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Company law
Company law and procedure
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| What were the first corporations in Europe created for? | They were created as not-for-profit entities to build institutions such as hospitals and universities for the public good. |
| How were early corporations regulated? | They had constitutions detailing their duties, were overseen by the government, and could be punished for straying outside their duties. |
| When did making money become a major focus for corporations? | In the 17th century. |
| How were colonial companies used by European powers? | They financed colonial expansion and maintained control of trade, resources, and territory in Asia, Africa, and the Americas. |
| Which company was an early example of a colonial company? | The East India Company. |
| When was the East India Company established? | It was established by British merchant adventurers and granted Queen Elizabeth I's Royal Charter in 1600. |
| What did the British 1844 Act allow corporations to do? | It allowed corporations to define their own purpose. |
| What happened to the power to control corporations following the 1844 Act? | The power to control them passed from the government to the courts. |
| What change occurred in 1855 regarding shareholders? | Shareholders were awarded limited liability, protecting their personal assets from the consequences of corporate behaviour. |
| What did the US court decision of 1886 recognize? | It recognized a corporation as a 'natural person' under law. |
| How was the US 14th Amendment used in the 1886 corporate personhood decision? | An amendment adopted to protect emancipated slaves was used to defend corporations and strike down regulations. |
| How does Ambrose Bierce's Devil's Dictionary define a corporation? | An ingenious device for obtaining profit without individual responsibility. |
| How does section 3 of the Companies Act define a company, according to the notes? | An entity incorporated in accordance with the Act and section 6 of the repealed Act. |
| How is a company generally defined? | An association of individuals formed for a lawful common purpose, trade, or business, sharing profits and losses arising from it. |
| What did Lord Lindley mean by a company? | An association of persons contributing money or money's worth to common stock, using it in trade or business, and sharing the resulting profit or loss. |
| What is the common stock contributed to a company called? | The company's capital. |
| Who are the persons who contribute to or own the common stock called? | Members. |
| What is a member's proportion of company capital called? | A share, which is transferable although the right to transfer it may be restricted. |
| How may a company be defined by its legal characteristics? | An incorporated association that is an artificial person, with separate legal entity, perpetual succession, common seal, transferable shares, and limited liability. |
| Why is a company called an artificial person? | Because the law gives birth to a company and can bring it to an end. |
| Why must corporate theories be examined? | To understand the objectives of companies and the theories that have informed company law. |
| What is the concession or fiction theory? | It views incorporation as a concession granted or legal fiction created by the state because of the public good carried out by the business. |
| What is an example of a company created by statute to run a public utility? | Zesco Limited. |
| How does the concession theory justify corporate regulation? | It supports regulations aimed at promoting the public interest. |
| When was the concession theory dominant? | When grants of chartered status were relatively unusual. |
| What changed with the advent of the registered company? | Anyone could register a company, and companies developed with thousands of shareholders who no longer controlled the business. |
| What does the concession theory say about a company's existence? | The notes state that the company has no real existence and that the entity can be created and brought to an end. |
| What is the corporate realism theory? | It argues that a registered company with dispersed shareholding is not a fiction but has a real existence independent of its members. |
| What does corporate realism theory say about a company's interests? | Once formed, the company has an interest of its own. |
| Who is the focus of corporate power under corporate realism theory? | The manager, rather than the shareholders. |
| What is the aggregate theory? | It describes the company as an institution formed by an aggregation of private contracting individuals. |
| Why does the aggregate theory reject making managers the focus of corporate power? | It would be unenforceable in practice and could further managerial dominance. |
| Who is the focus of accountability under the aggregate theory? | The shareholders. |
| According to the aggregate theory, for whom are managers trustees? | For the shareholders, not the company. |
| What do the notes state about directors under Article 86 of the Companies Act 2017? | Directors are trustees of the company and hold its assets in trust for the company. |
| Do shareholders own company assets according to the notes? | No. Shareholders have an interest in the company but do not own its assets. |
| To whom do directors owe a duty under Article 86, according to the notes? | They owe a duty to the company alone. |
| What is the maximum word count for the company law assignment? | 1,500 words. |
| Which article by Merrick E. Dodd Jr. is assigned? | “For Whom Are Corporate Managers Trustees,” Harvard Law Review, Vol. 45, No. 7, May 1932, pp. 1145–1163. |
| Which article by A. A. Berle Jr. is assigned? | “For Whom Corporate Managers Are Trustees: A Note,” Harvard Law Review, Vol. 45, No. 8, June 1932, pp. 1365–1372. |
| What other forms of business can be conducted besides a company? | Several other forms that are viable options considering the business type and risks willing to be taken. |
| What is the most common and widely used business form in the world? | A Sole Trader. |
| How many persons undertake a sole trader business? | A single person (a one-person operation). |
| What are the legal filing requirements for a sole trader? | There are no legal filing requirements per se, but the owner contracts in their own name and has personal liability for all debts. |
| What act encourages sole traders in Zambia to formalise their businesses? | The Registration of Business Names Act No. 16 of 2011. |
| What does the Registration of Business Names Act allow a sole trader to do? | Register and use its business name for purposes of business. |
| Why is a sole trader suitable for small scale investment? | Because the business is just one individual; it is not suitable for larger scale investments requiring formal organisation. |
| How does a sole trader expand their business into a partnership? | By inviting other people to invest in the business as partners. |
| How does Section 1 of the Partnership Act 1890 define a partnership? | “The relation, which subsists between persons carrying on a business in common with a view of profit.” |
| What are the two types of partnerships? | Formal or informal. |
| What is a formal partnership? | One that has a formal written agreement specifying the terms and conditions of the partnership. |
| What is an informal partnership? | All that partners do is to fill up a form pursuant to the Regulation of Business Names Act, No. 16 of 2011. |
| Does a partnership constitute a separate legal entity? | No, a partnership is not a legal entity and has no separate legal existence from the persons that constitute it. |
