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Genetics OLA 2

QuestionAnswer
Where does protein synthesis occur? cytoplasm
An organism's ___ is determined by the sequence of bases in its DNA genotype
An organism's ___ is a product of the proteins it produces phenotype
Ribosome moves ___ on the mRNA and builds protein from its N- to C-terminus 5' > 3'
What are the stages in translation 1. tRNA charging 2. Initiation 3. Elongation 4. Termination
During the tRNA charging stage of translation, ___ "charge/attach" a specific amino acid to its corresponding tRNA 3' end aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
What would occur if the ShineDalgarno sequence in a prokaryotic mRNA was mutated? the ribosome would not select the proper initation codon, resulting in a failure to initiate translation
The formation of the peptide bond in the second step of elongation is catalyzed by which part of the ribosome? rRNA in the large subunit of the ribosome
the adapter molecule between nucleotide language and amino acid language tRNA
what is the ribosonal subunit that binds mRNA with initation factors in BACTERIA/PROKARYOTES shine dalgarno
what is the ribosonal subunit that binds mRNA with initation factors in EUKARYOTES kozak sequence and 5' cap
What is the P site for EUKARYOTES during the initiation stage of translation Met
What is the P site for PROKARYOTES during the initiation stage of translation fMet
the process of chemically linking a specific amino acid to its corresponding tRNA molecule tRNA charging
What happens if tRNA charging fails wrong AA is inserted
a stretch of DNA containing a cluster of genes that are transcribed together from a single promoter operon
Anatomy of an operon: DNA sequence required for transcription to initiate via binding of RNA Polymerase promoter
Anatomy of an operon: Genes that encode proteins involved in a common process, and that are important for cell function structural genes
Anatomy of an operon: *DNA* sequence downstream of promoter, to which a regulator protein can bind and prevent movement of the RNA polymerase from the promoter to transcribe the structural genes Operator
Anatomy of an operon: A *protein* encoded by a regulator gene, that binds the operator and controls transcription of the structural genes Regulator
a section of DNA or RNA that codes for a specific protein cistron
an mRNA that encodes for more than one protein polycistron
A _______ operon is one in which transcription is normally on, and it needs to be turned off repressible
The regulator protein that acts on a negative repressible operon is synthesized as _____________ an inactive repressor
In a positively controlled repressible operon, the regulatory protein is synthesized as a(n) ___ active activator
chromatin that condenses and decondenses during the cell cycle euchromatin
chromatin that is highly condensed throughout the cell cycle heterochromatin
what does chromatin consist of? chromosomal DNA + proteins
specifies the translational initiation site in eukaryotic mRNAs Kozak sequence
identical copies of a chromosome connected at the centromere, formed during DNA replication sister chromatids
an insertion or deletion that changes the reading frame of a gene frameshift mutation
transcriptional activator regulated by glucose. catabolite activator protein (CAP)
specifies the translational initiation site in prokaryotic mRNAs shine-dalgarno sequence
nucleotide triplet coding for an amino acid. codon
repair pathway that removes bulky DNA damage such as thymine dimers. nucleotide excision repair (NER)
a cell with only one set of chromosomes, such as gametes. haploid
prokaryotic genes regulated by a common promoter. operon
a disorder appearing earlier or more severe in successive generations, often due to repeat expansion. genetic anticipation
exchange of genetic material between nonsister chromatids during prophase I. crossing over
a gene that promotes cell division and can cause cancer when overactive. oncogene
a base substitution in which a purine replaces a purine, or a pyrimidine replaces a pyrimidine. transition mutation
How many codons would be possible in a triplet genetic code if only three nucleotide bases (A, C, and U) were used? 27 (3^3)
How do nonsense codons differ from sense codons nonsense codons do not encode an amino acid
Why is translation a good target for antibiotics translation differs significantly between bacterial and eukaryotic cells
What is the biochemical consequence of histone acetylation on chromatin structure and gene expression It weakens the interaction between histone tails and DNA, promoting an open chromatin structure and increasing transcription
How do lacI⁻ mutations lead to constitutive expression of the lac operon genes? the repressor fails to bind the operator in the absence of lactose and in the presence of lactose
The lactose operon is a negative inducible operon, the repressor protein is synthesized as An active repressor
The tryptophan operon in trp operon is an example of a negative repressible operon. When there are high levels of tryptophan available to the organism, which of the following is most likely? Transcriptional termination is likely
Histone methylation is associated with: Epigenetic mark that can be found in chromatin of expressed or repressed genes
A mutation changes a G:C base pair into an A:T base pair. This mutation is best classified as Transition (purine>purine and pyrimidine>pyrimidine : same-base-type sub)
A coding sequence undergoes a single base substitution. The resulting protein is shorter than normal. Which type of mutation most likely occurred? nonsense mutation
A missense mutation in TP53 prevents the protein from binding DNA. Which cellular process would most directly fail? activation of DNA repair genes
If DNA polymerase proofreading activity (3’→5’ exonuclease) is lost but mismatch repair remains functional, what would you predict? large increase in mutation rate
A parent carries 38 CAG repeats in a gene associated with Huntington’s disease. Their child develops symptoms earlier and has 50 repeats. This phenomenon is best explained by genetic anticipation
Which type of radiation is more likely to cause double-strand DNA breaks? ionizing radiation (x-rays)
During which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes pair up and crossing over occur? prophase I
If a parent cell has 16 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after meiosis? 8
What is the key difference between meiosis I and meiosis II? Meiosis I reduces the chromosome number (reductional), while meiosis II separates sister chromatids (equational).
During which stage of meiosis do sister chromatids separate? anaphase II
What is the primary purpose of meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms? to halve the number of chromosomes and create genetic diversity
During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated? S phase (interphase)
What structure is responsible for pulling chromatids apart during anaphase spindle fibers
A 30s subunit is scanning mRNA for the initiation codon. What sequence will the 30s subunit recognize? shine-dalgarno sequence (30s subunit is the bacterial small ribosomal subunit)
Human hemoglobin consists of four subunits, 2 α and 2 β. What level of protein structural organization does this represent? quaternary
Which nucleotide in the tRNA anticodon is subject to wobble pairing? The 5' end
What molecule is hydrolyzed by RF-3 in prokaryotes to induce translational termination? GTP
What is not a function regulated by p53? a) Arrest the cell cycle at G1/S b) Initiate DNA repair c) Degrade mutant transcripts d) Initiate apoptosis c) degrade mutant transcripts
The DNA sequence GGA CAT GAC experiences a mutation, changing to GGA CTT GAC. What type of sequence mutation does this represent? a) Transition substitution b) Deletion c) Transversion substitution d) Insertion transversion substitution (exchanges purine A with pyrimidine T)
Created by: user-2068536
 

 



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