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CRIMINOLOGY EXAM 2
Test
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are the three special issues discussed under mental illness and crime? | Mental illness and violent crime, deception and malingering, and youth in the legal system and developmental immaturity. |
| Does mental illness automatically cause criminal or violent behavior? | No. The material emphasizes that mental illness alone is not sufficient to explain violence or crime. |
| What is an important contextual factor that can increase violence risk among people with mental illness? | Co-occurring substance use. |
| What did the MacArthur Violence Risk Assessment Study find about mental illness and violence? | It found that violence was associated with multiple factors, including command hallucinations and psychopathy as well as prior violence, childhood physical abuse, antisocial behavior, anger, and environmental factors. |
| What are dispositional impellance factors in the I model of aggression? | Internal factors such as anger and perceived threats that may impel someone toward violence. |
| What are situational impellance factors in the I model of aggression? | Contextual factors such as divorce or separation, financial problems, or victimization that may foster violence. |
| What is disinhibition in the I model of aggression? | External factors such as drug or alcohol intoxication that make it easier for someone to commit violence. |
| What did research find about violence among psychiatric patients without substance use disorders compared with people from the same neighborhoods? | Their rates of violence were about the same, suggesting that environmental conditions can contribute substantially to violence. |
| What does the material suggest about people with serious mental illness and violent victimization? | People with serious mental illnesses are far more likely to be victims of violent crime than perpetrators. |
| What two clinical symptoms were associated with violent acts in the MacArthur study after psychiatric discharge? | Command hallucinations and psychopathy. |
| What is a command hallucination? | A hallucination that directs a person to perform an action. |
| Why can command hallucinations be important when assessing violence risk? | They are associated with more severe mental disorder and can involve commands to harm oneself or others. |
| What percentage of people with command hallucinations reported feeling unable to resist them in the lecture material? | About 25 percent. |
| What is not guilty by reason of insanity or NGRI? | A legal finding concerning whether a mental disease or defect affected a defendant's capacity at the time of the alleged offense. |
| What is the first question in the NGRI legal standard? | Whether the person suffered from a mental disease or defect at the time of the alleged act. |
| What is the second question in the NGRI legal standard? | Whether the mental disease or defect caused the person to lack substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of the conduct and or conform conduct to the requirements of the law. |
| What are the two capacities considered under the NGRI standard? | The capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of the conduct and the capacity to conform conduct to the requirements of the law. |
| Why is simply having a mental illness not enough for an NGRI finding? | The mental illness must be relevant to the person's mental capacity at the time of the offense and directly linked to the offense. |
| What questions can be used when assessing an NGRI claim? | Whether the person planned the offense, attempted to avoid detection, showed signs of mental illness before during or after the offense, and whether the mental illness was directly linked to the offense. |
| Why can planning an offense matter when assessing NGRI? | Planning can demonstrate behavioral control, although the reason for the planning must also be considered because psychotic beliefs could motivate the planning. |
| Why can attempting to avoid detection matter when assessing NGRI? | It can suggest that the person understood the conduct was wrong, although delusional beliefs could also motivate attempts to avoid detection. |
| Why is collateral information important when assessing NGRI? | Evidence of mental illness before, during, and after the offense can help determine whether the illness was present and relevant to the offense. |
| How common is an NGRI defense according to the lecture material? | It is rarely raised, occurring in about 1 percent of felony indictments. |
| What does the lecture say about expert agreement in NGRI cases? | There tends to be high agreement among experts in NGRI findings. |
| What types of disorders are common among people found NGRI? | Psychotic disorders are common, and many individuals also have a history of mental health problems. |
| Approximately what percentage of people found NGRI had psychotic disorders in the lecture material? | About 70 percent. |
| What is the main criterion associated with psychotic disorders? | Loss of contact with reality. |
| What are three major features of psychotic disorders? | Delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized behavior or thoughts. |
