Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
ATI Module
Safety (Exam 3)
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| adverse event | Any event that is not consistent with the desired or normal operation |
| alarm fatigue | Sensory overload from noise pollution created in part by the numerous distress alerts. |
| anticoagulant medications | Medications that inhibit the blood's ability to clot. |
| barcode scanning | Used at the time of medication administration when both the medication and the client's facility-issued identification band are scanned to ensure the right medication is being administered to the right client. |
| barrier restraint | Restrain a client’s movement within a setting through the use of barriers to limit movement such as concave mattresses and lapboards that are attached to chairs. Bed enclosures and having all four bed rails up are also considered barrier restraints. |
| ceiling lift | They are lifts mounted in the ceiling that are used to lift and transfer clients in and out of bed or the chair. It has a sling to cradle clients. |
| chemical restraint | The administration of medications (including benzodiazepines and antipsychotics) to reduce the client's movement or control behavior. Another definition is the administration of drugs by force to control the client's behavior. |
| client safety event | An unexpected event or circumstance that occurred that did not cause harm to the patient but had the potential to. |
| clients at high risk | Clients with an increased safety risk. This population can vary in age, medical, or behavioral conditions. It may also include persons with disabilities. |
| clinical alarm system | Audible alert devices that are built into medical equipment. Their function is to provide a warning of a potentially serious event that is occurring. The other feature is that they warn when there is a machine malfunction. |
| communication disability | A person's inability to interact with others in ways that staff will understand. |
| critical results | Lab or diagnostic procedure results that are outside the expected reference range and can be life-threatening or potentially fatal if not immediately improved. |
| elopement | A client leaves or wanders away from a health care facility. Usually due to a diminished mental capacity such as a traumatic brain injury or dementia. |
| fall | Unplanned descent to the floor with or without injury. |
| hospital-associated infections (HAIs) | Nosocomial infections. Infections that occurred while the client was in the hospital. |
| hourly rounding | The practice of scheduling (every 1 hour) a member of the nursing staff to see the client and proactively address their needs such as toileting, positioning, pain, and safety checks (siderail and bed position, proximity of call bell to the client, etc.) |
| lateral evacuation | Clients, visitors and staff who are threatened by fire are moved on the same floor to a safe location. |
| mechanical restraint | A physical device that is applied to a person to restrict their movement. Use of materials: straps, fabric, leather devices that can fasten around the client s wrists or ankles. mechanical restraint are linens, belts, jackets, vests, and hand mittens. |
| medication reconciliation | The process when the physician assesses the current home medications with the newly prescribed drugs. It must be completed on client admission, transfer, or discharge from the hospital. |
| mobile (ground) lift | A device with locking wheels that is used to lift clients out of bed or chair. It has a sling to cradle clients. |
| movement alarms | A fall prevention tool that can attach to the bed, chair, or person. The alarm will ring when the client attempts to move from their current environment. |
| National Performance Goals (NPGs) | Goals designed to focus on client safety, safe and effective delivery of health care, and recommendations to avoid adverse outcomes. |
| near miss | A potential error or close call that could have caused harm but was caught and avoided. |
| occurrence (incident) report | A tool used to report an adverse event, sentinel event, client safety event, or near miss. |
| older adults | A person who is 60 years of age or older. |
| PASS | An acronym that stands for Pull, Aim, Squeeze, and Sweep. It is used to described the steps to activate and use a fire extinguisher appropriately. |
| personal protection equipment (PPE) | Specially designed equipment that is meant to protect the healthcare worker from contamination, blood or body fluids. This equipment may include masks, eye protection, gown, gloves, and hair caps. |
| physical restraint | The manual holding or immobilizing the client using physical strength. |
| RACE | Acronym that stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish in the event of a fire. |
| rapid response team (RRT) | A dedicated group whose responsibility is to bring proactively critical care to the bedside. |
| restraints | Used to decrease the client’s movement and function for their safety as well as other clients and staff. There are five types of restraints that include physical, mechanical, chemical, barrier, and seclusion. |
| seclusion | Placing the client alone in a securely locked room. |
| sentinel event (never event) | A critical, unexpected adverse event or circumstance that caused severe physical or psychological harm to the patient. |
| sit-to-stand lift | A mobile lift, with locking breaks, that takes the client from a sitting to standing position. |
| slide sheet | A smaller version of the turnsheet or glide sheet. They are meant for movement of body parts as in an obese client’s extremities. |
