Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
NSG 121 EXAM 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What does ADPIE stand for in the nursing process? | Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation |
| Which step of the nursing process involves gathering subjective and objective data? | Assessment |
| A patient tells you 'I have a sharp pain in my chest.' What type of data is this? | Subjective data |
| A nurse measures a patient's blood pressure as 148/92. What type of data is this? | Objective Data |
| Which nursing diagnosis is the PRIORITY for a patient who is not breathing? | Impaired Gas Exchange or Ineffective Airway Clearance |
| What is the difference between a nursing diagnosis and a medical diagnosis? | A medical diagnosis identifies the disease (e.g., pneumonia). A nursing diagnosis identifies the patient's RESPONSE to illness (e.g., Impaired Gas Exchange). |
| During the Planning phase, what should nursing goals/outcomes be? | SMART: Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Time-bound — and patient-centered |
| What happens during the Evaluation step of ADPIE? | The nurse determines whether the patient goals/outcomes were MET, PARTIALLY MET, or NOT MET, and revises the care plan accordingly. |
| Which of the following is SUBJECTIVE data? A) Temperature of 101.2°F B) Patient states 'I feel hot' C) Skin is flushed and warm D) Heart rate of 102 | Patient states 'I feel hot' |
| A patient's chart shows: 'Patient crying, states she is scared.' Which part is subjective? | 'States she is scared' is subjective. 'Patient crying' is objective. |
| What is the purpose of a comprehensive health history? | To collect complete subjective data about the patient's current health, past medical history, family history, lifestyle, and psychosocial status to guide the physical exam and care planning. |
| What type of question would a nurse use to get a detailed description of a patient's pain? | Open-ended questions (e.g., 'Tell me about your pain' or 'How would you describe it?') |
| Which question is CLOSED-ended? | 'Do you smoke?' — this can be answered with just 'yes' or 'no' |
| What is SBAR communication and when is it used? | SBAR = Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation. Used when handing off patient care or reporting to a physician/provider. |
| What is the BEST way to begin a health interview with a new patient? | Introduce yourself, explain your role, ensure privacy, and ask open-ended questions to establish rapport. |
| What is therapeutic communication? | A purposeful, goal-directed communication style used by nurses to promote patient health, understanding, and trust. It focuses on the patient's needs. |
| A patient says 'I'm so scared about my surgery tomorrow.' Which response is MOST therapeutic? | 'It sounds like you're feeling really frightened about tomorrow. What concerns you most?' |
| Which statement is an example of FALSE REASSURANCE? | 'Don't worry, everything will be fine.' |
| What is ACTIVE LISTENING? | Giving the patient full attention using verbal and non-verbal cues: eye contact, nodding, leaning forward, minimal encouragers ('mm-hmm'), and not interrupting. |
| A nurse changes the subject when a patient starts crying. This is an example of: | Non-therapeutic communication — specifically, avoiding/changing the subject. |
| What are the 4 basic physical examination techniques IN ORDER? | Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation (IPPA) |
| When assessing the ABDOMEN, what is the correct order of examination techniques? | Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation (IAPP) |
| What is INSPECTION as a physical exam technique? | Visual examination of the patient — observing appearance, color, shape, size, movement, symmetry, and any abnormalities. It's always done FIRST. |
| What does PALPATION involve and what can it assess? | Using hands and fingers to touch the body — assesses texture, temperature, moisture, organ size/location, tenderness, pulsations, and lumps. |
| What is PERCUSSION and what does it tell you? | Tapping the body to produce sounds that indicate the density of underlying tissue. Hollow organs produce resonance; solid organs produce dullness. |