| Can complex partnership agreements achieve limited liability? | No, one of the things such partnership agreements cannot achieve is limited liability (unless registered as limited liability partnerships where extent is defined by deed). |
| How are partners liable for the debts and liabilities of the partnership? | Jointly and severally liable. |
| How is a co-operative society defined under Section 2 of the Co-operative Societies Act No. 20 of 1998? | “Any enterprise or organization owned collectively by its members and managed collectively for social economic benefit and whose activities are not prohibited by law.” |
| Who must register every co-operative society in Zambia? | The Registrar of Co-operatives who is a Public Officer as provided by Part III of the Act. |
| What legal status does a registered co-operative society receive? | A body corporate with perpetual succession, a common seal, and limited liability. |
| What Act regulates the registration and operation of clubs in Zambia? | The Clubs Registration Act, Cap 162. |
| What are the requirements for a club to be registered under the Clubs Registration Act? | It must have a minimum of 25 members and must have premises. |
| Why do persons associate as a club or society? | For philanthropic, social, charitable, or professional reasons (e.g., political parties, golf clubs, or women’s clubs). |
| With whom are clubs and societies registered? | The Registrar of Societies. |
| Do clubs and societies enjoy separate legal personalities from their members? | No. Legal action is brought against members in their official capacity. |
| Which specific bodies are excluded from registration under clubs and societies? | Certain clubs and societies such as trade unions. |
| What happened in the case of National Milling Co. v M. Vashee (2000) ZR 98? | The Zambia Farmers' Union sued through their Chairman, M. Vashee, after National Milling offered to buy wheat below an agreed price due to market flooding. |
| What did the Court hold regarding unincorporated associations in National Milling Co. v M. Vashee? | An unincorporated association is not a legal person and cannot sue or be sued unless authorized by express or implied statutory provisions, though officers can sue or be sued in their official capacities. |
| What factors influence the choice of a business form? | Tax and government policies, regulatory regime, size of business and ease of formation, and limited liability protection. |
| Why must a lawyer be familiar with all business organization laws? | To be able to advise the client appropriately based on their needs and peculiarities. |
| Why are tax and government policies important when setting up a business? | The government's tax regime may be favourable for certain structures, and different sectors have specific policies and incentives. |
| Why is the regulatory regime a key consideration for business forms? | Certain businesses like banks and insurance companies are heavily regulated with stringent capital and corporate governance requirements. |
| Can a bank operate as a sole trader or partnership in Zambia? | No, due to the strict regulatory regime, high capital requirements, and governance rules in place. |
| How does the Companies Act affect the ease of forming a company? | It makes incorporating a company relatively easy, regardless of how small the business is. |
| Why do many clients still opt to be sole traders instead of incorporating? | Because the formation process and ongoing maintenance of a sole trader are significantly simplified compared to a company. |
| Why is limited liability protection an important consideration when choosing a business form? | Depending on the activity, owners may want to be shielded from potential business liabilities, which sole traders and partnerships lack. |
| What exists independent of the members who constitute it? | The incorporated company. |
| What case established that a company is a distinct legal person upon incorporation? | Salomon v Salomon & Co. (1897) AC 22. |
| What did Ngulube CJ state about a company's corporate existence? | It is a principle of law too entrenched to require elaboration that a company is a distinct legal person upon incorporation. |
| In Associated Chemicals Ltd v Hill & Delamain (1998), did changing shareholders affect company liability? | No, the court held it is wrong to distinguish between old and new management or shareholders regarding company liabilities. |
| Who sold a solvent business to a limited company in Salomon v Salomon & Co.? | A trader, who became the primary shareholder and managing director. |
| What was the outcome for the vendor in Salomon v Salomon & Co. regarding creditors' claims? | He was not liable to indemnify the company against the creditors' claims as the company was duly formed and not his agent or trustee. |
| What forms the cornerstone of company law? | The principle of separate corporate personality confirmed by Salomon’s case, also referred to as the “veil of incorporation”. |
| What did Macaura v Northern Assurance Co. Ltd [1925] establish? | The largest shareholder had no insurable interest in the property of the company due to separate legal personality. |
| What are the two general classifications of exceptions to Salomon's case? | Exceptions expressly provided by statute and those under judicial interpretation. |
| What is a statutory exception for lifting the veil under Section 12? | When a company carries on business for over 6 months with less than the statutory minimum of two members, knowing members are jointly and severally liable. |
| Why is carrying on business below the minimum members an exception? | Because the general rule states that a company's debts and liabilities cannot be enforced against the members. |
| What did Daimler Co. Ltd v Continental Tyre Ltd establish? | A company registered in England was held to be an alien enemy if the persons in de facto control of its affairs were alien enemies. |
| What must be present for courts to pierce the corporate veil? | Some evidence of impropriety, fraud, or a company being used as a façade. |
| What was held in Re H (1996) regarding piercing the corporate veil? | The court pierced the veil because companies controlled by the individuals were used for fraud, specifically the evasion of excise duties on a large scale. |
| What was the ruling in Ethiopian Airline Ltd v Sunbird Safaris Ltd (SCZ 2007)? | The Managing Director was held personally liable for debts for knowingly running the company with under 2 directors for over 6 months and for fraudulent purposes. |
| What did the Court of Appeal rule in Ord v Belhaven Pubs Ltd (1998)? | It refused to pierce the corporate veil, rejecting the idea that a group of companies is a single entity without impropriety or a façade. |
| What is the extent of a member's liability in an incorporated company? | Liabilities do not extend to members and are limited to the amount of unpaid shares under Section 7(4). |
| When does the limitation of liability for shareholders typically arise? | In the event that the company is being wound up. |
| What did ZCCM & Ndola Lime Ltd v Sikanyika (2002) establish regarding company changes? | A change of ownership of shares cannot result in the corporation becoming a new employer as corporate character continues. |
| What did Macaura v Northern Assurance Co. Ltd [1925] establish regarding property? | If a trader sells their business to a company, they cease to have an insurable interest in its assets even if they own all shares. |
| What powers does an incorporated company have under Section 1? | Perpetual succession, a common seal, capacity to sue/be sued, rights of an individual, and power to carry on business outside Zambia. |
