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Pt Care Exam 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| How should you identify a patient? | Use at least two identifiers, such as full name and date of birth. Match them with the order and identification band; do not use room number. |
| What kind of questions should begin a patient history? | Open-ended questions, such as “What symptoms are you having?” Then ask focused questions to clarify. |
| What details belong in a useful history? | Reason for the exam, symptom location, onset, duration, quality, what makes it better or worse, and relevant surgery, injury, or prior illness. |
| Why does the radiologist need your history? | It helps explain the symptoms and interpret the images, especially when the radiologist does not meet the patient. |
| How should you document the history? | Be concise, specific, and relevant. Confirm the patient’s meaning and note whether the exam is a follow-up |
| How can you reduce a frightened patient’s agitation? | Speak calmly, move smoothly, explain what you are doing, and give the patient time to respond. |
| What should you assess while observing a patient? | Breathing, skin color, sweating, pain, alertness, ability to move, and ability to cooperate. Watch for changes. |
| What does hypoxia mean? | Too little oxygen in body tissues. Shortness of breath may occur, but it is a symptom, not the definition. |
| What does dyspnea mean? | Difficult or uncomfortable breathing, often described as shortness of breath. |
| What does cyanotic mean? | Bluish skin, lips, or nail beds, which may indicate inadequate oxygenation. |
| What does jaundice mean? | Yellowing of the skin or whites of the eyes due to increased bilirubin. It often occurs with liver or bile-related problems. |
| What does diaphoretic mean? | Sweating, often heavily. A sudden cold sweat can be a warning sign of illness. |
| What is the normal resting adult heart rate? | 60–100 beats per minute. A reading of 119/79 is blood pressure, not heart rate. |
| What is the normal resting adult respiratory rate? | 12–20 breaths per minute. |
| What is bradypnea? | Abnormally slow breathing. “Brachytension” in the review appears to mean bradypnea. |
| What is tachypnea? | Abnormally rapid breathing. |
| What is apnea? | Absence of breathing. |
| What is orthopnea? | Difficulty breathing when lying flat; sitting up may help. |
| What is a normal adult blood pressure for this review? | The slides list systolic 95–119 and diastolic 60–79 mm Hg. 119/79 is one example, not the only normal reading. |
| What is systolic pressure? | The top number: peak arterial pressure when the heart contracts. |
| What is diastolic pressure? | The bottom number: lower arterial pressure when the heart relaxes between beats. |
| What is hypertension? | High blood pressure. Learn the definition here; exact diagnostic categories depend on the guideline used. |
| What is hypotension? | Low blood pressure. A sudden drop, especially with symptoms, needs prompt attention. |
| What does a pulse oximeter measure? | Estimated blood oxygen saturation, written as SpO₂. It is commonly placed on a finger. |
| What oxygen saturation range is listed in your slides? | 95–100%. Interpret the reading with the patient’s condition and ordered target. |
| Which pulse sites should you know? | Radial: wrist. Carotid: neck. Brachial: inside elbow. Femoral: groin. Dorsalis pedis: top of foot. Posterior tibial: behind the inner ankle. Apical: heart, with a stethoscope. |
| Why should you not use your thumb to check a pulse? | Your thumb has its own pulse, which can confuse the reading. |
| What are common temperature routes? | Oral, rectal, axillary, tympanic, and temporal. |
| When may an oral temperature be inaccurate? | After hot or cold drinks or when the patient cannot safely keep the thermometer in the mouth. Your slides also identify oxygen use as a possible concern. |
| Why may a rectal temperature be avoided? | Your slides flag cardiac patients because rectal stimulation can trigger a vagal response and slow the heart. Rectal injury, bleeding risk, or immune suppression may also make it unsuitable; follow policy. |
| What oral temperature is usually considered a fever in adults? | 100.4°F or above, according to your slides. |
| Why is creatinine checked before some contrast exams? | It helps assess kidney function. The team may also use estimated glomerular filtration rate, or eGFR. |
| What creatinine and BUN values are listed in the slides? | Creatinine: 0.6–1.5 mg/dL. BUN: 7–18 mg/dL. These are course reference ranges; laboratory ranges vary. |
| What should you do if renal function is abnormal before contrast? | Notify the radiologist or responsible clinician and follow the approved protocol. Do not decide independently that contrast is safe. |
| What are hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia? | Hypoglycemia is low blood glucose; hyperglycemia is high blood glucose. Fasting patients with diabetes may be at risk for low glucose. |
| May you disconnect oxygen or a cardiac monitor for an exam? | Only with authorization and an appropriate plan. A qualified staff member must accompany patients who require monitoring. |