| What is a delusion? | A false or strongly held belief that is inconsistent with reality. |
| What is a hallucination? | A perception or sensory experience that occurs without an external stimulus. |
| What is malingering? | The intentional faking or exaggeration of symptoms for secondary gain. |
| What is an example of secondary gain in a legal setting? | Faking symptoms in an attempt to avoid legal consequences. |
| Why is deception relevant to forensic mental health assessment? | People may intentionally misrepresent symptoms, making it important to distinguish genuine symptoms from malingering. |
| What is a control question test or CQT? | A type of polygraph procedure that compares physiological responses to control questions with responses to relevant questions. |
| What physiological measures can a polygraph measure? | Measures such as heart rate and skin conductance. |
| What did the lecture suggest about people's ability to detect lies? | People are generally not very good at detecting lies. |
| What did the polygraph research involving psychopathy find? | People high in psychopathy were not more likely to beat the polygraph than people low in psychopathy in that study. |
| What percentage of subjects were correctly classified in the Patrick and Iacono polygraph study? | About 87 percent. |
| What did research on beating a polygraph find? | About 47 percent of the guilty sample could beat it when taught specific countermeasures involving control questions. |
| What is competency to proceed? | Whether a defendant currently has sufficient mental capacity to understand legal proceedings and or assist in their own defense. |
| What is the Dusky standard? | The defendant must have sufficient present ability to consult with a lawyer with a reasonable degree of rational understanding and have a rational as well as factual understanding of the proceedings. |
| How does competency to proceed differ from NGRI? | Competency concerns the person's current ability to understand and participate in legal proceedings, while NGRI concerns mental capacity at the time of the alleged offense. |
| What are some issues relevant to determining whether a young person is competent to proceed? | Understanding legal rights, concrete versus abstract thinking, future time perspective, immediate versus long-term thinking, and developmental independence. |
| What is developmental immaturity in the legal system? | The idea that developmental differences in judgment and decision-making can affect how young people understand and respond to legal situations. |
| Does adolescence automatically cause crime? | No. The lecture raises developmental immaturity as a factor that may influence decision-making rather than claiming adolescence itself causes crime. |
| What are four areas of psychosocial immaturity discussed in the lecture? | Susceptibility to peer influence, attitudes toward and perceptions of risk, future orientation, and capacity for self-management. |
| How can susceptibility to peer influence affect youth decision-making? | Young people may be more influenced by peers when making decisions than adults. |
| How can future orientation differ between adolescents and adults? | Adolescents may place more emphasis on immediate outcomes and less on long-term consequences. |
| What is the difference between an excuse and mitigation? | An excuse means no legal responsibility, while mitigation reduces responsibility without eliminating it. |
| How can developmental immaturity function as a mitigating factor? | It can reduce responsibility by recognizing developmental differences without completely eliminating accountability. |
| What is the Slender Man case discussed in lecture? | Two 12-year-old girls stabbed a friend after believing that doing so would gain favor with the fictional Slender Man. |
| What diagnoses were associated with the two girls in the Slender Man case? | Morgan Geyser was diagnosed with childhood-onset schizophrenia, while Anissa Weier was diagnosed with a schizophrenia spectrum disorder involving shared delusional beliefs. |
| What was important about Morgan Geyser's beliefs in the Slender Man case? | She demonstrated severe psychotic beliefs, including believing in Slender Man and other fictional or unusual entities and believing the stabbing was necessary to please Slender Man. |
| What happened regarding Morgan Geyser's competency to proceed? | She was initially found incompetent but was later found to have regained competency after treatment. |
| Why is the Slender Man case useful for discussing both NGRI and competency? | It illustrates questions about mental illness at the time of an offense as well as whether a defendant currently understands legal proceedings and can assist in a defense. |
| What was the legal relevance of the Ralph Tortorici case discussed in lecture? | It was used to consider questions involving NGRI, competency, and the legal process. |
| What major issue does the community mental health reading discuss? | The development and failure of the United States community mental health center movement and its consequences for people with serious mental illness. |
| What was the goal of the community mental health center movement? | To provide mental health services within communities rather than relying primarily on large psychiatric institutions. |