| What is AUSCULTATION and what equipment is needed? | Listening to body sounds using a stethoscope. Assesses heart sounds, breath sounds, bowel sounds, and vascular sounds. |
| What is the General Survey in physical assessment? | The nurse's overall first impression of the patient — assessing appearance, body structure, mobility, behavior, level of consciousness, and speech. |
| What does LOC mean and how is it assessed? | Level of Consciousness. Assessed using AVPU scale (Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive) or Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). |
| A 45-year-old patient appears to look 65 years old. What would the nurse document? | 'Patient appears older than stated age' — this is a significant General Survey finding. |
| What are the normal adult vital signs? | Temperature: 96.4-99.1°F (oral); Pulse: 60-100 bpm; Respirations: 12-20 breaths/min; Blood Pressure: <120/80 mmHg; SpO2: 95-100% |
| What is the difference between SYSTOLIC and DIASTOLIC blood pressure? | Systolic = pressure when the heart CONTRACTS (top number). Diastolic = pressure when the heart RELAXES (bottom number). Normal: <120/80. |
| A patient's heart rate is 52 bpm. What is this called and is it normal? | BRADYCARDIA — abnormally SLOW heart rate. Normal is 60-100 bpm; 52 is below normal. |
| What is considered a FEVER in an adult? | Temperature above 100.4°F (38°C) is defined as a fever. |
| Pain is referred to as the 5th vital sign. What does this mean? | Pain must be assessed EVERY TIME vital signs are taken. It is just as important as temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure. |
| What is ORTHOSTATIC HYPOTENSION? | A drop in blood pressure of ≥20 mmHg systolic (or ≥10 mmHg diastolic) when moving from lying to standing. Causes dizziness and fall risk. |
| What does OLDCARTS stand for in symptom analysis? | Onset, Location, Duration, Character, Aggravating/Alleviating factors, Radiation, Timing, Severity |
| What does PQRSTU stand for? | Provocative/Palliative, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing, Understanding (patient's perception) |
| A nurse asks a patient to rate pain on a scale of 0-10. Which part of OLDCARTS is this assessing? | Severity (the 'S' in OLDCARTS) |
| What does 'radiation' of pain mean in OLDCARTS? | Whether the pain SPREADS to other areas. Example: cardiac chest pain often radiates to the left arm, jaw, or shoulder. |
| What is PRIMARY prevention? Give an example. | Preventing disease BEFORE it starts. Examples: immunizations, health education, exercise programs, safe sex education, fluoride in water. |
| What is SECONDARY prevention? Give an example. | Early detection and screening of disease. Examples: mammograms, Pap smears, blood pressure screenings, colonoscopies, blood glucose testing. |
| What is TERTIARY prevention? Give an example. | Managing existing disease to PREVENT COMPLICATIONS and restore function. Examples: cardiac rehabilitation, diabetes management, physical therapy after stroke, support groups. |
| A nurse teaches a group of high school students about the dangers of smoking. This is what level of prevention? | PRIMARY prevention — educating healthy people to prevent them from starting to smoke. |
| A community offers free annual mammograms. What level of prevention is this? | SECONDARY prevention — screening for early detection of breast cancer. |
| What are Gordon's Functional Health Patterns used for? | A framework for organizing and assessing a patient's overall health status across 11 areas of daily functioning. |
| What is assessed in the Nutrition/Metabolic functional health pattern? | Food and fluid intake, appetite, weight, diet restrictions, eating patterns, skin condition, healing ability, and metabolic conditions like diabetes. |
| What is assessed in the Sleep/Rest pattern? | Hours of sleep, quality, sleep aids used, patterns (naps, bedtime routine), and factors disrupting sleep (pain, anxiety, noise). |
| What is assessed in the Coping/Stress Tolerance pattern? | How the patient handles stress, their usual coping mechanisms, support systems, and whether current coping is effective. |
| What are the principles of good nursing documentation? | Accurate, Objective, Complete, Concise, Timely, Legible — and never alter or falsify records. |