| What should you do if the patient’s condition suddenly worsens? | Pause the exam, keep the patient safe, get help immediately, and follow the emergency procedure. Do not leave an unstable patient alone. |
| What should happen before transporting a patient? | Check with nursing, verify identity, assess stability and mobility, select the transfer method, gather equipment and help, and explain the plan. |
| What is orthostatic hypotension? | A drop in blood pressure with a position change, such as lying to sitting or standing. It can cause dizziness or fainting. |
| How can you reduce falls during a wheelchair transfer? | Lock the bed and chair, move footrests out of the way, bring surfaces to a safe height, help the patient sit up, pause for dizziness, and use appropriate assistance. |
| When is a stretcher preferred over a wheelchair? | When the patient cannot safely sit or stand, is confused or heavily medicated, has trauma, or needs more support. |
| How should you protect a patient during transport? | Use stretcher side rails, move at a safe speed, keep the patient warm and covered, and protect tubes and lines. |
| How should you handle tubes and drainage lines during transfer? | Keep them secure, avoid pulling or kinking, and verify what may be disconnected with nursing. |
| How should you help a patient with one weak side? | Support the weak side and protect the limb. Choose the transfer direction and equipment based on assessment and the care plan. |
| How should suspected spinal injury affect transfer? | Maintain spinal alignment and use the team’s approved log-roll or sliding transfer method. Do not remove immobilization or traction without authorization. |
| When should a mechanical lift be used? | When the patient cannot assist safely or when manual lifting would be unsafe. Only trained staff should operate it. |
| What body mechanics protect the technologist? | Keep the load close, use a stable base, avoid twisting, adjust working height, and use aids and enough trained help. |
| What should you check before giving a patient water? | NPO status, intake and output orders, fluid restrictions, swallowing safety, and whether another test requires fasting. |
| What do NPO and I&O mean? | NPO: nothing by mouth. I&O: intake and output. |
| How should you store dentures or jewelry? | Use a labeled container. Never wrap valuables in tissues or linens, where they can be thrown away. |
| What is incontinence? | Loss of voluntary bladder or bowel control. |
| How should you respond to an incontinent patient? | Protect privacy, respond promptly, clean and change the patient, and stay calm and matter-of-fact. |
| What should you do when emptying a urinary collection bag? | Wear gloves, use the appropriate container, avoid contaminating the outlet, measure and document output when ordered, close the clamp, and perform hand hygiene. |
| Where should a urinary drainage bag be kept? | Below bladder level and off the floor, with tubing free of kinks to prevent backflow. |
| What should you remember after a procedure requiring catheter clamping? | Unclamp it as directed. Your slides warn against clamping in patients with high spinal cord injury. |
| What position is safest for a patient who may vomit? | Lateral recumbent, when safe for the patient, to help drainage and reduce aspiration risk. |
| What does recumbent mean? | Lying down. The word before it describes the direction, such as left lateral recumbent. |
| What is supine? | Lying face up on the back. |
| What is prone? | Lying face down on the abdomen. |
| What is lateral recumbent? | Lying on the right or left side. |
| What is Sims position? | A semiprone side-lying position, usually on the left side, with the upper leg flexed. |
| What is Fowler position? | A position with the head and upper body elevated. Semi-Fowler uses less elevation. It is not simply “supine with feet down.” |
| What is Trendelenburg position? | The body is tilted with the head lower than the feet. Recognize the position; do not use it automatically for hypotension or shock. |
| What positions can improve comfort with abdominal pain? | Supine with the knees supported and flexed, or side-lying with knees flexed, if tolerated. The uploaded answer says “both A and B,” but does not include those original choices. |
| What causes decubitus ulcers, or pressure injuries? | Prolonged pressure reduces circulation and damages tissue. Repositioning, padding, and skin protection help prevent them. |
| What is required for wrist or ankle restraints? | An authorized provider’s order and compliance with restraint policy, monitoring, and documentation. Your course review calls this a physician’s order. |
| How are temporary positioning devices different from restraints? | Devices used only to support a procedure may have a different purpose and policy. Classification depends on use; do not assume every safety device is exempt from restraint rules. |
| How does immobilization help imaging? | It reduces motion and repeat images, supporting patient safety and radiation protection. |
| What injuries may suggest nonaccidental trauma? | Injuries inconsistent with the history, repeated fractures in different healing stages, suspicious bruises or burns, and periosteal reaction from repeated injury. |
| What signs may raise concern for elder abuse or neglect? | Bruises, abrasions, burns, unexplained fractures, malnutrition, poor hygiene, or pressure injuries. These raise suspicion; they do not prove abuse. |