| What happened after the community mental health movement failed to create enough services? | Many people with serious mental illnesses ended up in places such as prisons, jails, homeless shelters, or hospitals rather than receiving adequate community treatment. |
| Why is coordination between mental health services and other institutions important? | Hospitals, police departments, homeless shelters, and other institutions need to work together so mental health care is not isolated from the wider community. |
| What does the community mental health reading argue about the range of services needed? | A strong mental health system needs outpatient care, short-term crisis facilities, and some congregate institutions for the small number of people who cannot safely live in the community. |
| What are callous-unemotional behaviors? | Behaviors characterized by low empathy, callousness, and low interpersonal emotions. |
| Why are callous-unemotional behaviors important in developmental research? | Early callous-unemotional behaviors are associated with more severe, chronic, and stable trajectories of antisocial behavior. |
| When can callous-unemotional behaviors be identified according to the reading? | They can be measured in early childhood, including as early as age 3 in the research discussed. |
| What later outcomes are associated with early callous-unemotional behaviors? | They are associated with more severe antisocial behavior and later callous-unemotional traits, conduct disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and psychopathy. |
| What did the adoption study on callous-unemotional behaviors examine? | It examined heritable and nonheritable pathways using biological and adoptive parents and their children. |
| How many families were included in the callous-unemotional behavior adoption study? | 561 families. |
| What did biological mothers' severe antisocial behavior predict in the adoption study? | Higher levels of callous-unemotional behaviors in their children. |
| Why is the biological mother finding important in an adoption study? | The biological mothers had limited or no contact with the children, providing evidence for a heritable pathway rather than simply a shared rearing environment. |
| What did adoptive mother positive reinforcement predict? | Lower levels of early callous-unemotional behaviors. |
| What did the study find about positive reinforcement and genetic risk? | High levels of positive reinforcement buffered the effects of heritable risk associated with biological maternal antisocial behavior. |
| What is the major takeaway from the callous-unemotional adoption study? | Both heritable and environmental factors contribute to callous-unemotional behaviors, and positive parenting can reduce the expression of inherited risk. |
| What did the reading say about the heritability of callous-unemotional traits? | Twin studies have estimated heritability at roughly 0.45 to 0.67. |
| What is a major limitation of twin and adoption studies? | They can estimate the relative contribution of genetic and environmental influences but cannot by themselves identify the specific genes or environments responsible. |
| What is gene-environment interaction? | A process in which the effect of a genetic characteristic on behavior depends on environmental experiences. |
| What did the Caspi MAOA research examine? | Whether childhood maltreatment interacted with MAOA genotype to predict antisocial and violent behavior. |
| What did the MAOA study find about childhood maltreatment? | Childhood maltreatment was associated with higher levels of antisocial and violent outcomes. |
| What did the MAOA study find about the low-activity MAOA genotype by itself? | The main effect of the MAOA genotype alone was not a statistically significant predictor of the antisocial outcomes examined. |
| What was the key finding of the MAOA gene-environment research? | The low-activity MAOA genotype was associated with greater antisocial behavior primarily among people who had experienced childhood maltreatment. |
| What are cognitive distortions in sexual offending? | Thinking patterns that minimize, justify, or excuse harmful sexual behavior. |
| What are three common cognitive distortions? | Denying harm, claiming a special relationship with a victim, and using rape myths to justify behavior. |
| What is the difference between sexual deviance and a cognitive distortion? | Sexual deviance concerns atypical sexual interests; cognitive distortions are beliefs used to minimize or justify behavior. |
| Are all people who commit child sexual offenses diagnosed with pedophilia? | No. The lecture reports about 40% of a sample of over 5,000 had a history supporting a pedophilia diagnosis. |
| What is a PPG? | A penile plethysmograph, used to assess patterns of sexual arousal. |
| What are the two main types in the child sexual offense typology? | Fixated or pedophiliac, and regressed or situational. |
| What distinguishes anger rape from power rape? | Anger rape is driven by anger and hostility; power rape is driven more by dominance and control. |
| How common is sadistic rape in the lecture's typology? | About 2–5% of rapists. |