| What did Lee v Lees’ Air Farming Ltd (1961) establish about a director? | A person can be both the governing director and an employee/servant of the company as they are a separate legal person. |
| What type of security can only a company create? | A floating charge, which floats over assets until crystallization. |
| What is a major advantage of public limited companies regarding finance? | They can raise finance directly from the stock exchange. |
| What are the main disadvantages of incorporation? | Formalities and compliance expenses, loss of privacy due to public documents, strict legislation impacts, and potential tax exposures. |
| Why do incorporated companies lose privacy under the Act? | Because several documents must be filed with the Registrar of Companies and become public documents. |
| How are statutory companies created? | Pursuant to a Special Act of Parliament to achieve specific objectives for the public good. |
| What are examples of statutory companies in Zambia? | Development Bank of Zambia, TAZAMA, and NAPSA. |
| Where are typical companies in Zambia created and recognized? | Under the Companies Act No. 10 of 2017. |
| What two main types of companies does Section 6 of the Companies Act recognize? | Public limited companies and private companies. |
| What are the three forms of private companies under the Companies Act? | Private company limited by shares, private company limited by guarantee, and an unlimited company. |
| Can a public company be incorporated as anything other than limited by shares? | No, a public company can only be incorporated as a company limited by shares. |
| What is the most common type of company registered in Zambia? | Private companies limited by shares. |
| What form is used to summarize the legal letter of private companies limited by shares? | Companies Form 3. |
| What are the key characteristics of a company limited by guarantee? | It has no share capital, cannot carry on business for profit, and cannot invite the public to acquire shares. |
| What form must subscribers of a company limited by guarantee fill out? | Companies Form 6, indicating what they guarantee to pay in the event of winding up. |
| What can a company limited by guarantee apply to the Registrar to omit from its name? | The word “limited” (under section 37(1) of the Companies Act). |
| How do private unlimited companies differ from companies limited by shares? | They have no limited liability, requiring members to contribute to debts to an unlimited extent in a winding-up. also better access to loans |
| What is the purpose of an incorporation checklist when advising a client? | To ensure the lawyer appears on top of their trade and avoids looking unprepared during back-and-forth discussions. |
| What does Section 12(3) of the Companies Act set out? | The information required for company incorporation. |
| What is a Corporation Soul? | A body corporate in the form of an office occupied by a single person (e.g., Minister of Finance, Administrator-General, Official Receiver). |
| What is a Corporation Aggregate? | A body corporate composed of multiple persons. |
| What is the first step after taking instructions to incorporate a company? | Name search and name clearance through the Registrar of Business Names under section 39 of the Companies Act. |
| What provision outlines instances when a proposed company name may be rejected by the Registrar? | Section 40(1) of the Companies Act. |
| What form has substituted the memorandum of association under the Companies Act? | Companies Form 3 (Application for Incorporation). |
| What documents must accompany the application for incorporation under Section 12? | Proposed articles (or statement adopting standard articles), declaration of compliance, director/secretary consent declarations, guarantee declarations (if applicable), and beneficial ownership statement (Form 21). |
| How must each subscriber sign the application for incorporation? | In the presence of at least one witness who attests to the signature (Section 6(5)). |
| When is a document or particular taken not to have been lodged with the Registrar? | When the fee prescribed under Section 349 of the Act has not been paid. |
| What happens if an individual prohibited under Section 12(8) subscribes to incorporation? | Section 14(2) states the company shall not be invalid solely by reason of that contravention. |
| What actions must the Registrar take under Section 14 when requirements are met? | Register the proposed company, issue a certificate of incorporation, issue a certificate of share capital, and assign a registration number. |
| When is the Registrar empowered to reject an incorporation application under Section 19(1)? | If the applicant does not meet the requirements of the Act or submits false information. |
| What was established in R v Registrar of Joint Stock Companies, ex parte More (1931)? | The Registrar was right in refusing to register a company because its object (selling tickets and licences in the Irish Lottery) was unlawful. |
| When does a company acquire its separate legal status and birth? | With effect from the date of incorporation specified in the Certificate of Incorporation (Section 16). |
| Which parts of the Companies Act cover the powers and duties of the Office of the Registrar of Companies? | Parts XV and XVI. |
| What are the five leading cases recommended for study regarding the company as a separate legal person? | Salomon v A Salomon & Co Ltd [1897], Macaura v Northern Assurance Co [1925], Lee v Lee’s Air Farming Ltd [1961], Gramophone and Typewriter Co Ltd v Stanley [1908], and Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd [1980]. |
| What is the contractual effect of incorporation under Section 17 of the Companies Act? | It has the same effect as a contract under seal between the company and its members, and between the members themselves, to conduct business in accordance with the application, certificates, articles, and the Act. |
| What capacity, rights, and powers does a company have under Section 22? | Subject to the Act and inherent corporate limitations, a company has the capacity, rights, powers, and privileges of an individual. |
| What happens if a company transacts business restricted by its articles in relation to third parties? | According to Section 23 of the Companies Act, the company is nevertheless bound in relation to third parties. |
| What documents have substituted the traditional memorandum of association under the current Companies Act? | The application for incorporation (Companies Form 3) and the articles of association. |
| Why are older cases regarding the objects clause still relevant despite the removal of the memorandum? | Because Section 25 of the Companies Act allows a company to limit the business it may carry on within its articles of association. |
| What must a lawyer always be cognizant of regarding company documents under Section 24? | The limitations placed on the presumption of knowledge of what is contained in a company's documents, including its articles of association. |
| What does the doctrine of constructive notice mean in company law? | The legal presumption that everyone involved with a business has knowledge of its articles of association or public documents filed at the Registrar. |
| Has the doctrine of constructive notice been abolished in Zambia? | Yes, under Section 24 of the Companies Act No. 10 of 2017, persons dealing with a company are not presumed to know contents of lodged documents. |
| What did the court hold in Bata Shoe Co. Ltd v Vinmas? | The company's authorized agents bound the company to comply with the contract, and liability could not be avoided by the managing director's claims. |