| What should you do about suspected abuse? | Document observations objectively and promptly follow the reporting process. Do not investigate independently or promise secrecy. |
| What is a pathogen? | An organism or infectious agent capable of causing disease. |
| What are normal flora? | Microorganisms normally living on or in the body without causing illness. They may cause infection when defenses weaken or they enter another site. |
| How can bacteria be classified? | By shape, arrangement, oxygen requirements, and staining characteristics, including Gram and acid-fast staining. |
| What are common bacterial shapes? | Cocci are round, bacilli are rod-shaped, and spiral forms are curved or spiral-shaped. |
| What are aerobic and anaerobic bacteria? | Aerobic bacteria use oxygen; anaerobic bacteria grow without oxygen. |
| Acid-fast microorganisms are what type? | Bacteria. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an important example. |
| What are endospores? | Highly resistant dormant bacterial structures that can survive unfavorable conditions for long periods. |
| What causes tuberculosis, strep throat, and necrotizing fasciitis? | Bacteria. |
| What type of organism is yeast? | A fungus. Fungi also include molds. |
| How are viruses different from bacteria? | Viruses need a host cell to reproduce. Antibiotics treat susceptible bacteria, not viral infections. |
| What are protozoa and prions? | Protozoa are single-celled organisms, some of which are parasites. Prions are infectious misfolded proteins. |
| What are the six links in the chain of infection? | Infectious agent → reservoir → portal of exit → mode of transmission → portal of entry → susceptible host. |
| What is a reservoir of infection? | The place where a pathogen lives and can survive, such as a person, animal, soil, food, or water. |
| What are portals of exit and entry? | Exit: how an agent leaves its source, such as secretions. Entry: how it enters a new host, such as the respiratory tract, mucous membranes, or broken skin. |
| What is a susceptible host? | Someone vulnerable to infection, such as an immunocompromised patient, an infant, or an older adult. |
| What is a fomite? | A contaminated object that can transmit infection, such as an image receptor or doorknob. |
| What are a vector and a vehicle? | Vector: a living carrier, such as a mosquito. Vehicle: a medium carrying an agent, such as contaminated food, water, or blood. |
| What is direct versus indirect contact transmission? | Direct: person-to-person contact. Indirect: transmission through contaminated objects or another intermediary. |
| What are droplet nuclei in the traditional textbook definition? | Small particles remaining after respiratory droplets evaporate, traditionally described as 5 micrometers or smaller. |
| How does airborne spread differ from droplet spread in this course? | Airborne particles can stay suspended and travel through air. Droplets generally spread during close contact. The size cutoff in older teaching is a simplification. |
| What is nosocomial infection? | A hospital-acquired infection. Healthcare-associated infection is the broader current term. |
| What is passive immunity? | Receiving antibodies made by someone else, such as maternal antibodies or an antibody injection. It is usually temporary. |
| What is active immunity? | Your own immune system develops a response after infection or vaccination. Routine vaccines generally produce active immunity; the slide labeling vaccination as passive is incorrect. |
| What does HAI stand for? | Healthcare-associated infection, formerly often called nosocomial infection. |
| Which US agency is a major source of infectious disease information? | The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, or CDC. |
| What are standard precautions? | Basic infection prevention used for every patient, based on the expected exposure: hand hygiene, appropriate PPE, safe sharps handling, and equipment cleaning. |
| What materials do standard precautions apply to? | Blood, body fluids, secretions and excretions except sweat, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes. |
| What is the most important basic way to prevent infection spread? | Hand hygiene. Clean hands before and after patient contact and after removing gloves. |
| What is C. diff? | Clostridioides difficile, formerly Clostridium difficile: a spore-forming bacterium that can cause diarrhea and colitis, often after antibiotics. |
| What precautions should you use for C. diff? | Contact precautions, including gown and gloves, dedicated or properly disinfected equipment, and a sporicidal environmental cleaner. Follow the facility’s C. diff handwashing policy. |
| Why is soap and water emphasized for C. diff in class? | Alcohol hand rub does not reliably destroy spores. Soap and water physically remove them; washing does not simply “kill all bacteria.” |
| What precautions are used for tuberculosis? | Airborne precautions: an appropriate isolation room and a fit-tested N95 or higher-level respirator for staff. The patient usually wears a surgical mask during transport if tolerated. |