| What is antisocial rape? | Rape involving antisocial attitudes and often force, without pretending the victim was unharmed or consenting. |
| What are hands-off sexual offenses? | Offenses such as voyeurism, exhibitionism, and viewing child sexual abuse material. |
| What is the sexual compulsivity cycle described in lecture? | Negative emotion leads to sexual activity or masturbation, which provides temporary relief from the negative emotion. |
| What is cross-over offending? | When a person commits sexual offenses against more than one victim type or across different offense categories. |
| Why should assessors avoid assuming someone has only one offense type? | Some individuals show cross-over offending, so a full sexual history and behavior patterns matter. |
| How did internet-only sexual offenders differ from contact offenders in the cited study? | Contact offenders showed more cognitive distortions; internet offenders scored higher on fantasy, fictional-character identification, underassertiveness, and motor impulsivity. |
| What percentage had a known contact sexual offense at arrest in the child pornography meta-analysis? | About 12%. |
| What was the average sexual recidivism rate for females convicted of sexual offenses in one five-year study? | About 1.8%. |
| What is a key challenge in predicting sexual reoffending among youth? | The base rate is low, making accurate prediction difficult; fully validated juvenile actuarial tools were unavailable in the lecture. |
| Why are typologies useful in sexual offense research and treatment? | They help describe a heterogeneous group and support more individualized research, policy, treatment, and rehabilitation. |
| What is narcissistic reactance theory? | Entitlement and need for respect can lead to anger or aggression when a person experiences rejection. |
| What did the college sexual assault study suggest about who commits rape? | Rape was not limited to a small group of serial perpetrators; prevention should address offending before and during college. |
| What are four questions to consider when determining the type of sexual offense a person committed? | Victim type, degree of aggression or force, whether the offense was opportunistic or planned, and whether there is a pattern of behavior. |
| What is the difference between exclusive and non-exclusive pedophilia? | Exclusive pedophilia involves sexual interest primarily or exclusively in children, while non-exclusive pedophilia involves sexual interest in children alongside other sexual interests. |
| What did research using a penile plethysmograph find about identifying admitted pedophilia? | Only about 50–60% of people who admitted pedophilia were identified by the PPG in the study discussed in lecture. |
| What did PPG research find about arousal to rape scenarios? | About 60% of people who committed rape showed deviant arousal to rape scenarios, compared with about 10% of non-rapists in the cited research. |
| How did arousal patterns differ between rapists and non-rapists in the lecture's PPG research? | Rapists were more likely to show arousal to nonconsensual scenarios and violence against women, while non-rapists tended to prefer consensual scenarios and showed inhibition of arousal by violence. |
| What are two broad types in the child sexual offense typology discussed in lecture? | Fixated or pedophiliac, and regressed or situational. |
| What characterizes the fixated or pedophiliac type of child sexual offending? | A more persistent sexual interest in children, often involving grooming and beliefs that the child is not being harmed. |
| What characterizes the regressed or situational type of child sexual offending? | Offending that occurs in a situational context rather than being primarily driven by a persistent sexual interest in children. |
| What are three types in the Mathews et al. typology of females who commit sexual offenses? | Teacher–lover, intergenerationally predisposed, and male-coerced. |
| What characterizes the teacher–lover type in the female sexual offense typology? | The person views the offense involving an adolescent victim as a love affair. |
| What characterizes the intergenerationally predisposed type? | A person with a history of being abused who later commits sexual abuse. |
| What characterizes the male-coerced type? | A dependent person who is forced or coerced into offending, with the behavior initiated by a male partner. |
| Why should typologies not be treated as perfect categories? | People who commit sexual offenses are heterogeneous, and not everyone fits a clear or established pattern. |
| What did Elliott et al. (2009) compare in their study of internet and contact sexual offenses? | They compared 505 people who committed internet offenses with 526 people who committed contact sexual offenses on psychological measures. |
| What psychological differences were found between contact and internet sexual offense groups? | Contact offenders showed higher cognitive distortions, including victim-empathy distortions; internet offenders scored higher on fantasy, fictional-character identification, underassertiveness, and motor impulsivity. |
| What percentage of people arrested for child pornography offenses had a known contact sexual offense history at arrest in the cited meta-analysis? | About 12%, or 1 in 8 people. |
