerobic, or oxidative enzymes |
| What are the functions of sensory neurons? | they convey electro-chemical impulses from sensory organs in the periphery (such as skin) to the spinal corn and brain |
| What are isokinetic muscular contraction? | They occur when tension within the muscle changes throughout the range of motion. Special equipment is required to alter the resistance offered to the muscle as it contracts as a constant velocity. |
| What does current research suggest is the most likely source of delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)? | Microscopic damage to the muscle cell untra-structure. |
| What is the stretch reflex's effect on ballistic stretching? | A stretch reflex is an involuntary response to ballistic stretching that actually increases muscle tension. |
| What is the function of the Golgi tendon organ? | Causes inhibition of the entire muscle group to protect against too much force |
| What is stroke volume? | The mount of blood pumped each time the heart beats. |
| What is the difference between systole and diastole? | Systole refers to the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle and diastole refers to the relaxation phase. |
| What is steady state? | The point at which the energy need of the body during exercise are being met aerobically |
| What are the primary risk factors for cardiovascular heart disease? | hypertension, cigarette smoking, elevated blood lipid levels, and physical inactivity. |
| What are the 4 basic variables to consider when developing an exercise program? | Intensity, duration, frequency, and mode |
| How long will it take for an appropriately performed program of aerobic exercise to yield significant physiological benefits? | 8-12 weeks |
| What is the endocrine system's role in regulating the body's response to exercise and training? | Releasing various hormones via glandular secretion. |
| What are the 5 major functions of the cardiovascular system? | distribute oxygen and nutrients to the cells, carry carbon dioxide and metabolic waste from the cells, protect against disease, help regulate body temperature, prevent serious blood loss after injury through the formation of clots. |
| What are the 2 components that make up blood? | Formed elements and Plasma |
| How many chambers does the heart have? | The heart has 4 chambers: the right and left atrium and the right and left ventricles |
| What are the 3 major functions of the respiratory system? | supplies oxygen, eliminates carbon dioxide, helps regulate the acid-base balance (pH) of the body |
| What are the major components of the CNS? | Brain and Spinal Cord |
| What are proprioceptors? | Somatic sensory receptors found in muscles, tendons, ligaments, joint capsules, and skin that gather information about body position and the direction of velocity of movement. |
| What is Wolff's Law? | Bone is capable of adjusting its strength in proportion to the amount of stress placed on it. |
| List the 5 regions that make up the vertebral column. | Cervical vertebrae, Thoracic vertebrae, Lumbar vertebrae, Sacrum, Coccyx |
| what are the 3 structural categories of joints in the body? | fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial |
| What are the 3 types of human muscle tissue? | cardiac, visceral, and skeletal |
| What is a synergist? | a muscle that aids other muscle in its action |
| What are the three mechanisms by which the muscles that comprise the core contribute to core stability? | Intra-abdominal pressure, spinal compressive forces, and hip and trunk muscle stiffness |
| What are the 5 major muscles that act on the elbow joint? | Biceps brachii, brachialism brachioradialis, triceps brachii, and pronator teres |
| What does the acronym SITS stand for? | The rotator cuff muscles: Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, and Subscapularis |
| Describe the law of inertia. | States that a body at rest will stay at rest and that a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an external force. |
| Which of the 4 quadriceps muscles crosses the hip joint? | Rectus femoris |
| What two muscle groups are the primary hip extensors? | Hamstrings and the gluteus maximus |
| what are the 3 major hip adductors? | Adductor magnus, adductor longus, and adductor brevis |
| What are the 3 most common abnormal postures? | Lordosis, kyphosis, and scoliosis |
| What are the 3 components of muscular balance? | Equal strength and flexibility on the right and left sides of the body, proportional strength ratios in opposing muscle groups, and a balance in flexibility |
| What is the age-adjusted maximal heart-rate formula? | Estimated maximal HR= 220-age in years |
| How long should a static stretch be held? | 15-30 seconds |
| Name the 3 domains of human behavior. | Cognitive domain, Affective domain, and Motor domain |
| Name the 3 stages of learning a motor skill. | Cognitive, Associative, Autonomous |
| What are the 5 specific teaching styles that apply to an exercise class? | command style, practice style, reciprocal style, self check style, and inclusion style |
| what are upbeats? | weaker pulsations in the music |
| What is a measure? | A measure is a group of beats formed by the regular occurrence of a heavy accent on the first beat or downbeat of each group |
