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Intro to rad test2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is radiography? | Using x-rays to create images of structures inside the body. |
| Who discovered x-rays, and when? | Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen on November 8, 1895. |
| Why were they called “x-rays”? | The “X” represented something unknown. |
| What famous early image did Roentgen produce? | An image of his wife’s hand showing her bones and wedding ring. |
| What award did Roentgen receive? | The first Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901. |
| What are x-rays? | A form of electromagnetic radiation with enough energy to ionize atoms. |
| What is ionization? | An atom gains or loses an electron and becomes electrically charged. X-rays can remove electrons from atoms. |
| How does tissue usually appear on an x-ray? | Air- Black Fat Dark- Gray Soft tissue and fluid- Gray Bone- White Metal- Very white |
| Why are two views commonly taken at approximately 90 degrees to each other? | They help show the location of structures and abnormalities that may overlap on one image. |
| Who is considered the father of medicine? | Hippocrates, who emphasized observation and ethical patient care. |
| What is a radiologist? | A physician who interprets medical images and may perform image-guided procedures. |
| What is a radiographer? | A healthcare professional who positions patients and produces diagnostic x-ray images. |
| What is the difference between a technologist and a technician? | A technologist generally has broader professional education. A limited x-ray operator has a more restricted role based on state requirements. |
| What is fluoroscopy? | Imaging that uses x-rays to show movement in real time. |
| What is computed tomography, or CT? | An x-ray system that collects data around the patient and uses a computer to create cross-sectional images. |
| What is magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI? | Imaging that uses a strong magnetic field and radiofrequency energy. It does not use ionizing radiation. |
| What is ultrasound? | Imaging that uses high-frequency sound waves. It does not use ionizing radiation. |
| What is nuclear medicine? | Imaging that uses radiopharmaceuticals to evaluate how organs and tissues function. Some radiopharmaceuticals also treat disease. |
| What is mammography? | Specialized x-ray imaging of breast tissue. |
| What is bone densitometry? | A test that measures bone mineral density, commonly using DXA to evaluate osteoporosis. |
| What is interventional radiology? | Using imaging to guide procedures, such as placing a stent or treating a blocked blood vessel. |
| What is radiation therapy? | Using radiation to treat disease, especially cancer. |
| What is a registered radiologist assistant? | An advanced practice radiographer who performs specified duties under radiologist supervision. |
| Which modalities use ionizing radiation? | Radiography, fluoroscopy, CT, mammography, DXA, nuclear medicine, and radiation therapy. |
| Does every metal implant automatically prevent an MRI? | No. Every implant or device must be screened and its MRI safety conditions verified before the examination. |
| What does ARRT stand for? | American Registry of Radiologic Technologists. |
| What does ARRT do? | Sets requirements for certification and registration, administers examinations, and maintains professional standards. |
| What does ASRT stand for? | American Society of Radiologic Technologists. |
| What does ASRT do? | Provides professional education, practice resources, advocacy, and practice standards. |
| What does JRCERT do? | Accredits educational programs in radiography and certain related disciplines. |
| What does ACR stand for | American College of Radiology. It provides professional guidance and accredits imaging facilities in several modalities. |
| What is ARDMS? | The American Registry for Diagnostic Medical Sonography, a credentialing organization for sonography professionals. |
| What is MQSA? | The Mammography Quality Standards Act, a federal law establishing quality requirements for mammography facilities. |
| Accreditation | Recognition that a program or facility meets standards |
| Certification | Recognition that an individual meets professional qualifications |
| Registration | Maintaining an active listing with a credentialing organization |
| Licensure | Legal permission from a government authority to practice |
| How often do most ARRT technologists need continuing education? | Most need 24 approved CE credits every two years. ARRT registration is renewed annually. |
| What is CQR? | Continuing Qualifications Requirements. For those subject to it, CQR occurs every ten years and helps identify areas needing updated knowledge. www.arrt.org |
| What is critical thinking? | Carefully evaluating information before deciding what to do. |
| Why do radiographers need critical thinking? | Patients differ in condition, mobility, communication, and ability to cooperate. |
| What are the basic steps of problem-solving? | Identify the problem, collect information, consider options, choose an action, and evaluate the result. |