| What percentage of the self-report sample in the child pornography meta-analysis admitted an undetected contact sexual offense? | About 55% of the sample reported an undetected contact offense. |
| What were the recidivism findings for people who committed child pornography offenses in the cited meta-analysis? | Over an average four-year follow-up, 4.6% committed a new sexual offense of some kind, 2.0% committed a contact sexual offense, and 3.4% committed another child pornography offense. |
| What is an important distinction when interpreting child pornography offense statistics? | Known offenses at arrest and self-reported undetected offenses measure different things, so the percentages should not be treated as directly equivalent. |
| What is the C-PORT risk tool? | A tool being developed to assess risk of reoffending among people who commit child pornography offenses; the lecture notes it was still being validated in non-research samples. |
| What were the sexual recidivism findings for females convicted of sexual offenses in Sandler and Freeman (2009)? | In a sample of 1,466 females followed for five years, the sexual recidivism rate was 1.8%. |
| What did Cortoni, Hanson, and Coache (2010) find about sexual recidivism among females who committed sexual offenses? | Their meta-analysis of 10 studies involving 2,490 people found sexual recidivism rates below 3% over an average follow-up of 6.5 years. |
| What sexual recidivism rate did the lecture report for adult males over five years? | Approximately 10–15%. |
| What did Caldwell's 2009 meta-analysis report about sexual recidivism among youth who committed sexual offenses? | Across 63 data sets and 11,219 individuals, the base rate was about 7%; a more recent review discussed in lecture reported about 3%. |
| Why is it difficult to predict sexual reoffending among youth? | Sexual recidivism has a low base rate, making accurate prediction difficult, and fully validated juvenile actuarial tools were not available according to the lecture. |
| What are J-SOAP and ERASOR? | Juvenile assessment tools that may help with general assessment of youth who commit sexual offenses, although the lecture notes that fully validated juvenile risk assessment tools were lacking. |
| What is narcissistic reactance theory in the context of sexual offending? | Entitlement and a need for respect or status can lead someone to respond to rejection with anger or aggression. |
| What risk-related attitudes were discussed in the college sexual assault lecture? | High alcohol use, believing sexual arousal caused by another person creates a right to sex, continuing sexual contact despite refusal, and the belief that “no” means “yes.” |
| What did Swartout et al. (2015) find about rape perpetration among college males? | In a sample of 1,642 males, 10.8% reported perpetrating at least one rape from age 14 through the end of college. |
| What did Swartout et al. find about serial rape perpetration in college? | Only 14 of the 178 males who reported rape perpetration, about 8%, reported perpetrating multiple rapes in college. |
| What prevention implication follows from the college sexual assault findings? | Prevention efforts should address sexual assault before and during college rather than assuming most assaults are committed by a small group of serial perpetrators. |
| What did the 2024 meta-analysis by Lussier and McCuish find about sexual recidivism over time? | Across 468 studies involving 388,994 individuals, sexual recidivism rates had declined by about 45–60% since the 1970s, even after accounting for methodological differences. |
| Why should sexual recidivism statistics be interpreted carefully? | Rates vary with sample characteristics, follow-up length, setting, and how recidivism is defined; a single study may not represent risk in other populations or contexts. |
| What percentage of domestic violence victims are women, according to the lecture? | Approximately 90–95%. |
| What are the three batterer types in the Holtzworth-Munroe and Stuart typology? | Relationship/family-only, borderline/dysphoric, and generally violent/antisocial. |
| What characterizes situational domestic violence? | Arguments escalate into mild violence, often involving both partners; perpetrators may feel guilty and want to change. |
| What are two types of characterological domestic violence? | Cobras and Pit Bulls. |
| How do Cobras and Pit Bulls differ in heart-rate response during conflict? | Cobras’ heart rates decrease, while Pit Bulls’ heart rates increase. |
| What motivates Pit Bulls in the lecture’s typology? | Fear of abandonment, dependency, and controlling behavior. |
| What are common motives when batterers kill their partners? | Punishing the partner for leaving or preventing the partner from leaving. |
| How is dissociation associated with violence? | Trauma-related dissociation may contribute to violence, including flashbacks that make someone believe they are in danger. |
| What is the key question in trauma-informed care? | “What happened to you?” rather than “What’s wrong with you?” |
| According to the lecture, what percentage of battered women studied by Adams had tried to leave? | Approximately 75%. |
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