| What are the 4 components of a cue? | body part, action, direction, and any other elaboration necessary to understand the movement. |
| What are 2 factors that affect exercise intensity? | Music tempo and the size of arm and leg movements |
| What are the 4 levels of energy expenditure in group fitness instruction? | Level one: small leg motions in place. Level 2: small leg motions traveling. Level 3: large leg motions in place. Leg 4: large leg motions traveling. |
| What are the 4 characteristics of feedback? | informational, specific, immediate, and based on performance standards |
| Of those that start an exercise program, what percentage drops out within the first 6 months? | 50% |
| What percentage of American adults do not get the recommended amount of physical activity? | 70% |
| What are the 2 most common reasons given for not continuing an exercise program? | lack of time and boredom |
| Exercise adherence | the amount of programmed exercise someone engages in during a specified time period compared to the amount of exercise recommended for that time period |
| What are 5 environmental factors that can affect exercise adherence | the ambiance of the exercise site, cues and reminders for exercise, weather conditions, time limitations, and the amount of support and feedback that is provided. |
| Name 2 ways to avoid instructor burnout. | Schedule regular vacations and switch class formats with another instructor |
| Define "SMART" goals. | Specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, time-bound |
| Who should prepare the exercise contract? | The instructor and participant should do it together. |
| What are natural reward systems? | Systems that focus on increased feelings of self-esteem, a sense of accomplishment, and increased energy levels. |
| What is the difference between diets of exercisers versus diets of non-exercisers? | There is no significant difference |
| What is exercise dependence/addiction? | When the commitment to exercise assumes a higher priority than commitments to family, work, or interpersonal relationships |
| What are 3 signs of exercise dependency/addiction? | Continuing to exercise in spite of injuries or illness, extreme levels of thinness, feelings of extreme guilt, irritability, or depression when unable to exercise. |
| What are secondary conditions of disability? | Examples of secondary conditions of disability are obesity, pressure sores, infections, and osteoporosis |
| What are the BMI standards for overweight and obesity? | Overweight: between 25 and 29.9, Obesity: 30 or higher |
| What is the number one priority when training an obese participant? | To keep the activity at an intensity level that does not cause pain or soreness |
| What is the caloric balance equation? | energy input= energy output |
| What is diabetes? | A metabolic disorder in which the body cannot control blood glucose levels due to either insufficient insulin production or a reduced peripheral tissue sensitivity to insulin, resulting in a an inability to properly metabolize carbohydrates |
| What is insulin? | A hormone secreted into the bloodstream by the pancreas that regulates carbohydrate metabolism |
| What is hypoglycemia? | A blood sugar deficiency caused by too little glucose, too much insulin, or too much exercise int he insulin-dependent diabetic; blood glucose level <60 mg/dL |
| What are the 3 major types of COPD? | asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema |
| What are beta-adrenegic stimulating agents? | Medications used for treating asthma and other pulmonary disorders that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system to cause relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles, some times refereed to as "beta agonists" |
| What is dyspnea? | difficult or labored breathing |
| What are two ways to avoid spikes in breathing rate during weight training? | Avoid spikes in breathing rate by making sure that the weight is not too heavy and the person is not holding his or her breath |
| What are the 2 major types of arthritis? | Osteoarthritis (wear and tear type)and rheumatoid arthritis (whole body autoimmune disease) |
| What is the recommendation for strength training progression with participants with advanced osteoporosis? | They require more time to adapt to a resistance training program and must progress at a much slower rate than a healthy older adult to avoid injury. |
| Name 4 factors that may influence the occurrence and severity of low-back pain | Sleep deficiency, physical deconditioning, psychosocial difficulties, and generalize fatigued |
| What is multiple sclerosis? | A common neuromuscular disorder involving the progressive degeneration of muscle function, including increased muscle spasticity |
| Name the 2 major types of stroke. | Hemorrhagic strokes (ruptures blood vessel in the brain) and ischemic stroked (reduced blood supply to the brain) |
| Who is most qualified to evaluate a pregnant participant's fitness status in relation to her pregnancy? | The participant's physician |
| What is the most critical determinant of the advisability and benefits of exercise? | A healthy placenta that can adequately support the needs of the growing fetus |
| Which of the following contraindications of exercise is NOT absolute. | Orthopedic limitations |