| What was established in Bank of Zambia v Chibote Meat Corporation (1999)? | Matters of internal procedure in the management of a company are not the concern of third parties. |
| What did the court hold in National Airports Corporation v Zimba and Konie? | An outsider dealing with a company cannot be concerned with any alleged want of authority when dealing with a representative of appropriate authority. |
| What are articles of association? | A document that defines the purpose of a company and specifies the regulations for its operations, acting as its internal constitution. |
| What does Section 25(3) of the Companies Act state regarding restricted business? | A company shall not carry on any business or exercise any power that it is restricted by its articles from carrying on. |
| What is the contractual effect of articles under Section 26 of the Companies Act? | They constitute a contract binding each member to the company and members inter se. |
| In what capacity do the articles bind members? | Members only in their capacity as shareholders (qua member) and not in any other capacity. |
| What was held in Hickman v Kent (1915) regarding articles and arbitration? | The plaintiff was bound by an article requiring disputes to be referred to arbitration because it applied to him qua member. |
| Why did the court refuse arbitration in Beattie v Beattie Ltd (1938)? | Because the dispute involved a director qua director, and articles only bind members in their capacity as shareholders. |
| How can a company amend or alter its articles under Section 27(1)? | By passing a special resolution. |
| What are pre-incorporation contracts? | Contracts entered into by promoters of a company before it is incorporated. |
| How does Section 20 of the Companies Act handle pre-incorporation contracts? | A company once incorporated can unilaterally adopt contracts made on its behalf prior to incorporation, becoming a party to them. |
| What is the effect when a company adopts a pre-incorporation contract? | It effectively releases from both liability and benefit the person who entered into the contract on behalf of the company before incorporation. |
| What meetings are required after a company is incorporated? | A post incorporation members meeting and a Board of Directors meeting, held as soon as necessary. |
| What are the key purposes of the post-incorporation members meeting? | To formalise formation agreements, formally appoint directors, adopt pre-incorporation contracts, and execute shareholders agreements. |
| What is a shareholders' agreement? | A contract entered into by shareholders at formation or later to supplement constitutional documents, governed by normal contract rules. |
| Why might members enter into a separate shareholders' agreement? | For privacy (articles are public at PACRA), to cover non-membership rights, and to prevent majority rule since agreements require 100% consent to change. |
| What is the purpose of the first post-incorporation directors' meeting? | To report on incorporation, authorize changes, and handle foundational setup like banking, seals, and statutory books. |
| What specific business is transacted at the first directors' meeting? | Appointing a chairman, confirming first directors/registered office, opening bank accounts, producing the common seal, and writing up statutory books. |
| Which sections of the Companies Act outline the records and registers a company must keep? | Sections 30 and 31 of the Companies Act. |
| Where is the process for a registered company converting from one form to another provided? | Part V of the Companies Act. |
| Which section of the Companies Act provides for a foreign company establishing a branch in Zambia? | Section 299, under Part XIV of the Companies Act. |
| What regulatory regime applies to a registered branch of a foreign company in Zambia? | It has its own specific regulatory regime under Part XIV of the Companies Act, alongside tax treatment considerations. |
| What is the focus of Activity No. 7 regarding Conrad Inc.? | Advising an international company on setting up a business in the Zambian mining industry, preparing a legal brief, and drafting necessary documents. |
| Why is it important for a lawyer to grasp incorporation and post-incorporation procedures? | Because requirements are distinct depending on the type of company being incorporated and its specific legal framework. |
| What is the prescribed primary statute for company law in this unit? | Companies Act No. 10 of 2017. |
| What is capital in the technical sense under company law? | Cash (or less often asset value) received by the company from investors who subscribe for shares, measured by 'value received'. |
| Why is a sharp distinction drawn between legal capital and other company assets? | It reflects the special protection provided to creditors of the company's legal capital. |
| Does the sale of shares by current owners to future shareholders at a premium alter legal capital? | No, the nominal capital remains unchanged even if shares are traded above their original value. |
| What are the unit specific outcomes for the capital unit? | Define share capital, explain public vs private capital raising, know public capital methods, explain capital maintenance rules, and define debentures/charges. |
| What are the key concepts listed for the capital unit? | Share Capital, Maintenance of Capital, Prospectus, Debentures, and Charges. |
| Why is the cost of equity funding generally higher than debt funding? | Because shareholder returns are proportionately greater if successful and worse if failure, reflecting higher investment risk. |
| What shareholder protection limits the dilution of their interests when new shares are issued? | Pre-emption rights (Section 144) and limitations on directors' powers of allotment (Section 149). |
| What specific protections are provided to shareholders under the Companies Act? | Limitations on new shares, protection against misleading inducements (s.212(a)), financial/class rights protection, and constitutional/management controls. |
| What are the three protective rules associated with company capital for creditors? | Minimum capital before trading requirements, rules ensuring legal capital records are received in full, and capital maintenance rules. |
| Which part of the Companies Act covers debentures and loan capital? | Part XI, specifically sections 225 to 245 of the Companies Act. |
| How does Section 3 of the Companies Act define a debenture? | A document issued by a corporate that evidences or acknowledges a debt, whether or not it constitutes a charge on property, for money lent or deposited. |
| What does the extended definition of a debenture include under the Act? | A unit of debenture, debenture stock, bonds, and any other securities issued by a corporation, excluding routine documents. |
| What is debenture stock? | Money borrowed from multiple lenders on the same terms, where lenders form a class of creditors whose rights are set out in a trust deed. |
| What is the legal nature of a debenture compared to a share? | A debenture creates a debtor-creditor relationship, whereas a shareholder is a member of the company having rights in it. |
| What is a charge in the context of company borrowing? | A security interest created over an asset by its owner in favour of a creditor to be appropriated to discharge a debt, with no title transfer. |
| How does Section 3 define a charge? | A charge created in any way, including security interests, mortgages, agreements to give mortgages, debentures, and land sale agreements. |