| What are typical examples for contact and droplet precautions? | Contact: C. diff and some resistant organisms such as MRSA. Droplet: influenza and some forms of meningitis. Always check the specific isolation order. |
| How should you study the review’s statement that COVID is droplet spread? | The review labels it droplet. Do not treat that label as a complete clinical rule: respiratory particles can also be inhaled, and current facility COVID PPE rules must be followed. |
| How do you protect an immunocompromised patient? | Use protective precautions to prevent bringing organisms to the patient; carefully control clean equipment and hand hygiene. |
| Who touches the patient during protective isolation? | The clean technologist touches the patient and covered receptor. The dirty technologist handles equipment and the uncovered receptor. |
| Who touches the infected patient during transmission-based isolation? | The dirty technologist touches the patient and covered receptor. The clean technologist handles clean equipment and the uncovered receptor. This corrects the exam review’s mixed-up receptor statement. |
| What is medical asepsis versus surgical asepsis? | Medical asepsis reduces organisms and prevents spread. Surgical asepsis maintains a sterile field and prevents contamination. |
| How are disinfection and sterilization different? | Disinfection eliminates many pathogens but may not destroy spores. Sterilization destroys all viable microorganisms, including spores. |
| Which hepatitis types have vaccines in the review? | Hepatitis B has a vaccine; hepatitis C does not. Hepatitis A also has a vaccine, although that is not the B-versus-C comparison asked here. |
| How is hepatitis A commonly transmitted? | Fecal–oral spread through contaminated food or water, or direct contact. |
| How are hepatitis B and C commonly spread? | Through infected blood; hepatitis B can also spread through sexual contact and from mother to infant. |
| What is an opportunistic infection? | An infection that takes advantage of weakened defenses. The review lists Candida, herpes, cytomegalovirus, and Pneumocystis pneumonia in AIDS. |
| What is the HIV needlestick risk answer in the review? | Less than 1%; your slides give about 0.3% for exposure to infected blood. This is an approximate course figure, not a prediction for every exposure. |
| What should you do after a needlestick? | Wash the area, report immediately, and obtain prompt occupational exposure assessment and follow-up under facility protocol. |
| How should sharps be handled? | Do not recap used needles by hand. Activate safety features and discard immediately in an approved sharps container; follow its fill line and policy. |
| What does MRSA stand for? | Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. The slide’s “Multi Resistance” wording is not the correct expansion. |
| What are the generic and proprietary names of a drug? | Generic: standard nonbrand name. Proprietary: brand or trade name selected by the manufacturer. |
| What is a common side effect of anticholinergic medication? | Dry mouth. |
| What are insulin and metformin classified as in the review? | Hypoglycemic, or glucose-lowering, agents. |
| Why are opioids prescribed? | To relieve pain. They may also cause sedation and respiratory depression. |
| What is Narcan and what overdose does it treat? | Narcan is the brand name for naloxone, an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid effects, especially respiratory depression. |
| What is diphenhydramine? | An antihistamine, commonly known as Benadryl. It can cause drowsiness. |
| What is diazepam classified as in the review? | A tranquilizer and anticonvulsant; it is a benzodiazepine. |
| What is the intended effect of succinylcholine? | Muscle paralysis. Paralysis alone does not provide pain relief or unconsciousness. |
| What is an idiosyncratic medication reaction? | An unusual, unexpected response that differs from the typical drug effect. |
| What is drug metabolism versus excretion? | Metabolism chemically changes a drug, often in the liver. Excretion removes drugs or metabolites from the body, often through the kidneys. |
| What are the six rights of medication administration? | Right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation. These are medication rights, not a list of general patient rights. |
| What determines the medication route? | The authorized prescriber’s order. Verify the order and follow the approved protocol. |
| What should you check before administering medication or contrast? | Identity, order, six rights, allergies, contraindications, relevant laboratory results, and readiness to manage a reaction. |
| Which medication route is commonly used for rapid response in imaging? | Intravenous, or IV: directly into a vein. |
| What is enteral administration? | Medication enters the gastrointestinal tract, such as oral, rectal, or nasogastric administration. |
| A rectal suppository uses which route category? | Enteral. |
| What is sublingual administration? | Medication placed under the tongue for absorption through the oral mucosa. |
| What is buccal administration? | Medication placed between the cheek and gum for absorption through the oral mucosa. |
| What are topical and transdermal administration? | Topical: on a body surface. Transdermal: through the skin, often from a patch. |