| How does pregnancy affect the formula CO= HR x SV during exercise? | Cardiac output, heart rate, and stroke volume increase. |
| Name two hormones that are released during the first trimester and indicate their effect on the body. | Relaxin and progesterone act to soften the ligaments surrounding the joints of the pelvis, increasing the mobility and joint laxity. |
| What is supine hypertension? | An abnormal reduction in blood pressure related to body position (lying on the back) |
| What is hypoxia and how does it affect the fetus? | a lack of oxygen that affects the fetus in the first trimester. |
| What are the 3 areas of concern when discussing fetal risks associated with exercise? | Uterine-placental blood flow, carbohydrate utilization, and thermoregualtion |
| What are the 3 final recommendations for pregnant women in regards to exercising and thermoregulation? | Exercise in a cool, well-ventilated, low humidity environment, drink plenty of cool water to avoid dehydration, and avoid very high-intensity activities |
| What is the pelvic floor? | The 5 layers of muscle and fascia attached to the bony ring of the pelvis that act as a support or reinforcement to the lower border of the pelvis |
| What is symphysitis? | An irritation of the symphysis pubis caused by the increased motion at the fibrocartilaginuos joint between the pelvic bones in the midline of the body |
| What is carpal tunnel syndrome? | A nerve compression syndrome caused by the compression of the median nerve within the wrist; characterized by numbness and tingling sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers |
| What is chondromalacia? | A gradual softening and degeneration of the articular cartilage, usually in the back surface of the patella; may produce pain and swelling or a grinding sound or sensation when the knee is flexed and extended. |
| What is the recommended method of monitoring exercise intensity when teaching exercise classes for pregnant women? | RPE |
| What position is recommended in place of supine abdominal exercises for pregnant women? | The semirecumbent position |
| Why should overhead lifting be avoided during pregnancy? | To prevent irritation or injury to the low back due to the lessened ability of the weakened abdominals to stabilize the torso against the pull of the belly |
| What recommendations are made for the number of repetitions during strength training for new pregnant participants and for those pregnant participants that lift weights regularly? | 10-15 reps for new participants and 8-12 reps for regular participants |
| What recommendations are made for pregnant women during stretching exercises? | Participants should be cautioned to stretch in an average to normal range of motion in order to protect potentially hypermobile joints. |
| What is the suggested time for returning to group exercise activities after delivery? | approximately 6 weeks after delivery |
| What are the 2 main classifications of injuries? | Acute and chronic |
| What is the main cause of overuse injuries? | A lack of appropriate recovery time |
| What are the 3 characteristics of proper footwear | good cushioning, support, and flexibility |
| What are 3 signs of overtraining? | sleep loss, elevations in resting heart rate, and injury |
| What is a sprain? | An acute injury to a ligament caused by sudden trauma to the joint |
| What is a strain? | Overstretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon |
| What is plantar fasciitis and what are its causes? | Inflammation of the plantar fascia a broad band of connective tissue running along the sole of the foot; caused by repetitive overloading of the tissue, usually near the attachment of the heel. |
| What is rotator cuff strain and what are its causes? | The overstretching, overextension, or overuse of the musculotendinous unit of one or more of the rotator cuff muscles |
| What are PFPDs? | Patellofemoral pain disorders- associated with overload or repetitive microtrauma to the knee |
| What are the possible causes of shin splints? | Repetitive loading of the lower leg with weak musculature, poor running surface, shoes with old or insufficient cushioning, weak arches, and poor flexibility in the posterior muscles of the lower leg |
| What is low-back pain (LBP) and what are its possible causes? | A general term to describe a multitude of back conditions, including muscular and ligament strains, sprains, and injuries; the cause of LBP is often elusive; most LBP is probably caused by muscle weakness and imbalance |
| What are the supplies necessary for blood clean up? | Latex gloves in multiple sizes, liquid soap, mixture of water and household bleach |
| What is standard of care? | Appropriateness of an exercise professional's actions in light of current professional standards and based on the age, conditions, and knowledge of the participant |
| What is negligence? | Failure of a person to act as a reasonable and prudent person would act under similar circumstances. |
| What is recommended for situations when a participant asks for advice about an injury? | Suggest they contact their doctor. In general, only physicians and certain other healthcare providers are allowed to diagnose, prescribe treatment, and treat injuries. |