| How can a chargee enforce their rights over property? | By the sale of the property, either by court order or via express power in the security documents without court recourse. |
| What are the questions in Activity No. 9's sample exam question? | Differences between fixed and floating charges, and whether floating charge holders have an equitable proprietary interest prior to crystallisation. |
| What is capital in the technical sense under company law? | Cash or asset value received from investors subscribing for shares, measured by value received rather than current asset value. |
| What is a placing? | A method of raising capital where a company identifies selected investors who agree to take up the shares. |
| What statutes govern the public issue of shares and trading in Zambia? | Part X of the Companies Act and sections 75 and 76 of the Securities Act No. 41 of 2016. |
| What is a prospectus? | A brochure that gives information on the company and acts as an invitation to the public to subscribe for shares. |
| What conditions must be met under Section 211 to invite the public to purchase shares or debentures? | A prospectus must be registered with the Registrar within 6 months prior, a true copy supplied to every person invited, and the copy must state on its face that it is registered. |
| What are the content requirements for a prospectus under Section 212 of the Companies Act? | It must not contain untrue or misleading statements, must include all reasonably expected investor information, address Third Schedule issues, and have a statutory declaration by a director and secretary. |
| What is the purpose of the rules on maintenance of capital? | To provide creditor protection by ensuring a company's legal capital is maintained and not improperly returned to members. |
| What does Section 3 of the Companies Act state regarding shares? | It states that a share includes stock, though the Act itself does not provide a comprehensive definition of "shares". |
| How does Section 2 of the Securities Act No. 41 of 2016 define a "share"? | An ownership interest or stocks issued or proposed to be issued by a company in its capital. |
| What is the widely acknowledged definition of a share by Farwell J in Borland’s Trustee v Steel Brothers & Co. Ltd? | A shareholder's interest measured by a sum of money for liability and interest, made up of mutual covenants under the articles of association. |
| Does a shareholder's financial interest give them direct ownership of the company's assets? | No, because company assets belong to the company as a separate legal entity (as held in Macaura v Northern Assurance Co). |
| What did Short v Treasury Commissioners (1948) establish regarding share valuation? | A shareholder is entitled to be paid based on the value of a single share, without adding a ratable portion of the "control" value of the totality of shares. |
| What bundle of rights do shareholders share in common? | The right to attend and vote at meetings, receive equal shares in dividends when authorized, and participate in the distribution of surplus assets upon liquidation. |
| How are shares recognized in law regarding property? | As personal property under Section 141 of the Companies Act that can be bought, sold, mortgaged, and bequeathed. |
| What are the three ways a person can become a shareholder in a company? | By subscribing to the Incorporation Form, by applying for shares which are then allotted, or by a transfer of shares from an existing member. |
| What is membership by subscription? | When two or more persons subscribe their names to the Incorporation Form taking at least one share each, becoming founding members upon company registration. |
| What is the definition of allotment of shares? | The appropriation of a certain number of shares to a specific person. |
| How does allotment function as a contract in private versus public companies? | In a private company, application is an offer and allotment is acceptance; in a public company, a prospectus is an invitation to treat, a public application is the offer, and allotment is acceptance. |
| What is a private placement? | An issuance where specific people are discreetly identified for shares because statutory restrictions limit public invitations by private companies. |
| What is the difference between an Initial Public Offering (IPO) and a subsequent Public Offering (PO)? | An IPO is the first invitation made to the public, while subsequent invitations are public offerings. |
| What is a return as to allotment of shares under Section 149? | A document that a company must lodge with the Registrar within 10 days of allotting shares, accompanied by a special resolution of shareholders. |
| What did the court hold in Pan Electronics Ltd v Andreas Miltiadous (1988-89)? | An examination of the return of allotments filed with the Registrar is not a relevant method to decide the question of fact of ownership of shares. |
| What is a transfer of shares? | A voluntary inter vivos disposition or change of ownership of shares between a willing buyer and willing seller, freely transferable unless restricted by articles or the Act. |
| How is a transfer of shares executed under Section 188? | By entering the transferee's name on the share and beneficial ownership register, evidenced by registration and a written Share Transfer Form (Companies Form 18). |
| Within what timeframe must a company register a transferee after receiving a valid transfer form under Section 188? | Within 21 days of receipt, unless specific statutory grounds for refusal apply. |
| Under what circumstances can a board of directors refuse to register a share transfer under Section 189(3)? | When the transferee is under 18 years old, of unsound mind as determined by a court, or legally bankrupt. |
| What is transmission of shares by operation of law under Section 190? | An involuntary, non-consensual, and non-contractual process arising from a member dying, becoming insane, bankrupt, or being liquidated. |
| Who is recognized by the company upon the death of a member? | The survivor or survivors in the case of joint holders, or the legal personal representative. |
| What power does a company have over a personal representative under Section 190(7)? | The company can serve notice requiring the representative to register or transfer the shares within 90 days, failing which dividend payments can be suspended. |
| Apart from transfer and transmission, what are the other circumstances in which share ownership may change? | Forfeiture, surrender, and redemption under Sections 148, 177, 178, 179, 181, and 182. |
| What are the requirements for a company issuing redeemable shares? | The company must have other non-redeemable share classes, shares must be fully paid, and redemption must be funded out of distributable profits or a fresh issue of shares. |
| How does Section 3 of the Companies Act define stock in relation to shares? | The Act does not define stock separately but provides that "share" includes stock, with stock being a collection of a member's fully paid-up shares. |
| Can stock be issued directly by a company? | No, stock cannot be issued directly because it is a conversion of already existing shares. |
| Must stock be fully paid up, and does this apply to shares? | Stock must always be fully paid up, whereas shares do not need to be fully paid up initially. |
| How do distinctive numbers distinguish shares from stock? | Shares usually have a definite distinctive number for identification, whereas stock does not have any distinctive numbers. |
| How do transfer and calculation methods differ between shares and stock? | Shares are calculated and transferred as whole units, whereas stock can be transferred in fractions and is calculated in terms of a percentage of the total. |