| Standards of Compliance | Former National Safety Goals that have been routinely adopted by healthcare professionals and are now retired. |
| suicide | Death resulting from self-injurious behaviors performed with the intent to die. |
| time-out | A joint commission mandated pause taken by all personnel in the procedure or operating room. This brief suspension allows identifying the correct patient, site, the procedure to be performed. |
| two client identifiers | This is the first part of the NPG to identify every client using two identifiers accurately. (The second part of the goal is to ensure that the treatment, procedure, or care is for that client specifically.) |
| vertical evacuation | Clients, visitors and staff threatened by fire are relocated to a different floor. |
| Two forms of identification are necessary to correctly | identify a client |
| Forms of identification can include | the client’s name, date of birth, telephone number, and hospital identification number |
| The second part of the identification process is to make sure that | the correct client receives the correct procedure. |
| All clients in the hospital must be screened for | thoughts of suicide regardless of their admitting diagnoses |
| positive suicidal ideation these clients require | A detailed assessment, around-the-clock surveillance while in the hospital until prescribed otherwise. The environment must be secured as well by removing any harmful items from the room and limiting what is brought into the room. |
| Time-outs are conducted prior to | surgery or an invasive procedure |
| Time-outs safety protocol reduces the risk of | wrong site, wrong surgery, or wrong client errors. |
| During the time-out, all interdisciplinary team members check for the | correct client, check for the correct site by having client state it and having the site marked by the surgeon or APRN, restate the procedure to be performed, and check the consent is for that surgery or procedure. |
| The National Performance Goals (NPGs) focus on | client safety and the struggles associated with the safe delivery of quality health care. Evidence-based practices, as well as solutions to solve the identified health care problems, are also embedded within each goal. |
| TJC’s Standards of Compliance are former | NPGs that have been routinely and consistently practiced across the country. Although considered retired goals, they are still essential to quality health care delivery. |
| It is the health care institution’s responsibility to | identify its safety needs and implement prevention measures |
| CMS now reimburses hospitals that implement | safer environments for their stakeholders, including by establishing safety practices that reduce harm. |
| Near misses are | potentially harmful events or circumstances that were caught before they occurred |
| A client safety event is a | negative, unexpected event or circumstance that occurred without harm to the client but had the potential to harm the client |
| An adverse event is a | negative, unexpected event or circumstance that leads to a client’s injury |
| A sentinel event is an | unexpected event or circumstance that caused severe physical or psychological harm to a client. |
| Clients at high risk for hospital-acquired injury may include persons of | varying ages with many different medical and behavioral conditions. They may also have visual, communication, or cognitive disabilities |
| Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) will not reimburse for | injuries sustained in the hospital. These never events include falls, hospital-acquired infections, and injuries, which are considered preventable incidents. |
| All clients should have underlying fall prevention mechanisms in place, including | non-skid footwear, locking beds and wheelchairs, beds in low position, a clutter-free environment, adequate lighting, a call light, and belongings within reach. Also, a basic orientation to the room and the call system should occur. |
| Restraints should never be used as a | means of cruelty, corrective action, or revenge, nor should they be applied for convenience or as a reaction to a staffing shortage. |
| Restraints should be applied only as a | last resort for the safety of the individual and others around them. |
| Radiation and chemical exposure require the victim to be | immediately decontaminated with a garden hose, buckets of water, or a shower. The skin is to be scrubbed, hair washed, and eyes irrigated. The clothes are cut off and disposed of in biohazard bags. |
| Clients, first responders, and medical staff exposed to radiation contamination are | generally given potassium iodide via oral or inhalation consumption. |
| There is a direct correlation between the incidence of back pain and injury and the | the tasks performed by nursing personnel. |
| Goals are met through the use of standards of care to positively affect areas of client safety, including | Culture of Safety Health Professional Resource Management High Quality, Safe Care for All Preventing and Controlling Infection Effectively Managing Medications Emergency Preparedness |
| Examples of clinical alarm systems include | bed and chair alarms, as well as alarms on feeding and intravenous (IV) infusion pumps, heart monitors, and ventilators. |
| Owing to these repeated false alarms, health care workers can experience | alarm fatigue or sensory overload from the noise pollution created in part by the numerous distress alerts and nuisance alarms |
| Workplace bullying | is when someone is repeatedly picked on, left out, or treated badly at work. This can make nurses feel unhappy, stressed, less likely to stay in their jobs, and even more likely to make mistakes. |