| What is general liability insurance? | Insurance for bodily injury or property damage resulting from general negligence such as wet flooring, an icy sidewalk, or poorly maintained equipment |
| What is an independent contractor? | Someone who conducts business on his or her own on a contract basis and is not an employee of an organization. |
| What is the purpose of an informed consent form? | This form is used to make the dangers of a program or test procedure known to the participant and thereby provide an additional measure of defense against lawsuits |
| What are the 2 major performing rights societies? | American Society of Composers, Authors, and Publishers (ASCAP) and Broadcast Music, Inc (BMI) |
| What are the 3 nutrients of a given diet and what are their simplest components? | Carbohydrates, fat, and proteins. The process of digestion breaks these utrients into glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids. |
| What is cardiac output and stroke volume? | Cardiac output: the amount of blood that flows from each ventricle in one minute. The cardiac output from the left and right ventricles is exactly the same (CO= HR x SV) Stroke volume: The amount of blood pumped each time the heart beats |
| What are the characteristics of slow-twitch fibers? | Slow twitch: Exceptionally well equipped for oxygen delivery and have a high quantity of aerobic enzymes |
| What are the characteristics of fast-twitch muscle fibers? | Fast twitch: poorley equipped in terms of oxygen delivery system, but have an outstanding capacity for the phosphagen system and a high capacity for anaerobic glycolosis |
| What is aerobic glycolysis? | A metabolic pathway that requires oxygen to facilitate the use of glycogen for energy |
| What is anaerobic glycolysis? | A metabolic pathway that does not require oxygen, the purpose of which is to transfer the energy contained in glucose to the formation of ATP |
| What are isometric and isokinestic muscular contractions? | Isometric: muscle is stimulated to generate tension, but no joint movement occurs Isokinetic: muscle tension changes throughout the range of motion; requires specific equiptment to keep a constant velocity |
| What is a stretch reflex and what is its effect on ballistic stretching? | An involuntary response to ballistic stretching that actually increases muscle tension |
| What does current research suggest is the most likely source of delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)? | Microscopic damage to the muscle cell untra-structure |
| Name 2 isotonic muscular contractions. | concentric and eccentric contractions |
| what are the functions of sensory neurons and motor neurons? | Sensory neurons: convey impulses from the periphery (skin) to the CNS Motor neurons: impulses from the CNS to the muscle cells and serve to regulate muscle movement. |
| Define body composition and essential body fat. | Body composition: make up of body in terms of body fat and lean body mass Essential body fat: the amount of fat thought to be necessary for life and reproduction |
| What are the 5 major components of physical fitness | Muscular strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibiliity, and body composition |
| What is Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)? | the immediately usabvle form of chemical energy needed for all cellular function, including muscular contraction ATP= ADP+energy for biological work+P |
| What is creatine phosphate (CP)? | A high energy phosphate compound found within muscle cells. It is used to resynthesize ATP for immediate muscle contraction. |
| What is the function of the Golgi tendon organ? | causes inhibition of the entire muscle group to protect against too much force |
| What isproprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)? | a technique that involves statically stretching a muscle immediately after maximal contracting it against resistance |
| What si the difference between systole and diastole? | Systole: contraction phase of the cardiac cycle. Diastole: relaxation phase |
| What is steady state? | The point at which the energy needs of the body during exercise are being met aerobically |
| What is anaerobic threshold (AT)? | The point at which thebody can no longer meet themetabolic demands of the muscles aerobically and the muscles have to rely on anaerobic metabolism for ATP production |
| According to the American Heart Association, what are the primary risk factors for cardiovascular heart disease (CHD)? | Hypertension (elevated blood pressure), cigarette smoking, elevated blood lipid levels, and physical inactivity |
| What are the 4 basic variables to consider when developing an exercise program? | Intensity, duration, frequency, and mode |
| How long will it take for an appropriately performed program of aerobic exercise to yield significant physiological benefits? | 8-12 weeks |
| What is the endocrine system's role in regulating the body's response to exercsie and training? | Releaseing various hormones via glandular secretion. These hormones perform a number of functions in the body, including regulation of cellular metabolism, facilitation of the cardiovascular response to exercise, and modulation of protein synthesis. |
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