| What should a nurse NEVER do when making a documentation error? | Never WHITE OUT, scribble over, or delete an error. Instead: draw ONE line through it, write 'error,' initial it, and write the correct information. |
| What is cultural competence in nursing assessment? | The ability to effectively assess and care for patients from diverse cultural, ethnic, religious, and social backgrounds with respect and without bias. |
| A patient avoids eye contact during the interview. What should the nurse consider? | In some cultures, avoiding eye contact is a sign of RESPECT, not dishonesty or disengagement. The nurse should not misinterpret this. |
| When interviewing an ADOLESCENT patient, what special considerations apply? | Offer privacy (speak alone without parents if possible), use age-appropriate language, establish trust and confidentiality (with legal limits), and be non-judgmental. |
| How should nurses adapt communication for ELDERLY patients? | Face them directly, speak clearly (not loudly unless they have hearing loss), use plain language, allow extra time, address them formally (Mr./Ms.) unless they prefer otherwise, and don't assume cognitive impairment. |
| What is the BELL of the stethoscope used for? | Low-pitched sounds — specifically: S3/S4 heart sounds, heart murmurs, and bruit (vascular sounds). |
| What is the DIAPHRAGM of the stethoscope used for? | High-pitched sounds — normal heart sounds (S1/S2), breath sounds, and bowel sounds. |
| What are the components of a complete health history? | Chief Complaint, History of Present Illness (HPI), Past Medical/Surgical History, Family History, Medications, Allergies, Social History, Review of Systems (ROS). |
| What is the CHIEF COMPLAINT? | The patient's own words describing the MAIN REASON for seeking care, stated in quotes. Example: 'My chest hurts.' |
| What is ALLERGIES assessment and why is it critical? | Documenting all drug, food, environmental allergies AND the type of reaction. Must be done BEFORE any medications are given. Critical for patient safety. |
| What is the technique of REFLECTION in therapeutic communication? | Repeating or paraphrasing the patient's statement back to them to show you heard them and encourage elaboration. Example: 'So you're saying the pain gets worse when you eat?' |
| What is CLARIFICATION in therapeutic communication? | Asking the patient to explain or expand on something vague or unclear. Example: 'When you say it hurts, can you describe what kind of hurt?' |
| What is the therapeutic technique of SILENCE? | Allowing pauses in conversation to give the patient time to think, feel, and respond without pressure. Sitting quietly and maintaining presence. |
| What is a NON-THERAPEUTIC communication technique — 'giving advice'? | Telling the patient what to do (e.g., 'If I were you, I would...') — this removes patient autonomy and is non-therapeutic. |
| What are the 5 rights of medication administration? | Right Patient, Right Drug, Right Dose, Right Route, Right Time. Some add: Right Documentation, Right Reason. |
| What does the acronym HIPAA stand for and what does it protect? | Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Protects the privacy and security of patients' health information. |
| What is the difference between a SIGN and a SYMPTOM? | Sign = objective (observable/measurable by the nurse). Symptom = subjective (felt/reported by the patient only). |
| What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) and what is a normal score? | A neurological scale that measures Eye Opening (1-4), Verbal Response (1-5), and Motor Response (1-6). Maximum = 15 (normal). Minimum = 3 (no response in any category). |
| What is an ADVANCE DIRECTIVE? | A legal document expressing a patient's wishes for medical treatment if they become unable to make decisions. Includes Living Will and Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare. |
| What is INFORMED CONSENT? | The patient's voluntary agreement to a procedure or treatment AFTER receiving complete information about it — including risks, benefits, alternatives, and the right to refuse. |
| What is patient ADVOCACY in nursing? | The nurse acts as the patient's voice and protector — ensuring their rights, preferences, and best interests are honored, especially when they cannot speak for themselves. |