| What should guide a clinical decision? | Patient safety, assessment findings, professional scope, department policies, and available evidence. |
| What should you do when you are unsure how to proceed? | Pause when appropriate and ask the supervising technologist or instructor for guidance. |
| What if a patient cannot tolerate the usual position? | Assess the patient and seek an appropriate modification. Never force a painful or unsafe position. |
| What should happen when a patient refuses a nonemergency examination? | Respect the refusal, notify the appropriate professional, and document according to policy. |
| What are the three learning domains? | Cognitive, Psychomotor, Affective |
| Cognitive | Knowledge, thinking, and judgment |
| Psychomotor | Physical skills and coordination |
| Affective | Attitudes, values, and professional behavior |
| What is a competency? | Demonstrating that you can perform a required skill safely and successfully. |
| What makes a good performance objective? | It clearly describes an observable, measurable, and achievable action. |
| What is the usual progression of clinical learning? | Observation → assistance → performance. |
| What is simulation? | Practicing a clinical situation using equipment, models, or mannequins before performing it with patients. |
| What does a clinical instructor do? | Teaches, supervises, evaluates performance, and provides feedback. |
| What is direct supervision? | A qualified radiographer is physically present while the student performs the examination. |
| What is indirect supervision? | After competency is achieved, a qualified radiographer is immediately available to assist. |
| What supervision is needed for a student’s repeat image? | Direct supervision by a qualified radiographer. |
| What patient-care skills appear in your notes? | Vital signs, CPR, aseptic technique, venipuncture, and patient transfers. |
| Must every body-part image include two joints? | No. Including both adjacent joints is generally important for long-bone examinations, such as the forearm or tibia/fibula. Anatomy requirements depend on the examination. |
| . Should you memorize the competency counts in these notes as permanent requirements? | No. They may reflect an older requirement set. Use the ARRT requirements assigned to your program and cohort. |
| What is scope of practice? | The activities a professional is educated, qualified, and legally authorized to perform. |
| Can a radiographer diagnose a patient? | Radiographers evaluate their images for technical quality and communicate relevant observations, but medical diagnosis requires an appropriately authorized practitioner. |
| Can a radiographer administer only contrast and no other medications? | That statement is too broad. Medication duties depend on state law, education, competency, orders, and facility policy. |
| What is patient-centered care? | Providing care that respects the patient’s needs, preferences, dignity, and safety. |
| What makes communication professional? | Being clear, respectful, truthful, and appropriate to the patient’s understanding. |
| What should you do if asked to perform something beyond your ability or authorization? | Explain your limitation and seek appropriate supervision or assistance. |
| What is kVp? | Kilovoltage peak. It controls the maximum photon energy and strongly affects beam penetration. |
| What is mAs? | Milliampere-seconds: tube current multiplied by exposure time. It mainly controls the quantity of x-rays produced. |
| What happens when mAs increases? | More x-ray photons are produced. With other factors unchanged, receptor exposure and patient dose increase. |
| What affects image receptor exposure? | mAs, kVp, patient thickness and composition, distance, filtration, grids, and other equipment factors. |
| What is a technique chart? | A guide for choosing exposure settings for a particular examination and patient. |
| What is computed radiography, or CR? | A system that uses a photostimulable phosphor plate that must be processed in a reader. |
| What is digital radiography, or DR? | A system that captures image information electronically without a separate CR plate reader. |
| What is the inverse square law? | Radiation intensity decreases with the square of the distance from the source. |
| What happens if distance doubles? | Intensity becomes one-fourth, assuming other factors stay the same. |
| What happens if distance is cut in half? | Intensity becomes four times greater |
| Does a digital image that looks bright enough prove the exposure was correct? | No. Processing can adjust brightness. Exposure indicators and image quality must also be evaluated. |
| What are the two main electrodes in an x-ray tube? | Provides a target for electrons. Their interactions produce x-rays and heat. |
| What does the cathode do? | The release of electrons from a heated filament. |
| What is the filament commonly made of? | Tungsten. |
| What is thermionic emission? | The release of electrons from a heated filament. |
| What does the anode do? | Provides a target for electrons. Their interactions produce x-rays and heat. |
| Why does a rotating anode rotate? | To spread heat over a larger target area. |