| To stop workplace bullying, it's important for | everyone to communicate kindly, trust each other, and have strong leadership support a respectful, positive environment. |
| How does OSHA define workplace violence? | physical violence, harassment, intimidation, or other disruptive behavior at the worksite, including verbal abuse, physical violence, and even homicide. |
| Who can be affected by workplace violence in healthcare settings? | Anyone in the facility can be affected, including healthcare workers, support staff, and visitors. |
| Why is workplace violence a major concern in healthcare? | Healthcare workers experience more injuries from workplace violence than workers in any other industry, with 73% of all nonfatal injuries happening in this field. |
| What are some common factors that increase the risk of workplace violence? | Caring for clients with a violent history, working alone, not being able to call for help, lack of training, staff shortages, lack of security, and long client wait times. |
| What does Joint Commission (JC) require organizations to do about workplace violence? | Have policies and training in place, hold safety drills with law enforcement, and enforce a zero-tolerance policy for violence. |
| What are warning signs that someone might commit workplace violence? | unexplained absences, declining work performance, frequent complaints, breaking rules, mood swings, drug or alcohol misuse, angry outbursts, and paranoia |
| What should you do if you suspect or witness workplace violence in a healthcare facility? | Report it immediately to your supervisor or the human resources department. |
| Where do most workplace violence injuries occur in healthcare settings? | Many injuries occur in behavioral health units, long-term care units, and emergency departments. |
| Why might some nurses not report workplace violence? | Over half are unsure of how to report such incidents. |
| What does CMS require hospitals to have for emergency situations? | An emergency preparedness plan for potential disasters in their area. |
| Why must staff be familiar with their facility’s emergency preparedness plan? | So they know their specific roles and can respond effectively in real emergencies. |
| When should staff receive training and validation on disaster procedures? | During new hire orientation and annually (biannually in acute care settings). |
| What is the purpose of conducting emergency drills? | To test the plan, uncover any issues, and make improvements. |
| Why is emergency preparedness more important now than before? | Because of increasing severe weather, mass shootings, and infectious disease outbreaks. |
| How do facilities enhance disaster response with state and local governments? | By coordinating disaster planning for optimal, productive outcomes. |
| What is the Nursing Compact and how does it help in emergencies? | It allows nurses to work in any member state, increasing response ability during disasters. |
| How often should staff working in long-term care validate knowledge of crisis procedures? | Annually. |
| What is the first recommended action for hospital staff if there is an active shooter onsite? | Run away from the assailant, if possible, to do so |
| Staff in acute care settings should validate crisis procedures | biannually according to guidelines. |
| Why should hospitals conduct emergency drills for active shooter threats? | Drills are conducted to test and improve the hospital’s action plan for emergencies, including active shooter threats. |
| Which of the following are priority actions for staff during an active shooter event? | Run, hide, and fight are the three priority actions according to recommended training. |
| How is an active shooter defined in healthcare settings? | An active shooter is specifically defined as someone actively attempting to kill multiple people in a group setting. |
| What is a key goal of health care organizations related to patient safety and disparities? | A central goal is to reduce barriers to health care equity, such as lack of access, discrimination, or social needs. |
| Which of the following are considered barriers to health care? | Barriers include language, access, economic status, and ability; unbiased, timely care helps remove barriers. |
| What does the JC 'Speak Up' initiative encourage clients to do? | The 'Speak Up' program supports client advocacy and sharing of safety or equity concerns. |
| How can nurses help reduce disparities in health care? | Nurses play a role in reducing disparities by addressing social needs, communication, and providing respectful care. |
| Which statement is true regarding client rights in health care facilities? | Clients have the right to timely, discrimination-free, and accessible care, including communication aids. |
| Central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI): | Occurs when pathogens enter the bloodstream via a central line, which accesses a large vein in the body and can remain in place for long periods of time. |
| Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI) | Occurs when pathogens enter the urinary system via a catheter inserted through the urethra into the bladder. |
| Surgical-site infection (SSI): | An infection that occurs in the part of the body where a surgery occurred. |
| Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP): | Pneumonia that develops while a client is on a ventilator. |
| MDRO is a micro-organism, often bacterial, that causes | infection and is resistant or unaffected by the various antimicrobial medications used to treat and destroy the pathogen. |
| Pain management plans are based on | individual client assessments, client goals, and evaluation |