| What does it mean to document 'objectively'? | Document only what you directly observed, measured, or the patient stated — not your interpretations or judgments. |
| What are normal bowel sounds and how are they described? | Normal bowel sounds: active, gurgling sounds heard every 5-15 seconds. Assessed by auscultating all 4 quadrants for at least 5 minutes if bowel sounds are absent. |
| What are CRACKLES (formerly called rales) in lung sounds? | Abnormal lung sounds — soft, high-pitched clicking or bubbling sounds heard during INSPIRATION. Caused by fluid in the airways (pulmonary edema, pneumonia) or collapsed alveoli popping open. |
| What are WHEEZES in lung sounds? | High-pitched, musical whistling sounds caused by NARROWED airways. Heard during expiration (and sometimes inspiration in severe cases). Associated with asthma, COPD, bronchospasm. |
| What is DYSPNEA? | Subjective feeling of difficulty breathing or shortness of breath — what the patient SAYS they feel. It is a SYMPTOM. |
| What is tachycardia? | Heart rate ABOVE 100 beats per minute. Can be caused by fever, pain, dehydration, anxiety, medications, blood loss, and many other conditions. |
| What is hypertension and what are the stages? | High blood pressure. Normal: <120/80. Elevated: 120-129/<80. Stage 1 HTN: 130-139/80-89. Stage 2 HTN: ≥140/≥90. Hypertensive Crisis: >180/>120. |
| What is HYPOTENSION and when is it concerning? | Blood pressure BELOW 90/60 mmHg. Concerning when accompanied by symptoms: dizziness, confusion, pale/clammy skin, rapid weak pulse, decreased urine output. |
| What is the normal range for oxygen saturation (SpO2)? | Normal SpO2: 95-100%. Below 95% = hypoxia. Below 90% = severe hypoxia, medical emergency. |
| What is CYANOSIS and what does it indicate? | Bluish discoloration of the skin, lips, or fingernails due to DEOXYGENATED blood. Indicates inadequate oxygenation — a serious sign. |
| What is DIAPHORESIS? | Excessive sweating, often a sign of serious conditions like myocardial infarction, hypoglycemia, shock, fever, or severe anxiety. |
| What is EDEMA and how is it assessed? | Abnormal accumulation of fluid in tissues. Assessed using the Pitting Edema Scale: 1+ (2mm), 2+ (4mm), 3+ (6mm), 4+ (8mm) depth of pit after pressing for 5 seconds. |
| What is the difference between ACUTE and CHRONIC pain? | Acute pain: sudden onset, short duration (<3-6 months), has identifiable cause, resolves with healing. Chronic pain: persists >3-6 months, may not have clear cause, is complex and affects quality of life. |
| What is a focused physical assessment vs. a comprehensive assessment? | Comprehensive = full head-to-toe assessment of all body systems (done on admission or first encounter). Focused = assessment of a specific problem or body system related to the patient's current complaint. |
| What is the REVIEW OF SYSTEMS (ROS)? | A systematic review of all body systems through questioning — asking about symptoms in each system even if the patient didn't mention them. Part of the health history, NOT a physical exam. |
| What is TURGOR in skin assessment? | Skin elasticity — assessed by pinching the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. Normal skin springs back immediately. Poor turgor (tent sign) indicates DEHYDRATION. |
| What is the purpose of the FAMILY HISTORY in health assessment? | To identify genetic and hereditary risk factors for disease. Example: Family history of heart disease, cancer, diabetes, or mental illness increases the patient's risk. |
| What does TURGOR combined with dry mucous membranes indicate? | DEHYDRATION — the body lacks adequate fluid volume. |
| What does JAUNDICE look like and what does it indicate? | Yellow discoloration of skin, sclera (whites of eyes), and mucous membranes. Indicates elevated bilirubin, usually from liver disease, bile duct obstruction, or hemolysis. |
| What is PALLOR and what can cause it? | Abnormal paleness of skin due to reduced blood flow or decreased hemoglobin/red blood cells. Causes: anemia, shock, hypotension, cold, fear, vasoconstriction. |
| What is erythema? | Redness of the skin caused by increased blood flow/vasodilation. Can indicate inflammation, infection, rash, burns, or sunburn. |
| What is ALOPECIA? | Hair loss — can be patchy or diffuse. Causes: chemotherapy, thyroid disorders, nutritional deficiency, stress, autoimmune conditions (alopecia areata). |