| What is the purpose of a grid? | To absorb some scattered radiation before it reaches the image receptor, improving image contrast. |
| What is AEC? | Automatic exposure control. It ends the exposure when a selected detector receives a preset amount of radiation. |
| Why is positioning important when using AEC? | The correct anatomy must cover the selected detector chambers to obtain an appropriate exposure. |
| What is SID? | Source-to-image receptor distance. |
| What is OID? | Object-to-image receptor distance. |
| What happens when OID increases? | Magnification generally increases, and recorded detail may decrease. |
| What does the rotor switch do? | Starts rotation of the rotating anode before exposure. |
| What is a Bucky? | An assembly that commonly contains a moving grid and an image receptor holder. |
| Why must the tube, grid, and receptor be properly aligned? | Misalignment can cause grid cutoff and reduce receptor exposure. |
| How are wavelength and photon energy related? | Shorter wavelength means higher energy. Longer wavelength means lower energy. |
| Are gamma rays always more damaging than x-rays?exposed. They are distinguished mainly by their origin. | No. Their effects depend on factors such as energy, absorbed dose, and the tissue |
| What is Compton scattering? | An x-ray photon transfers some energy to an electron and changes direction. |
| What happens to the scattered photon? | It has less energy and a longer wavelength than before the interaction. |
| What is a major source of occupational exposure during imaging? | Radiation scattered from the patient. |
| Does scatter stop at six feet? | No. Increasing distance reduces exposure, but six feet is not a boundary beyond which scatter disappears. |
| What is a free radical? | An atom or molecule with an unpaired electron that can react with nearby molecules. |
| What is direct radiation damage? | Radiation interacts directly with an important molecule, such as DNA. |
| .What is indirect radiation damage? | Radiation interacts with water, producing reactive substances that can damage DNA. |
| Which cells are generally more radiosensitive? | Cells that divide rapidly, are less specialized, and have many future divisions. |
| What are somatic cells? | Body cells other than reproductive cells. Most nucleated human somatic cells contain 46 chromosomes. |
| What are germ cells? | Cells in the reproductive cell line. Mature sperm and eggs contain 23 chromosomes. |
| What are somatic effects? | Effects in the exposed person, such as cataracts or cancer. |
| What are hereditary effects? | Effects that could be passed to offspring through damage to reproductive cells. |
| What is acute radiation syndrome? | Illness after a high radiation dose to much or all of the body over a short period. It is not expected from routine diagnostic examinations. |
| What are the three basic methods of radiation protection? | Time, distance, and shielding. |
| What does ALARA mean? | As Low As Reasonably Achievable. |
| .How do radiographers reduce unnecessary patient exposure? | Use appropriate techniques, accurate positioning, collimation, and careful image evaluation to avoid unnecessary repeats. |
| What is collimation? | Restricting the x-ray beam to the area needed for the examination. |
| Do lead aprons make standing in the primary beam safe? | No. Personnel should stay out of the primary beam. |
| Should gonadal shielding always be used? | Current guidance recommends discontinuing routine patient gonadal and fetal shielding. Follow applicable regulations and facility policy |
| What does a personnel dosimeter do? | Monitors occupational radiation exposure. It does not protect the wearer. |
| What do TLD and OSL stand for? | Thermoluminescent dosimeter and optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter. |
| Is declaring pregnancy mandatory under the NRC framework? | No. Declaration is voluntary. Special occupational fetal protections apply after declaration. The NRC limit is 0.5 rem, or 5 mSv, for the entire pregnancy. |
| What is ethics? | Principles that help determine right conduct and guide professional decisions. |
| What are the six ethical principles in your notes? | Beneficence, Nonmaleficence, Autonomy, Veracity, Fidelity, Justice |
| Justice | Treat people fairly |
| Fidelity | Keep commitments |
| Veracity | Tell the truth |
| Autonomy | Respect the patient’s choices |
| Nonmaleficence | Avoid harm |
| Beneficence | Do good |
| What is an ethical dilemma? | A situation where competing values make the right action difficult to choose. |
| How should you approach an ethical dilemma? | Identify the facts, consider the patient’s rights and safety, review your responsibilities, seek guidance, and evaluate the available actions. |
| Does a physician’s request automatically expand your scope of practice? | No. You must still act within your qualifications and legal authority. |
| What should you do after making an error? | Protect the patient, report the error promptly, and document honestly according to policy. |
| What is the easiest way to remember the six principles? | Do good. Avoid harm. Respect choices. Tell the truth. Keep promises. Be fair. |
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