| When are shares considered "contingent" versus "vested"? | Shares are contingent if the holder has not yet paid for them, and they become vested when the company makes a call because payment is due and owing. |
| Do shares and stock both possess a nominal value? | Shares have a nominal value, whereas stock does not have any nominal value. |
| What is the legal presumption between shareholders regarding a going concern? | A presumption of equality in respect of voting, dividends, and surplus in the event of a winding up (Birch v Cropper). |
| Can the legal presumption of equality between shareholders be rebutted? | Yes, a company can issue shares with different class rights, which is normally provided in its articles of association. |
| What are ordinary shares also referred to as? | Equities; they are the most common and default form of shares in a company. |
| What rights do ordinary shareholders hold upon winding up? | A right to participate in the distribution of surplus assets after other shareholders have had their capital returned. |
| What are non-voting ordinary shares typically used for? | To raise capital from investors who do not wish to participate in the management or decision-making of the company. |
| Why are preference shares so labeled? | Because they carry preferred rights in relation to ordinary shares, specifically regarding fixed dividends and return of capital. |
| Do preference shares usually carry voting rights? | No, preference shares usually carry no voting rights unless their fixed dividend is not paid. |
| What are the main disadvantages of preference shares? | They carry no voting rights for management participation and do not partake in any excess profits upon winding up. |
| What are founder or management shares also known as, and who are they reserved for? | Also called deferred shares, this rare class is usually reserved for the founders of the company. |
| What is a unique financial feature of founder or management shares? | Holders receive a "second bite," meaning a second dividend after everyone else has received their first dividend. |
| What are redeemable shares? | Shares created on terms that they shall be, or may be at the option of the company or member be, bought back by the company at a future date. |
| What conditions govern the redemption of redeemable shares under the Act? | They must be fully paid, the company must have non-redeemable shares, and redemption must be funded from distributable profits or a fresh issue. |
| What is a golden share? | A share carrying a super vote used to outvote other shareholders and prevent undesirable actions, which cannot be traded on the stock exchange. |
| What are employees' shares subject to? | Special restrictions, such as limits on the holder's right of disposal, though they rank pari passu with other shares of their class. |
| What section of the Companies Act governs the procedure for varying class rights? | Section 143 of the Companies Act. |
| What is the objective of the variation of class rights procedure? | To protect class rights from being varied or abrogated through a simple article alteration or a standard shareholders' resolution. |
| What are the two primary corporate organs of a company? | The shareholders (members) acting through general meetings and the Board of Directors. |
| What type of decisions are reserved exclusively for shareholders under Section 87(1) of the Companies Act? | Certain core corporate decisions reserved to manage the risks of giving directors excessive power. |
| What are the three categories of general meetings under Section 56(1) of the Companies Act? | (a) An annual general meeting, (b) An extraordinary general meeting, and (c) A class meeting. |
| What is the purpose of an annual general meeting (AGM) under Section 57? | An annual meeting of shareholders and directors to discuss company performance, challenge strategic direction, and conduct required business under Section 58. |
| What is an extraordinary general meeting (EGM) used for under Section 59? | To transact specific, urgent business that cannot wait until the scheduled annual general meeting. |
| What are the three types of resolutions a company can pass under Section 3 of the Companies Act? | Ordinary resolution, extraordinary resolution, and special resolution. |
| What is the statutory basis for the office of the company secretary under the Companies Act? | Created by Section 82, requiring every company to have a secretary who is resident (if an individual) or incorporated (if a body corporate) in Zambia. |
| What are the primary duties of a company secretary under Section 83? | To ensure statutory and constitutional compliance, convene and take minutes of meetings, file annual returns, maintain registers, and ensure proper use of the company seal. |
| How is a "director" defined under Section 3 of the Companies Act? | A person appointed as a member of the board of directors, including an alternate director by whatever name designated. |
| What are the general powers of a board of directors under Section 86(1) of the Companies Act? | To manage the business of the company and exercise all powers not required by the Act or articles to be exercised by the members. |
| What is the legal relationship between a director and the company? | A fiduciary relationship where directors act as agents of the company and owe their duties to the company, not individual members. |
| What general responsibilities are placed on directors under Section 105 of the Companies Act? | To manage business risks, avoid substantial risks of serious loss, act in good faith in the best interests of the company, and exercise reasonable care, diligence, and skill. |
| What key fiduciary duties are codified for directors under Section 106 of the Companies Act? | Exercising powers for proper purposes, promoting company success, avoiding secret profits, exercising independent judgment, disclosing remuneration, avoiding conflicts of interest, and acting fairly between shareholders. |
| What is the rule regarding persons deemed directors by default under Section 85(5)? | A person who holds themselves out or knowingly allows themselves to be held out as a director is subject to all director duties and liabilities and commits an offense. |
| How does Section 85(7) protect third parties regarding limitations on a director's authority? | A limitation on authority is ineffective against a third party without knowledge of the limitation unless they ought to have known based on their relationship with the company. |
| What are the minimum statutory number of directors required under Section 85(2)? | At least 2 directors for a private company and at least 3 directors for a public limited company. |
| What is the consequence of operating a company with fewer than the minimum number of directors for more than 90 days? | It constitutes an offense under the Act. |
| What are the qualifications required for appointment as a director under Section 92? | Only a natural person can be appointed as a director, subject to any additional restrictions in the company's articles. |
| What is the difference between executive and non-executive directors? | Executive directors are full-time officers in an employment relationship managing daily business, while non-executive directors are independent and have no executive functions. |
| What is an alternate director under Section 97? | A director appointed to act as a substitute or alternate on the board in accordance with Section 97. |
| What trend do modern company law and dispersed membership show regarding shareholders? | The members' role has become more diminished, creating a split between "ownership" and "control" and raising agency debates on director accountability. |