| rapid response team (RRT). The RRT is a | dedicated interdisciplinary group whose responsibility is to proactively bring their critical care knowledge and skills to the client’s bedside |
| Conditions that may warrant a callout of the RRT may include the following. | A sudden change in vital signs Low o2 sat despite efforts to oxygenate Chest pain despite the administration of nitroglycerine Seizure Medical professional has a deep concern about the client’s condition Sudden variation in the client’s mental status |
| The fourth component of the Transforming Care at the Bedside plan is to utilize a standardized communication too | SBAR (situation, background, assessment, and recommendation) and ISBAR (identity, situation, background, assessment, and recommendation) are tools that aid in nurse-to-nurse and nurse-to-provider communication |
| SBAR | (Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation |
| ISBAR | identity, situation, background, assessment, and recommendation |
| ISBAR is used as a report or handoff guide to | convey relevant client-specific information to other medical professionals. |
| ISBAR: Identity: | Introduce yourself and where you are calling from. |
| ISBAR: Situation: | Client name and age, admitting diagnosis, and chief complaint or urgent need for the rapid response to be called. |
| ISBAR: Background: | Medical history including current medications and advanced directives (if any). |
| ISBAR: Assessment: | General client impression and significant findings through assessment, diagnostic tests, lab work, and vital signs. |
| ISBAR: Recommendations: | Treatment provided and the client’s response to the treatment. |
| There are three categories of radiation. | Alpha, Beta and Gamma |
| Alpha radiation | The least amount of risk. Alpha radiation does not penetrate clothing, and it travels only a few centimeters. The possibility of health hazards from exposure to alpha radiation is minor. |
| Beta radiation | The middle level of risk. Beta radiation travels a small distance. Specialized clothing is needed to prevent exposure. The possibility of health hazards from exposure to beta radiation is minimal. |
| Gama radiation | Gamma radiation can travel in a greater distance, penetrating through clothing & body tissue. Protection lead shielding. health hazards from exposure to gamma radiation is high, including skin burns and internal tissue or organ injuries. |
| Initial signs of radiation contact include | diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and sometimes alopecia and burns. These manifestations can occur within hours of exposure. |
| The goals in responding to biological mass-casualty events are simple but can be challenging to achieve | First, recognize the disease processes that promote the delivery of toxins and pathogens. Second, minimize the spread of these toxins. |
| A chemical exposure disaster involves the | extensive dispersal of toxins in the air, which can impact one or more people |
| client at high risk for a hospital-acquired injury. Medical conditions: | Clients with high-risk medical conditions include those with cardiovascular disease and multiple sclerosis |
| client at high risk for a hospital-acquired injury. Mental health and behavioral disorders may includ | schizophrenia, personality disorders, and substance use disorders |
| client at high risk for a hospital-acquired injury. Vision disability includes | that impair vision, such as macular degeneration |
| client at high risk for a hospital-acquired injury. Communication disabilities include | hearing impairment and aphagia secondary to a stroke or other neurologic condition. |
| client at high risk for a hospital-acquired injury. Cognitive disabilities may include | intellectual impairment, dementia, and Alzheimer’s disease. |
| Pre-seizure nursing care includes: | - suction equipment is set up - oxygen is set up - baseline vital signs, - two IV sites. - side rails are padded - Remove potentially constrictive clothing and jewelry - Ask if the client feels an aura |
| Post-seizure nursing care includes: | -lab toxicology screen - blood drug level of client’s anticonvulsant med - gag reflex - determine if the client can follow direction - reassurance that the client is safe. - Imaging studies and an EEG |
| The client is experiencing a tonic-colonic seizure, with a decrease in oxygen saturation | - abnormal pupillary response - supplemental oxygen helps ensure that the brain and other vital organs receive adequate oxygenation. - raising the bed to comfortable working height |
| Client exposed to a chemical toxin, what action should the nurse take | The nurse should have the client shower and to remove the chemical toxin from their skin, hair, and eyes to reduce the effects of exposure. |
| he nurse should instruct the client to set the water heater to | 49° C (120° F) to reduce the risk of injury. |
| The nurse should instruct the client to mark edges of stairs with | brightly colored tape to alert the client of the steps and reduce the risk of fall. |
| The nurse should instruct the client not to place electrical cords under | rugs as this increases the risk of a fire or a fall. |
| A nurse is reinforcing teaching in a class about events that require an occurrence report. Which of the following events should the nurse include? | A client's visitor falls in the hallway- unexpected event A client develops an unexpected reaction to a medication- unexpected event A client's dentures are lost- unexpected event. |
| A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse use to identify the client? | The client's full name The client's date of birth The client's telephone number |
Created by:
user-1977236