| What is TURGOR vs. MOBILITY of lymph nodes on palpation? | Normal lymph nodes are small (<1cm), soft, mobile (moveable), non-tender. Abnormal: enlarged, hard, FIXED (immobile), tender lymph nodes = infection or cancer. |
| What is PTOSIS? | Drooping of one or both eyelids. Can be benign/congenital or indicate serious conditions: Horner's syndrome, myasthenia gravis, stroke, or third cranial nerve palsy. |
| What does UNEQUAL PUPILS indicate? | Anisocoria (unequal pupils) — can be benign (natural variation in ~20% of population) or indicate serious neurological problems: brain herniation, stroke, cranial nerve damage, trauma. |
| What are the cranial nerves and which are most commonly tested in health assessment? | There are 12 cranial nerves (CN I-XII). Most commonly tested in basic assessment: CN II (vision), CN III/IV/VI (eye movement), CN VII (facial symmetry), CN VIII (hearing), CN IX/X (swallowing/gag reflex), CN XII (tongue movement). |
| What is TURGOR of the tongue and what does it indicate? | A dry, furrowed tongue indicates DEHYDRATION. A normal, moist tongue with normal papillae suggests adequate hydration. |
| What is HEPATOMEGALY and how is it detected? | Enlargement of the liver. Detected by percussion (dull sound extends beyond normal liver borders) and palpation (liver edge felt below right costal margin). |
| What is SPLENOMEGALY and where is the spleen located? | Enlargement of the spleen — located in the LEFT upper quadrant. Detected by percussion over Traube's space (normally tympanic; dullness = enlarged spleen). |
| What is a nursing intervention for a patient with ACTIVITY INTOLERANCE? | Plan rest periods between activities, increase activity gradually, monitor vital signs and SpO2 with exertion, teach energy conservation techniques. |
| What is a NURSING CARE PLAN? | A written document that guides patient care — includes nursing diagnoses, goals/outcomes, nursing interventions, and evaluation criteria. |
| What are the categories of nursing diagnoses according to NANDA? | 1. Actual diagnosis (problem exists now). 2. Risk diagnosis (at risk for a problem). 3. Health Promotion diagnosis (desire to improve health). 4. Syndrome diagnosis (cluster of related diagnoses). |
| When writing a nursing diagnosis, what is the 'related to' part? | The ETIOLOGY — the cause or contributing factors of the nursing diagnosis. Example: 'Impaired Gas Exchange RELATED TO fluid accumulation in alveoli.' |
| What does MASLOW's hierarchy of needs mean for nursing priority? | Physiological needs (air, water, food, shelter) are ALWAYS priority. Then safety, love/belonging, esteem, and self-actualization — in that order. |
| What is the PRIORITY nursing action when a patient reports chest pain? | IMMEDIATELY assess the patient — check vital signs, oxygen saturation, level of distress. Apply oxygen if SpO2 is low. Notify the provider STAT. Prepare for 12-lead ECG. |
| What is TRIAGE and how does it work in the ER? | Triage = sorting patients by urgency. Most common system: Level 1 (Resuscitation/immediate), Level 2 (Emergent), Level 3 (Urgent), Level 4 (Less Urgent), Level 5 (Non-urgent). |
| What is an INFECTION CONTROL measure — standard precautions? | Standard precautions are used with EVERY patient, regardless of diagnosis. Includes: hand hygiene, gloves, gown, mask/eye protection when splash risk, safe handling of sharps, and proper waste disposal. |
| When are CONTACT PRECAUTIONS used? | For patients with infections spread by DIRECT or INDIRECT contact: MRSA, VRE, C. diff, scabies, wound infections. Requires: gloves and gown upon entering room. |
| When are DROPLET PRECAUTIONS used? | For infections spread through large respiratory droplets (>5 microns) when talking, coughing, or sneezing — within 3-6 feet. Examples: influenza, pertussis, meningitis, mumps. Requires: surgical mask within 3-6 feet. |
| When are AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS used? | For infections spread through small particles (<5 microns) that remain suspended in air. Examples: Tuberculosis (TB), chickenpox (varicella), measles (rubeola). Requires: N95 respirator mask, negative pressure room. |
| What is HAND HYGIENE and the WHO's 5 moments? | 1. Before touching a patient. 2. Before a clean/aseptic procedure. 3. After body fluid exposure risk. 4. After touching a patient. 5. After touching patient surroundings. |