| What is inhalation administration? | Medication breathed into the respiratory tract through an inhaler or nebulizer. |
| What does parenteral mean? | Administration that bypasses the GI tract, commonly by injection. |
| What do ID, SC, IM, IV, and IA mean? | ID: intradermal, into skin layers. SC: subcutaneous, under skin. IM: intramuscular, into muscle. IV: intravenous, into a vein. IA: intra-arterial, into an artery. |
| What is intrathecal administration? | Injection into the spinal subarachnoid space, such as contrast for myelography, performed by an authorized clinician. |
| How do you convert pounds to kilograms? | Divide pounds by 2.2. A 140-pound patient weighs approximately 64 kg. |
| What basic medication units should you know? | 1 L = 1,000 mL; 1 mL = 1 cc; 1 g = 1,000 mg; 1 mg = 1,000 micrograms. Use mL rather than cc in documentation. |
| How does needle gauge relate to needle size? | Higher gauge number means a smaller diameter. An 8-gauge needle is larger than a 12-gauge needle. |
| What is a butterfly set used for? | IV access or blood collection. The review’s butterfly gauge entry is incomplete; verify the exact size range expected by your instructor rather than memorize “22-2.” |
| What vein is commonly used in the antecubital area for blood draws? | The median cubital vein. This corrects “medium comboient” in the review. |
| How far above the intended puncture site is the tourniquet placed in the review? | About 3–4 inches, following the procedure and facility policy. |
| Why must air be removed from IV tubing before connection? | To prevent air entering the circulation and causing an air embolism. Prime the tubing according to procedure. |
| What is IV patency? | The IV is open and functioning appropriately. Verify it before injecting medication or contrast. |
| What is infiltration? | Leakage of IV fluid into surrounding tissue. Swelling, discomfort, or altered flow may occur. |
| What is extravasation? | Leakage of a potentially tissue-damaging substance, such as contrast, into surrounding tissue. Stop administration and notify the responsible clinician under protocol. |
| What can an IV infusion running too fast cause? | Fluid overload and pulmonary edema. If the fluid contains medication, rapid delivery may also give too much medication too quickly. |
| What IV bag height is given in the chapter review? | 18–20 inches above the vein for the gravity infusion example. Follow the prescribed system and policy. |
| What IV flow rate is given in the chapter review? | 15–20 drops/minute. This is a course example, not a universal IV rate; the ordered volume and tubing drop factor determine the actual rate. |
| Why is pressure needed after removing an IV? | To control bleeding and prevent a hematoma. Maintain pressure until bleeding stops; some patients need longer. |
| What is a hematoma? | A collection of blood in tissue, often causing swelling or bruising. |
| What should you document after medication administration? | Medication name, dose, date and time, route and site, required response information, and the administering person’s identification. |
| What are needleless systems and SESIPs designed to do? | Reduce needlestick injuries and exposure to bloodborne pathogens. SESIPs are sharps with engineered sharps injury protections. |
| What should you do when an IV pump alarms? | Assess the problem and obtain appropriate help. Do not simply silence it or independently change the ordered rate. |
| What is medication reconciliation? | Reviewing and comparing medications to identify additions, deletions, and changes during transitions of care. |
| What is the most likely cause of fire in an imaging department in the review? | An electrical problem. |
| What three elements are needed for a fire? | Heat, fuel, and oxygen. |
| What does RACE stand for? | Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish or Evacuate, according to the facility plan. |
| What is the radiographer’s role during a fire? | Follow the emergency plan, protect patients, activate help, and contain or evacuate as directed. Do not assume command of the entire response. |
| What does OSHA stand for? | Occupational Safety and Health Administration, the federal workplace safety agency. |
| What is ergonomics? | Designing work and tasks to reduce strain and prevent workplace injury. |
| What workplace disabilities are most commonly reported in the review? | Musculoskeletal disorders. |
| How can repetitive motion or overreaching cause injury? | Repeated stress creates microtrauma in muscles and other tissues, contributing to repetitive strain injuries. |
| Which specialty is associated with frequent shoulder, arm, and wrist strain in the review? | Sonography. The supplied question gives an 80% figure; treat that as a course statistic. |
| When would you consult an MSDS or SDS? | During a chemical spill or when checking chemical hazards, protective equipment, or cleanup instructions. SDS is the current name for Safety Data Sheet. |
| Which item is not a typical spill-kit component in the supplied question? | A mop. Actual kit contents depend on the chemical and facility. |
| What is a tort? | A civil wrong that can result in legal liability, such as negligence. |
| What instrument measures blood pressure? | A sphygmomanometer, or blood pressure cuff. |
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