| What did the Supreme Court hold in Van Boxtel v Rosalyn Mary Kearney (1987)? | Shareholders enjoy, as a matter of right, overriding authority over company affairs, and unanimous intra vires decisions at meetings are valid. |
| What did the court hold in ZCCM v Kangwa & Others (2000) regarding shareholders? | Shareholders as beneficial owners enjoy as of right overriding authority over company affairs, even over the wishes of directors or nominees. |
| What principle was established in the English case Shaw & Sons (Salford) Ltd v Shaw (1935)? | If management powers are vested in directors, they alone can exercise them; shareholders cannot usurp these powers except by altering articles or unseating directors. |
| What did the court establish in Howard Smith Ltd v Ampol Petroleum Ltd regarding directors' share allotments? | Directors cannot use their fiduciary powers over shares for the primary purpose of destroying an existing majority or creating a new majority shareholding. |
| What is the King IV Report on Corporate Governance for South Africa 2016? | A widely accepted global authority on corporate governance containing principles that guide internal decision-making processes. |
| What role do codes like the LUSE Corporate Governance Code play for companies? | Though non-binding, their importance has grown, and companies adopt their principles as guides in internal decision-making processes. |
| What are the key insolvency procedures available for companies in financial difficulty? | Business Rescue, Schemes of Arrangement, Reconstruction and Amalgamation, Receiverships, and Liquidations. |
| Is there a necessary connection between insolvency and the winding up of a company? | No, some companies can be wound up with healthy balance sheets, when business opportunities end, or when members wish to part ways. |
| Who assumes the governance of a company during insolvency procedures? | A qualified insolvency practitioner or, in compulsory liquidations at the outset, an official receiver. |
| What is the principal statute governing corporate insolvency procedures in Zambia? | The Corporate Insolvency Act No. 9 of 2017. |
| What statutes and regulations make up the general legal framework for insolvency in Zambia? | Corporate Insolvency Act No. 9 of 2017, SI Nos. 40 and 41 of 2019, Banking and Financial Services Act, Insurance Act, and the Companies Act. |
| What is commercial insolvency? | When a company is unable to pay its debts as they fall due, representing cash-flow problems rather than an overall asset deficit. |
| What is balance sheet insolvency? | When the value of a company's assets is less than the amount of its liabilities, taking contingent and prospective liabilities into account. |
| Does a company that is insolvent in balance sheet terms necessarily face commercial insolvency? | No, a company insolvent in balance sheet terms is not necessarily commercially insolvent. |
| What is ultimate insolvency? | The final position when a company's assets are sold up and there is insufficient money realized to pay creditors in full. |
| What is a scheme of arrangement under the Corporate Insolvency Act No. 9 of 2017? | A formal statutory procedure under Part IV where a company enters into a compromise or arrangement with its members or creditors (or any class of them). |
| Does a company need to be insolvent to use a scheme of arrangement? | No, under Section 46(2) of the CIA, a company does not need to be insolvent to utilize a scheme of arrangement. |
| What two main approvals are required for a scheme of arrangement to take effect? | Approval by the requisite majority of creditors or members (extraordinary resolution) and subsequent court sanction. |
| How is voting power assigned at a meeting of creditors under Section 46(7) of the CIA? | In proportion to the amount of debt outstanding from the company. |
| When does a scheme of arrangement officially become effective? | Upon delivery of the relevant court sanction order by the company to the Registrar of Companies, binding all creditors of each relevant class (Section 46(8)). |
| What did the court hold in Re National Farmers Union Development Trust Ltd (1972) regarding "compromise" or "arrangement"? | The terms imply some element of mutual accommodation on each side and are inappropriate for a scheme where members simply surrender their rights altogether. |
| Can secured creditors' claims be compromised without unanimous consent in a scheme? | Yes, as long as the requisite extraordinary resolution voting thresholds are met, distinguishing it from a company voluntary arrangement. |
| Does a scheme of arrangement automatically trigger a moratorium or stay on creditor enforcement? | No, unlike a formal insolvency procedure, a scheme does not in and of itself trigger a moratorium or stay on legal proceedings, though one can be incorporated. |
| What are some of the flexible restructuring solutions that can be achieved through a scheme? | Debt-for-equity swaps, injection of new money, resetting of payment terms, and the release of security guarantees. |
| What are the major practical weaknesses of a scheme of arrangement? | It is fragile, highly dependent on court approval, requires a high degree of creditor cooperation, and risks dissenting creditors triggering receivership or liquidation. |
| What is receivership in company law? | A process in which a creditor enforces security over a debtor's property after default on a debt secured by a charge. |
| How can a receiver be appointed? | By court order or pursuant to the power conferred by the security instrument/deed without court recourse under Sections 4, 9, and 10 of the Corporate Insolvency Act (CIA). |
| What notice requirement applies upon appointing a receiver under Section 5 of the CIA? | Notice must be given to the Registrar using Form I prescribed under Regulation 2 of SI No. 41 of 2017. |
| What is the legal status of a receiver appointed by the court under Section 12 of the CIA? | An officer of the court who is accountable to it and not subject to direction or dictation by the appointing creditor. |
| What is the legal status of a receiver appointed independently under a deed pursuant to Section 13 of the CIA? | Considered an agent of the company and not of the creditor who appointed them. |
| What is the primary duty of a receiver? | To get in and, as necessary, realize sufficient company assets and undertaking to satisfy the outstanding debt of the appointing creditor. |
| What is a receiver-manager? | A twin office where the appointee is empowered to manage the business (requiring a floating charge over the whole undertaking) rather than just realize assets. |
| What effect does appointing a receiver-manager have on the company's directors? | It puts an end to the directors' powers to manage the business, though they retain their office and other functions. |
| What did the Supreme Court hold in Magnum (Zambia) Limited v Basit Quadri? | A receiver secures the debenture holder's interests as the company's agent, and the company has no independent locus standi to sue or defend legal proceedings. |
| What was established in Livingstone Motor Assemblers Limited v Indeco Estates regarding receivership and liquidation? | The receiver's administration takes precedence, and secured creditors stand outside the liquidation. |
| What is the order of payments out of realisations when a charge is floating under the CIA? | (a) Winding up expenses, (b) Receiver's expenses, (c) Statutory share for unsecured creditors, (d) Preferential debts, and (e) Debt owed to the charge holder. |