| What is a PRESSURE ULCER (pressure injury) and how are they staged? | Skin breakdown from sustained pressure, friction, or shear. Stage 1 (redness, intact skin), Stage 2 (partial thickness loss), Stage 3 (full thickness, into subcutaneous fat), Stage 4 (full thickness, into muscle/bone), Unstageable, Deep Tissue Injury. |
| What is the BRADEN SCALE? | A risk assessment tool for pressure ulcers. Scores 6 categories: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction/Shear. Score 23 (max) = low risk. Score ≤18 = at risk. Lower score = higher risk. |
| What is a FALL PREVENTION strategy in nursing? | Identify fall risk (Morse Fall Scale), call light within reach, bed in lowest position, non-slip footwear, hourly rounding, night lights, remove obstacles, bed alarm on, assist with ambulation. |
| What is the nursing role in PATIENT EDUCATION? | Assess learning readiness and barriers, use teach-back method, use appropriate reading level (5th-6th grade), provide written materials, evaluate understanding, document teaching. |
| What is INFORMED REFUSAL? | A competent patient's right to REFUSE any treatment or procedure after being informed of the risks of refusal. The nurse must document, notify the physician, and have the patient sign a refusal form. |
| What is the difference between ACUTE and CHRONIC illness? | Acute illness: sudden onset, short duration, often resolves completely. Chronic illness: gradual or sudden onset, lasts 3+ months, often requires long-term management and may not be curable. |
| What is PATIENT-CENTERED CARE? | An approach that respects and responds to individual patient preferences, needs, and values — ensuring patient values guide all clinical decisions. |
| What is INTER-PROFESSIONAL COLLABORATION? | Nurses working cooperatively with other healthcare team members (physicians, pharmacists, PT, OT, social work, dietitians, etc.) for the best patient outcomes. |
| What is SAFE patient handling? | Using proper body mechanics, assistive devices (gait belts, mechanical lifts), and team assistance when moving, turning, or ambulating patients to prevent nurse and patient injury. |
| What is ETHICAL PRACTICE in nursing? | Acting according to the ANA Code of Ethics — core principles include: Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-maleficence, Justice, Fidelity, Veracity. |
| What is the SCOPE OF PRACTICE for a Registered Nurse? | What an RN is legally permitted to do, defined by the state's Nurse Practice Act. RNs can assess, diagnose (nursing), plan, implement, and evaluate care. |
| What is MANDATORY REPORTING in nursing? | The legal obligation to report specific situations: child abuse, elder abuse, communicable diseases, gunshot wounds, and in some states, domestic violence. |
| What is EVIDENCE-BASED PRACTICE (EBP)? | Integrating the best available research evidence with clinical expertise and patient preferences to make clinical decisions. |
| What does QUALITY IMPROVEMENT (QI) mean in nursing? | A systematic approach to improving patient care processes and outcomes using data collection, analysis, and implementation of changes. |
| What is SEPSIS and what are its signs? | Life-threatening organ dysfunction from infection. Signs (SIRS): Temperature >38°C or <36°C, HR >90, RR >20, WBC >12,000 or <4,000. Sepsis = infection + 2+ SIRS criteria. |
| What is ANAPHYLAXIS and what is the priority treatment? | A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Signs: airway swelling, severe hypotension, urticaria, angioedema. Priority treatment: EPINEPHRINE (EpiPen) immediately, then call for help, maintain airway. |
| What is SHOCK and what are its general signs? | Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to cellular hypoxia. Signs: tachycardia, hypotension, pale/cool/clammy skin, decreased urine output (<30mL/hr), altered mental status. |
| What is the nursing priority in RESPIRATORY DISTRESS? | Airway first. Position patient upright (high Fowler's), apply oxygen, assess SpO2 and breath sounds, notify physician, prepare for possible intubation. |
| What is a NURSING ASSESSMENT vs. a MEDICAL ASSESSMENT? | Nursing assessment focuses on the patient's FUNCTIONAL RESPONSES to illness and health. Medical assessment focuses on diagnosing and treating the disease. |