| How does a fixed charge differ from a floating charge during asset distribution? | Property under a fixed charge is not subject to deductions for winding-up expenses, unsecured creditor shares, or preferential debts. |
| What is the purpose of business rescue proceedings under the Corporate Insolvency Act? | To provide a ring-fenced moratorium measure giving troubled businesses breathing space to rehabilitate and restructure rather than face immediate liquidation. |
| What are the three main components of business rescue proceedings under the CIA? | (a) Temporary supervision by a business rescue administrator, (b) a temporary moratorium/stay on claimant rights, and (c) the development and implementation of a business rescue plan. |
| What are the two ways a business rescue can be commenced? | (1) Voluntarily by members under Section 21(1) of the CIA, or (2) through a court order application by an affected person under Section 23(1). |
| What documents must be filed for a voluntary business rescue under Regulation 6(1) of SI No. 41 of 2019? | Form V and a copy of the Special Resolution. |
| What is the standard statutory duration for business rescue proceedings? | The whole process should terminate within 12 months in accordance with Section 24(1) of the CIA. |
| Who qualifies to be appointed as a Business Rescue Administrator in Zambia? | Only legal practitioners or chartered accountants who are accredited insolvency practitioners under Section 30(2) and Regulation 2 of SI No. 40 of 2019. |
| What management powers does the Business Rescue Administrator hold under Section 32 of the CIA? | Full management and control over the company, with the authority to delegate functions or remove pre-existing management. |
| What actions must the administrator take after investigating the company's affairs under Section 33? | To assess rescue prospects and inform the company, court, and affected persons if there is no prospect of rescue, no financial distress, or evidence of fraud, reckless trading, or voidable transactions. |
| What is the effect of business rescue on company directors under Section 34 of the CIA? | Directors retain their positions unless removed by the administrator, but their executive powers and authority become subject to the administrator. |
| How are employees affected upon the commencement of business rescue under Section 28 of the CIA? | Employees continue to be employed on the same terms and conditions unless different terms are agreed upon or changes occur through natural attrition. |
| How are creditors affected upon the commencement of business rescue under Sections 36 and 37 of the CIA? | Historic claims are crystallized, and legal proceedings are subject to a statutory stay (moratorium), barring enforcement actions without permission from the administrator or court. |
| What restrictions apply to shareholders' securities during business rescue under Section 38 of the CIA? | No alteration to the classification or status of issued securities can occur unless in the ordinary course of business, by court order, or pursuant to the business rescue plan. |
| Within what timeframe must a business rescue plan be published under Section 41(5) of the CIA? | Within 30 days after the administrator's appointment, or any longer period allowed by the court or majority creditors. |
| What voting threshold is required to adopt a business rescue plan under Section 42(1)(d)? | A favourable vote of at least 75 percent of affected persons' voting interests, of which 50 percent must be independent third-party creditors. |
| Who is bound once a business rescue plan is adopted under Section 43 of the CIA? | The company, all creditors, and every holder of securities, whether or not they were present or voted in favour of the plan. |
| What constitutes post-commencement finance (PCF) under Section 27 of the CIA? | Finance provided to the company after business rescue proceedings commence, including employee remuneration, reimbursements, or other employment-related amounts becoming due. |
| What happens during the winding up or liquidation of a company? | The company gives up its business, sells off its assets, pays its debts, and distributes any remaining surplus amongst its members before formal dissolution. |
| Which statute governs the winding-up process in Zambia? | Parts V, VI, VII, and VIII of the Corporate Insolvency Act No. 9 of 2017 (CIA). |
| What are the two basic modes or methods of winding-up under Section 50 of the CIA? | Winding-up by the court (compulsory) and voluntary winding-up. |
| Which court in Zambia holds the jurisdiction to wind up a body corporate? | The High Court of Zambia under Section 55 of the CIA. |
| Who is empowered to petition the court for a compulsory winding-up under Section 56(1) of the CIA? | The company, a creditor, a member, a personal representative, a trustee in bankruptcy, a voluntary liquidator, or the Registrar/Official Receiver. |
| What restrictions apply to a member presenting a winding-up petition under Section 56(2)? | Their shares must have been originally allotted to them, held and registered in their name for at least six months, or devolved by operation of law. |
| What are the grounds upon which the High Court may order a compulsory winding-up under Section 57(1)? | Special resolution, inability to pay debts, duration/event expiration, members reduced below two, unlawful purpose, fraudulent incorporation, or just and equitable. |
| When is a compulsory winding-up deemed to have commenced under Section 58(1)? | At the time the relevant petition is presented, unless preceded by a voluntary resolution, in which case it commences from the resolution date. |
| Why may the court appoint a provisional liquidator under Sections 65 and 67 of the CIA? | To take charge of the company after a petition is presented and before a substantive liquidator is appointed, avoiding an asset-stripping management vacuum. |
| What is the basic duty and status of a liquidator in a compulsory liquidation? | To realize assets, pay debts, and distribute surplus; acting in the company's name as a qualified insolvency practitioner and officer of the court. |
| How is a liquidator's remuneration determined under Section 70 of the CIA? | By agreement with the committee of inspection, by extraordinary resolution at a creditors' meeting, or by the court. |
| What is the role of a Committee of Inspection under Sections 76 and 77 of the CIA? | To provide assistance and guidance to the liquidator, approve certain powers, and approve the liquidator's remuneration. |
| What takes place during a members' voluntary winding-up? | A solvent winding-up managed entirely by members, requiring directors to make a statutory declaration of solvency within the preceding 30 days. |
| What is required for a valid declaration of solvency in a members' voluntary winding-up? | Directors must state they have inquired into affairs and formed the view the company can settle all debts in full within a stated period not exceeding 12 months. |
| How does a creditors' voluntary winding-up differ from a members' voluntary winding-up? | It occurs when the company is insolvent or unwilling/unable to make a declaration of solvency, with creditors driving the process. |
| What are the consequences of passing a winding-up resolution under Section 90? | The company must cease carrying on business except for beneficial winding-up purposes, and asset transfers or dealings become void. |
| What is the statutory order of priority for paying debts and liabilities during a winding-up under Section 127? | Winding-up expenses, receiver's expenses, statutory share for unsecured creditors, preferential debts, and remaining liabilities to creditors/charge holders. |
| What is the effect of the formal act of dissolution under Section 105 of the CIA? |