| What is the BRADEN score for a HIGH RISK patient? | Score of 18 or below. Very high risk = score of 9 or below. The scale maximum is 23 (lowest risk). Lower score = higher risk. |
| What is TURGOR TEST for skin and what is NORMAL? | Pinch skin on back of hand or forearm, release — normal skin returns to baseline in <2 seconds (good turgor = hydrated). |
| What is the NURSING PROCESS for a patient with PAIN? | ASSESS (location, intensity, quality, timing), DIAGNOSE (Acute/Chronic Pain), PLAN (pain <4/10 within 30 min), IMPLEMENT (medication, positioning, ice/heat, distraction), EVALUATE (did pain score improve?). |
| What is DIURESIS and which medications cause it? | Increased urine output. Diuretics cause diuresis. Common diuretics: Furosemide (Lasix), Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), Spironolactone. Used for hypertension, heart failure, and edema. |
| What is ELECTROLYTE balance and why does it matter? | Electrolytes are charged particles (Na, K, Ca, Mg, Cl, phosphate) essential for nerve and muscle function, fluid balance, and pH. Imbalances cause serious symptoms. |
| What is the GLASGOW COMA SCALE in simple terms? | Eyes (E): 4=open spontaneously, 3=to voice, 2=to pain, 1=none. Verbal (V): 5=oriented, 4=confused, 3=inappropriate, 2=incomprehensible, 1=none. Motor (M): 6=follows commands, 5=localizes, 4=withdraws, 3=flexion, 2=extension, 1=none. Total: 3-15. |
| What is DOCUMENTATION: what does 'if it wasn't charted, it wasn't done' mean? | In legal and professional nursing, care that is not documented is considered to not have been provided. The medical record is the legal proof of care given. |
| What is the proper sequence for DONNING (putting on) PPE? | 1. Hand hygiene, 2. Gown, 3. Mask/respirator, 4. Eye protection/face shield, 5. Gloves (last). |
| What is the proper sequence for DOFFING (removing) PPE? | 1. Gloves, 2. Eye protection/face shield, 3. Gown, 4. Mask/respirator (last), 5. Hand hygiene after each step. |
| What does TACHYPNEA mean? | Abnormally FAST breathing rate — above 20 breaths per minute in an adult. Can indicate respiratory distress, fever, anxiety, metabolic acidosis. |
| What is BRADYPNEA? | Abnormally SLOW breathing rate — below 12 breaths per minute. Can indicate narcotic overdose, head injury, metabolic disorders. |
| What is APNEA? | Complete cessation (stopping) of breathing. A true emergency requiring immediate intervention. |
| What is CHEYNE-STOKES respiration? | An abnormal breathing pattern with cycles of progressively deeper breaths, then progressively shallower breaths, followed by a period of apnea. Associated with heart failure, brain injury, or end of life. |
| What is the Nurse Practice Act? | The state law that defines the scope of practice, educational requirements, and standards of conduct for nurses in that state. Violations can result in license suspension or revocation. |
| What is DELEGATION in nursing? | Transferring the responsibility of performing a nursing task to another competent individual, while retaining accountability for the outcome. |
| What is a SENTINEL EVENT in healthcare? | An unexpected event resulting in DEATH or serious physical/psychological harm — or risk thereof. Examples: wrong-site surgery, medication errors causing death, patient falls resulting in death. |
| What is a NEVER EVENT? | A serious, largely preventable adverse event that should NEVER occur in healthcare. Examples: wrong-patient/site/procedure surgery, retained surgical items, severe pressure ulcers, patient falls with serious injury. |
| What does NCLEX-style PRIORITY questions mean? | Questions asking which patient or intervention to address FIRST. Use: ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), Maslow's hierarchy, and nursing process (assessment before action). |
| What is the SAFE environment for a hospitalized patient? | Clean, hazard-free environment with working call bell, proper lighting, clear pathways, appropriate side rails, and all safety equipment accessible. |
| What is the most important thing you can do as a student nurse? | Ask questions, advocate for your patients, practice clinical reasoning, and never do something you're not sure about without supervision. |
Created by:
Larisha